insurance exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes both the premium paid by the insured and the promise by the insurer to pay a covered loss and defend the insured in a lawsuit?

Consideration

Acceptance

Offer

Legal Purpose

A
  1. Consideration
    Something of value is exchanged; the exchange of an act for a promise.
    The consideration made by the applicant is the premium payment.
    The consideration made by the insurer is its promise to pay for covered losses.
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2
Q

Under the Other Insurance condition, when two property policies cover the same property, how is a loss apportioned?

Each policy will pay an equal share of the loss

Neither policy will pay because of overinsurance

The first policy will pay up to its limits; then the second policy acts as excess coverage

Each policy will share proportionately according to the total insurance

A

Each policy will share proportionately according to the total insurance

For a property policy, the Other Insurance clause generally states that two policies covering the same loss will pay proportionally to their limits of insurance

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3
Q

Under aleatory contracts the exchange of values may be:

Waived

Rescinded

Equal

Unequal

A

Unequal
An aleatory contract is contingent on particular events, such a covered loss. Under an insurance policy, the insurer’s obligation to pay a loss depends on uncertain events, while the insured must pay a fixed premium during the policy period. Thus, the exchange of values is likely to be unequal between any given insurer and insured.

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4
Q

Other Than Collision coverage would cover losses to an insured vehicle caused by all of the following, except:

Fire

Driving into a tree

Larceny

Hail

A

Driving into a tree

Collision means the upset of the covered auto or its impact with another vehicle or object. Damage caused by the running into a tree would be covered under Collision coverage.

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5
Q

What coverage is not included under the Yacht policy?

Protection and Indemnity

Towing

Personal Injury Coverage

Personal Property coverage

A

Personal Injury Coverage

In addition to providing property and liability coverage, a yacht policy also offers protection and indemnity coverage for the insured’s legal liability for bodily injury and damage to property of others, personal property coverage for property on the yacht, and coverage for fuel spills, commercial towing, and dinghies. Personal injury is not covered

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6
Q

Which type of producer authority is not spelled out in the contract, but is necessary for carrying out the producer’s duties?

Admitted

Express

Assumed

Implied

A

Implied

Implied authority is not specifically listed in the contract, but is considered necessary for the producer to carry out their duties. Example: a producer has the express authority to transact insurance business–this implies the authority to provide quotes and collect premiums.

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7
Q

In Missouri, how many years must an insurer maintain policy records after a policy terminates?

5

3

2

7

A

2
All insurance policy records must be maintained for 2 years after the policy terminates. These records must remain available for examiners.

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8
Q

What is the correct term for a secondary loss that occurs as a result of a direct loss from a covered peril?

Secondary Loss

Consequential Loss

Provisional Loss

Delayed Loss

A

Consequential Loss
The direct loss to the property is the damage to the property caused by an insured peril. The indirect, or consequential, loss is further financial loss that results from the loss of use of the damaged property.

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9
Q

All of the following are true, except:

Coverage D of a Homeowners Policy covers additional living expenses

Coverage D of a Homeowners Policy includes loss of income from an incidental business

Home schooling is permitted under a Homeowners Policy

A Homeowners Policy will not cover theft of a boat away from premises

A

Coverage D of a Homeowners Policy includes loss of income from an incidental business

Coverage D does not cover loss of income from an incidental business.

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10
Q

Loss of income suffered by a storeowner after their store is destroyed in a fire is considered a(n):

Provisional loss

Secondary loss

Delayed loss

Indirect loss

A

Indirect loss
The direct loss to the property is the damage caused by an insured peril, the fire. The indirect, or consequential, loss is further financial loss that results from the loss of business income due to the loss of the damaged store.

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11
Q

Which of the following will be paid by Supplementary Payments under Part A of the Personal Auto Policy?

A $250 bail bond

$1,000 for loss of earnings when the insured is disabled

Medical expenses when the insured’s daughter is injured in an auto accident

A judgment against the insured up to 10% above liability limits

A

A $250 bail bond

Of these choices, only bail bonds is a Supplementary Payment. The policy limit is $250.

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12
Q

All of the following statements about binders are true, except:

A binder specifies the insurer providing the coverage

A binder specifies the perils covered

A binder specifies the premium amount

A binder specifies the effective date of coverage and amount of coverage

A

A binder specifies the premium amount

A binder does not specify the premium amount. The Declarations of an actual policy would include the premium.

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13
Q

After 60 days, a Homeowners policy can be cancelled for which of the following reasons?

Location of the property

The insured’s spouse is convicted of arson

Insurer’s sole discretion

The age of the insured

A

The insured’s spouse is convicted of arson

The insurer may cancel a Homeowners policy if any resident of the property is convicted of a crime that would increase the hazard insured against, such as arson.

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14
Q

If other insurance also applies to a loss covered by a policy, which of the following will establish the method for determining how the insurance companies will pay the loss?

Limit of Liability

Subrogation

Pro rata liability

Claim Settlement

A

Pro rata liability

This provision is found in the policy in the Other Insurance condition, and provides for claim settlement to be proportioned to the amount of other insurance.

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15
Q

All of the following statements regarding liability losses are correct, except:

Loss of consortium means the loss of companionship of a husband or wife

Bodily injury includes personal injury, physical injury, sickness, and disease

Property damage includes physical damage to tangible property, including loss of use of that property

Personal injury includes libel, slander, and false arrest

A

Bodily injury includes personal injury, physical injury, sickness, and disease

Bodily injury does not include personal injury.

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16
Q

Which coverage is written with a per occurrence limit?

Bodily injury and property damage

Personal injury

Advertising injury

Strict liability

A

Bodily injury and property damage

Bodily injury and property damage is written with a per occurrence limit.

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17
Q

A manufacturer is held liable if a product caused an injury whether the product was or was not defective. This describes what type of liability?

Contingent

Direct

Absolute

Strict

A

Strict

The doctrine of Strict Liability applies to products and their manufacturers. It holds that the manufacturer can be held responsible for an injury caused by a product, even if the product is not defective.

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18
Q

Which statement is not correct about the Right to Recover Payment under the PAP?

The Right to Recover is an insured’s right

The person who is paid a claim must give the insurance company the right to recover damages

The right to recover involves going after the negligent party to pay for the insured’s loss

The insured must reimburse the insurance company if the insured is paid by the other party

A

The Right to Recover is an insured’s right
The Right to Recover is a right given by the insured to the insurer after the insurer paid a claim.

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19
Q

How many days’ written notice must the insurer give the insured before cancelling a Homeowners policy for nonpayment of premium?

10

30

15

60

A

10
An insurer terminating a Homeowners policy must give the insured 10 days written notice before cancelling for nonpayment of premium.

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20
Q

An unintended and unforeseen event from which a loss results is called which of the following?

Risk

Proximate cause

Peril

Accident

A

Accident

An accident is the unforeseen and unplanned event from which a loss derives.

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21
Q

Which of the following is not an element of negligence?

Assumption of risk

Duty owed

Proximate cause

Forseeable consequence

A

Assumption of risk

The elements of negligence are: Duty of care, violation of the duty of care, proximate cause, and damages that are foreseeable. Assumption of risk is a defense against negligence, rather than an element of it.

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22
Q

When firefighters extinguish a house fire with water, the water damage is considered a(n):

Consequential Loss

Loss that will be subrogated to the fire department

Indirect loss

Direct loss

A

Direct loss
Water damage is a direct loss to the property.

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23
Q

Choose the false statement about the FAIR Plan policy.

The policy term is 12 months and renews automatically

An inspection of the property will be made

If the insured has 2 losses within a 12-month period, the policy will be nonrenewed

The policy provides coverage up to $200,000 for a dwelling

A

If the insured has 2 losses within a 12-month period, the policy will be nonrenewed

If there are 2 losses within a 12-month period, a higher deductible will be imposed, and if there are no losses for 5 consecutive years, the deductible may be reduced

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24
Q

Before cancelling a property insurance policy for nonpayment of premium, an insurer must give the insured how many days’ written notice?

10

45

30

60

A

10
An insurer terminating a property insurance policy for nonpayment of premium, or because the insured committed arson, must give the insured 10 days’ notice.

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25
Q

All of the following are true of subrogation, except:

It allows the insurer to attempt collection from a third party to reimburse a loss

It allows the insurer to file suit against the insured

It helps the insurer control expenses and premiums

It prevents the insured from collecting twice for the same loss

A

It allows the insurer to file suit against the insured

The principle of subrogation requires the insured to transfer its right of recovery against any party causing a loss to the insurer, after it accepts payment from the insurer for a loss. Subrogation allows the insurer to recover from the third party that caused a loss any amounts paid to an insured. It also prevents the insured from collecting twice for the same loss. It does not allow the insurer to sue the insured.

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26
Q

Which of the following is not true about the Missouri FAIR Plan?

Perils covered under the FAIR Plan are normally limited to fire and extended coverage

All admitted property insurers in Missouri must participate in the FAIR plan

Licensed producers may bind coverage and accept premium payments

Property to be insured must meet reasonable underwriting standards

A

Licensed producers may bind coverage and accept premium payments
Producers are not contracted by the FAIR Plan and do not have the authority to bind coverage of accept premium payments on behalf of the FAIR Plan.

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27
Q

Which of the following best describes a direct loss?

Transportation expenses after a personal auto loss

Increased living expenses following a fire loss

Loss of rents from a dwelling following a fire loss

Water damage resulting from a burst pipe

A

Water damage resulting from a burst pipe

A direct loss is a physical loss proximately caused by a covered peril.

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28
Q

A second negligent act that interferes with the chain of events leading to a loss is known as a(n):

Loss of consortium

Tort

Foreseeable consequence

Intervening cause

A

Intervening cause

An intervening cause prevents or limits recovery from the wrongdoer when a second, distinctly separate negligent act occurs after the original negligent act, but before damage occurs, and interferes with the chain of events that brings about the loss. The intervening cause must be unexpected and unforeseen.

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29
Q

Which of the following is not required in the estimating process of handling a claim?

If the insured chooses the insurer’s repair shop, no additional cost will be charged to the insured

The estimate must be based on aftermarket parts

An estimate prepared by the insurer must have the insured’s permission

The person preparing the estimate must have a contractual relationship with the insurer

A

The person preparing the estimate must have a contractual relationship with the insurer

The estimate must be prepared by a person or entity having no contractual relationship with the insurer.

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30
Q

Each insurer must maintain a register of all producers it has appointed and notify the Director within how many days of appointment?

90 days

30 days

15 days

Never

A

30

Each insurer must maintain a register of all producers it appoints to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance on its behalf. New appointees must be added to the register within 30 days of appointment. Terminated appointments must also be removed from the register within 30 days and the reason(s) for termination must be provided to the Director.

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31
Q

A producer’s license will not be revoked for which of the following?

Convicted of a crime of moral turpitude

Knowingly violated a state insurance law

Unknowingly accepted business from an unlicensed individual

Licenses suspended in another state

A

Unknowingly accepted business from an unlicensed individual

In order to have a license suspended, the producer must knowingly accept business from an unlicensed individual.

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32
Q

A producer is guilty of ___________ when he makes a derogatory statement about a competing insurer’s financial statement.

Twisting

Defamation

Coercion

Intimidation

A

Defamation
is making a false or maliciously critical statement regarding the financial condition of any person, with the intent to injure such person.

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33
Q

Which of the following is not a duty of the Director of Insurance?

Regulate the Department of Insurance affairs

Prescribe forms and procedures

Conduct hearings

Create Missouri insurance laws

A

Create Missouri insurance laws
The Director of Insurance does not create law. The Director has the authority to make any rules necessary to enforce the insurance laws passed by the state legislature.

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34
Q

Which of the following defines a surplus lines broker?

A broker who places risks with authorized but nonadmitted carriers

Any producer who wants to transact insurance in any state

Any producer who wants to transact insurance in Missouri

A broker who places risks with authorized and admitted carriers

A

A broker who places risks with authorized but nonadmitted carriers
A surplus lines broker is a broker who places risks with authorized but nonadmitted carriers.

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35
Q

How many working days after receiving all necessary documentation does an insurer have to advise the claimant that the claim has been accepted or denied?

15

10

45

30

A

15
Within 15 working days of receiving all necessary documentation which establishes the nature and the extent of the claim, the insurer must advise the claimant that the claim is either accepted or denied.

36
Q

If the Department of Insurance denies a producer license application, the applicant may request a hearing within how many days of the denial?

30

60

15

45

A

30

The applicant may request a hearing within 30 days of the receipt of denial of a license by the Department of Insurance.

37
Q

Within how many working days must the insurer advise the claimant that the claim is accepted or denied?

10

15

30

21

A

15

If the insurer needs more time to determine whether a claim should be accepted or denied, it must notify the first-party claimant within the initial 15 working days and provide the reasons more time is needed.

38
Q

In Missouri, a personal auto policy may not insure more than _____ automobiles.

8

4

10

5

A

4
A personal auto policy may cover up to 4 autos. Any more than that will require a commercial auto policy.

39
Q

Within how many days must an insurer notify the Director of the appointment of an agent?

60

45

30

15

A

30

Each insurer must maintain a register of all producers it has appointed and notify the Director within 30 days of each appointment.

40
Q

Marine/Inland Marine insurance will cover which of the following?

Storage

Pipelines

Money in a bank safe

Building improvements

A

Pipelines

Inland Marine insurance covers instrumentalities of transportation or communication, such as bridges, piers, pipelines, telephone lines, TV towers, and outdoor equipment.

41
Q

A producer’s license may be revoked or suspended for all of these reasons, except:

Having an insurance license suspended or revoked in another state

Being charged with a felony

Knowingly violating a state insurance law

Being convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude

A

Being charged with a felony
Revocation or suspension requires that the licensee is convicted, not merely charged.

Relevant Content: State Laws

42
Q

Inland Marine Insurance is not typically used to insure which type of property?

Jewelry

Cameras

Autos

Stamps

A

Autos are not a covered class of property.

43
Q

company A’s per person Limit of Liability is $100,000 and Company B’s is $200,000 for the same insured. How much will Company B have to pay for a covered $6,000 loss caused by the insured?

A
$2,000

B
$6,000

C
Zero

D
$4,000

A

d 4,000
If other auto liability insurance applies, each policy will pay its proportionate share of the loss. Company B’s limit is 2/3 of the total coverage by both policies. 2/3 of the total loss of $6,000 = $4,000.

44
Q

Which of the following vehicle uses is not excluded under Personal Auto Medical Payments?

A
Farm use

B
Racing

C
Livery

D
Occupying a vehicle as a residence

A

Farm use is not listed as an exclusion as all other choices are.

45
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Section II of the Homeowners Policy?

A
Section II of the HO-3 (Special Form) has broader coverage than Section II of the HO-2 (Broad Form)

B
Section II is the same in all Homeowners Forms

C
Section II of the HO-6 is modified to adapt to the exposures of the Condominium unit owner

D
Section II of the HO-4 (Tenants Form) is modified to adapt to the Tenant’s exposures

A

Section II is the same in all Homeowners Forms

Since the liability exposures of individuals and families have little to do with their mode of residence, Section II is the same in all Homeowners Policy forms.

46
Q

A guest falls in K’s house and is injured in an amount of $1,000. How much will K’s Homeowners Policy pay regardless of fault, if the Coverage F limit is $1,500?

A
Nothing

B
$1,500

C
$1,000

D
$500

A

C
$1,000
K’s policy will pay the actual amount of medical expenses up to the policy limit of Coverage F.

47
Q

Which of the following statements about medical payments is false?

A
Medical payments coverage is provided to discourage lawsuits

B
Specific damages compensate the injured party for actual damages

C
General damages compensate the injured party for pain and suffering

D
Medical payments cover personal injury

A

Medical payments cover personal injury
Medical payments pays for bodily injury without regard as to fault by the insured. Personal injury expenses are not covered.

48
Q

All of the following are true about a newly acquired additional vehicle, except:

A
Coverage is as broad as the broadest coverage on any vehicle under the policy

B
It may be used on a farm

C
It can be used to transport goods for hire if receipts are less than $10,000

D
It must be reported to the insurer within 14 days of purchase

A

C
It can be used to transport goods for hire if receipts are less than $10,000

Vehicles used to carry goods for hire cannot be insured under a Personal Auto Policy.

49
Q

Which of the following statements about the DP-3 Policy is false?

A
Mobile homes are not eligible

B
The insured dwelling must be used principally for dwelling purposes

C
The dwelling and contents are both covered on an open perils basis

D
Losses to the dwelling are paid on a replacement cost basis

A

C
The dwelling and contents are both covered on an open perils basis

Only the dwelling is covered on an open perils basis.

50
Q

Which of the following is not true about a Reciprocal Insurance Company?

A
If funds are insufficient to pay claims, the subscribers are assessed for additional premium

B
Reciprocal companies may only transact liability insurance

C
It allows individuals and corporations to exchange insurance on one another’s risks

D
Each subscriber assumes a share of the risk of all other subscribers

A

B
Reciprocal companies may only transact liability insurance

Reciprocals, unlike Risk Retention Groups, are not restricted on the type of insurance they transact.

51
Q

Which of the following is true of a Dwelling form?

A
The Broad Form covers the cost to repair defective plumbing

B
The Special Form covers the building and other structures on an open perils basis

C
The Basic Form covers the contents on an open perils basis

D
The Basic Form covers the contents against theft

A

B
The Special Form covers the building and other structures on an open perils basis

The Special Form has open perils coverage for the dwelling and other structures. The Basic Form does not offer open perils coverage for contents.

52
Q

Which of the following powers describes the authority stated in an agent’s agency contract?

A
Assumed

B
Apparent

C
Express

D
Implied

A

C
Express

The agency contract, which exists between an insurer and a producer, sets forth the powers that are granted to the producer. These powers are referred to as express because they are directly stated in the contract.

53
Q

Which of the following best describes a direct loss?

A
Transportation expenses after a personal auto loss

B
Water damage resulting from a burst pipe

C
Increased living expenses following a fire loss

D
Loss of rents from a dwelling following a fire loss

A

B
Water damage resulting from a burst pipe

A direct loss is a physical loss proximately caused by a covered peril.

54
Q

Which of the following is true about the right of salvage?

A
The insurer has the right to take possession of damaged property after payment of a loss

B
Damaged property must be disposed of after a loss.

C
The insured has the right to keep damaged property after payment of a loss

D
The insurer is required to take possession of damaged property after a loss

A

A
The insurer has the right to take possession of damaged property after payment of a loss

After payment for loss, the insurer has the right to salvage damaged property.

55
Q

A second negligent act that interferes with the chain of events leading to a loss is known as a(n):

A
Intervening cause

B
Loss of consortium

C
Tort

D
Foreseeable consequence

A

A
Intervening cause

An intervening cause prevents or limits recovery from the wrongdoer when a second, distinctly separate negligent act occurs after the original negligent act, but before damage occurs, and interferes with the chain of events that brings about the loss. The intervening cause must be unexpected and unforeseen.

56
Q

( missouri) Which of the following actions/circumstances is not sufficient grounds for the suspension or revocation of a producer’s license?

A
Signing a client’s name to fast-track an amended application

B
Having an insurance license suspended in another state

C
Informing the Director of unfair trade practice after self-audit

D
Disregarding a court order to pay income tax

A

C
Informing the Director of unfair trade practice after self-audit

Informing the Director is not sufficient grounds for suspension or revocation. The Director must take any information reported as a result of a self-audit into consideration before assigning any penalty. If a violation is detected as a part of a self-audit and immediately reported to the Director, the classification of the violation is reduced 2 steps.

57
Q

An insured looking to cover the dwelling against damage from hail would need to purchase which Dwelling form?

A
DP-2

B
DP-3

C
DP-1

D
Any form except for the unendorsed DP-1

A

D
Any form except for the unendorsed DP-1
Hail is a covered peril under the DP-3, the DP-2, and the DP-1 if purchased with the Extended Coverage Endorsement.

58
Q

When an individual faces the risk of economic loss in the event of property damage, this indicates which of the following?

A
Limit of recovery

B
Insurable interest

C
Subrogation

D
Merit rating

A

B
Insurable interest

Typically, if there is a risk of financial loss, there is an insurable interest.

59
Q

Which of the following Part D claims would be denied under the Personal Auto Policy?

A
Loss to electronic ignition equipment of the covered auto

B
Loss to permanently installed sound reproduction equipment of the covered auto

C
Earthquake damage to the covered auto

D
Loss to the covered auto caused by road damage to tires

A

D
Loss to the covered auto caused by road damage to tires

While the insuring agreement of Part D is very broad, many perils are excluded, including wear and tear, freezing, mechanical or electric breakdown, or road damage to tires.

60
Q

Which of the following is not a condition found in an insurance policy?

A
Assignment

B
Subrogation

C
Liberalization

D
Insuring Agreement

A

D
Insuring Agreement

The Insuring Agreement is a Section of the policy, separate and distinct from the policy conditions.

61
Q

The standard policy structure for insurance policies includes all of the following sections, except:

A
Duties

B
Conditions

C
Exclusions

D
Insuring Agreement

A

A
Duties

The duties of the insured and the insurer are found in the policy Conditions.

62
Q

When property is valued on a replacement cost basis, losses will be paid:

A
At the cost to replace with functionally equivalent property

B
At market value of the damaged property

C
At today’s costs, without any deduction for depreciation

D
At an amount previously agreed upon by the insured and insurer

A

C
At today’s costs, without any deduction for depreciation

Replacement cost valuation pays the cost to replace property with property of like kind and quality, without a deduction for depreciation. Many property policies providing loss valuation at replacement value require covered property to be insured to a certain percentage of its replacement value, such as 80% or 90%.

63
Q

Proximate cause refers to:

A
An unbroken chain of events leading to a loss, that were initiated in a negligent act of wrongdoing

B
A second negligent act that interferes with the chain of events leading to a loss

C
The fact that a policy restricts the territory to which coverage applies

D
The fact that a wrongdoer could not foresee the consequences of his/her actions

A

A
An unbroken chain of events leading to a loss, that were initiated in a negligent act of wrongdoing

A proximate cause is any action on inaction leading to a loss by a chain of events unbroken by any intervening cause.

64
Q

When firefighters extinguish a house fire with water, the water damage is considered a(n):

A
Indirect loss

B
Loss that will be subrogated to the fire department

C
Direct loss

D
Consequential Loss

A

C
Direct loss

Water damage is a direct loss to the property.

65
Q

Liability coverage is designed to:

A
Protect the insured from bodily injury and property damage they are legally obligated to pay

B
Permit the insured to countersue the insurer for losses not covered

C
Cover injuries and damages caused by the insured’s intentional and unintentional actions

D
Protect an insured from being sued by an injured party

A

A
Protect the insured from bodily injury and property damage they are legally obligated to pay

66
Q

All of the following are risk management techniques, except:

A
Retention

B
Enhancement

C
Transfer

D
Avoidance

A

B
Enhancement

Enhancement is not a risk management technique

67
Q

All of the following are insured’s duties after a loss under a property policy, except:

A
Giving notice of loss as soon as possible

B
Submitting to examination by insurer

C
Abandoning the property to the insurer

D
Furnishing inventory of damaged property

A

C
Abandoning the property to the insurer

The insured may not abandon property to the insurer.

68
Q

K owns several buildings at different locations with each one insured on a separate policy. Which of the following methods of writing insurance does this describe?

A
Scheduled

B
Agreed Value

C
Blanket

D
Specific Limit

A

D
Specific Limit

Since each property is covered under a separate policy, each with a unique coverage limit, each property is written on a specific limit basis. A loss to any one property would not affect the policies covering the other properties.

69
Q

An insured puts $50,000 of covered inventory into storage, where the items are later damaged by a covered peril. What policy provision prevents the storage facility from collecting any payment from the insured’s claim?
A
Garagekeeper’s Form

B
Liberalization clause

C
No benefit to bailee

D
Assignment Rule

A

C
No benefit to bailee

The “no benefit to bailee” clause ensures that no one other than the policyholder can collect on a claim.

70
Q

Theft is specifically defined as:

A
Any act of stealing

B
The loss of property when the cause is unknown

C
Threatening bodily harm to a bailee

D
Malicious vandalism

A

A
Any act of stealing

Theft is the broadest definition and includes any act of stealing.

71
Q

K gets a horrible rash after using wrinkle-prevention cream for 2 months. This is considered:

A
Negligence

B
Punitive damages

C
An occurrence

D
An accident

A

C
An occurrence

An occurrence is continuous or repeated exposure to the same general harmful conditions.

72
Q

Which of the following is an example of special damages?

A
The damages of pain, suffering, and disfigurement

B
The damages assessed by the court as a penalty for gross negligence

C
Compensation to an injured party for actual medical expenses and loss of earnings

D
Compensation to a husband or wife for the loss of companionship of a spouse

A

C
Compensation to an injured party for actual medical expenses and loss of earnings

Special damages are an award to an injured party for actual and known expenses such as bills, loss of earnings, and the costs of repairing or replacing damaged property. Special damages are paid for tangible loss or damage.

73
Q

Which of the following terms includes pain and suffering, disfigurement, and mental anguish?

A
Strict liability

B
Loss of consortium

C
Specific damages

D
General damages

A

D
General damages

All of these items are classified as general damages.

74
Q

Which section lists the perils insured against by a property insurance policy?

A
Additional Coverages

B
Declarations

C
Insuring Agreement

D
Definitions

A

C
Insuring Agreement

The Insuring Agreement is the company’s commitment to protect the insured and includes a description of the perils insured against.

75
Q

( missouri) Which of the following is not true of a surplus lines broker?

A
The broker must pass a surplus lines application exam

B
The broker must have a surplus lines license

C
The broker’s license renews biennially

D
The broker places risks with admitted carriers

A

The broker places risks with admitted carriers

A surplus lines broker places risks with authorized but nonadmitted carriers.

76
Q

Which of the following reduces an award in proportion to the amount of negligence?

A
Contributory risk

B
Contributory negligence

C
Comparative negligence

D
Comparative risk

A

C
Comparative negligence
Under comparative negligence, the award to the injured party is reduced by the amount of their own negligence.

77
Q

Personal injury includes all of the following, except:

A
False arrest

B
Libel

C
Slander

D
Bodily injury

A

D
Bodily injury
Personal injury is non-bodily injury to a person arising from wrongful conduct.

78
Q

Which of the following statements about medical payments coverage is true?

A
They apply to all persons, including the insured on the premises for any reason

B
Payments are made regardless of fault or negligence

C
They apply to all expenses incurred within 5 years of the accident

D
They apply to members of amateur athletic teams sponsored by the insured

A

B
Payments are made regardless of fault or negligence
Medical payments coverage provides payment of medical and medically associated expenses on a voluntary basis, without regard to negligence or fault on the part of the insured.

79
Q

( missouri) Which of the following is not required in the estimating process of handling a claim?

A
An estimate prepared by the insurer must have the insured’s permission

B
The estimate must be based on aftermarket parts

C
The person preparing the estimate must have a contractual relationship with the insurer

D
If the insured chooses the insurer’s repair shop, no additional cost will be charged to the insured

A

C
The person preparing the estimate must have a contractual relationship with the insurer
The estimate must be prepared by a person or entity having no contractual relationship with the insurer.

80
Q

The formal statement that verifies details so the insurer can determine liability is called:

A
A binder

B
A certificate of insurance

C
A certificate of authority

D
A proof of loss

A

D
A proof of loss

A proof of loss setting forth the date and circumstances of the loss (including the amount of the loss) is generally required by the insurer before the insurer will settle the claim.

81
Q

H’s liability policy has the following limits: $35,000 per person, $350,000 per occurrence, and $2,000,000 aggregate. This year, three claimants file in the amount $15,000, $30,000, and $45,000. How much will the policy pay?

A
$90,000

B
$80,000

C
$35,000

D
$350,000

A

B
$80,000
The per person limit prevents the policy from paying any more than $35,000 per person. Therefore, the $15,000 and $30,000 claims will be paid in full, but the $45,000 claim will only be paid up to the per person limit of $35,000.

82
Q

Driver D slid into another car causing an accident in which three people in the other car were injured. Two injured parties claimed $15,000 in medical expenses, and the third person claimed $25,000. How much will D’s insurance company pay if D’s policy has 25/50 limits for bodily injury?

A
$50,000

B
$75,000

C
$60,000

D
$45,000

A

A
$50,000

The policy pays up to $25,000 for each person injured, but no more than $50,000 per occurrence, regardless of the number of persons injured. Therefore, the limit for this accident is $50,000.

83
Q

( missouri) If the Department of Insurance denies a producer license application, the applicant may request a hearing within how many days of the denial?

A
30

B
45

C
60

D
15

A

A
30

84
Q

( missouri) The Director may conduct an examination of any insurer whenever it is necessary or at least every ______ years.

A
10

B
3

C
7

D
5

A

5

The Director or authorized examiner may examine any insurer as often as deemed appropriate, but each Missouri insurer must be examined at least once every 5 years.

85
Q

If the Department of Insurance denies an applicant’s license, the applicant may request a hearing within how many days of the denial?

A
45

B
60

C
30

D
15

A

C
30

Within 30 days of the receipt of denial of a license by the Department of Insurance, the applicant may request a hearing.

86
Q

Z is a distributor of natural gas. While connecting gas to B’s house, an explosion occurs and the house is destroyed. Z’s defense is that B did not turn off the pilot light on the furnace before the hookup, as instructed by the company. The court ruled that the activities of connecting gas lines were so dangerous that Z’s defense did not relieve its liability. What legal principle is applicable in this case?

A
Assumption of risk

B
Comparative negligence

C
Absolute liability

D
Contributory negligence

A

C
Absolute liability

Some activities are so inherently dangerous that they are bound by the principle of absolute liability, which states that no degree of care taken by the insured can defend against a charge of negligence.