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IERW TH-67 instruments > instruments_5 > Flashcards

instruments_5 Flashcards

1
Q

AR 95-1: Smoking is prohibited in or within what distance of Army aircraft?

A

50 ft

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2
Q

AR 95-1: For Rotary wing IFR flight planning a fuel reserve of how long is required?

A

30 minutes

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3
Q

AR 95-1: Are you allowed to fly into known or forecast severe icing conditions?

A

No

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4
Q

AR 95-1: Are you allowed to fly into known or forecast moderate icing conditions?

A

yes, with adequate operational anti-icing or deicing equipment.

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5
Q

AR 95-1: Are you allowed to fly into known or forecast extreme turbulence?

A

No

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6
Q

AR 95-1: Are you allowed to fly into known severe turbulence?

A

No

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7
Q

AR 95-1: What is the Helicopter SVFR minimums?

A

1/2 mile , Clear of Clouds unless a higher minima is posted in the AP1

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8
Q

AR 95-1: To file IFR, what weather must meet published wx minimums through 1 hour after ETA?

A

Predominant

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9
Q

AR 95-1: How long does the weather forecast last before bing void?

A

1.5 hours

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10
Q

AR 95-1: What are the 4 times you may NOT reduce visibility minimums?

A
  1. Flying faster than 90 knots (Cat A)
  2. Copter approaches
  3. Approach plate says “Visibility reduction by helicopters NA”
  4. No reduction less than 1/4 mile
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11
Q

AR 95-1: An alternate airfield is required when filing IFR if:

A

(WEATHER) - Predominant WX thru ETA + 1 hour is less than (wx planning mins + 400/1)
(RADAR) - Radar is required for the approach
(NAVAIDS) - Navaids are unomonitored

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12
Q

AR 95-1: Is an alternate airfield required if radar is required for the approach but descent from en route minimum altitude for IFR operations can be made in VFR?

A

No (AR 95-1 5-2-e-4)

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13
Q

AR 95-1: An alternate airfield can be used when filing IFR if:

A

(WEATHER) - WORST wx thru ETA + 1 hour is better than (wx planning mins + 400/1)
(RADAR) - Radar is not required for that approach
(NAVAIDS) - Navaids are monitored
(G) - If GPS is not required for the approach
(A) - ANA does not appear in the FLIP
(S) - Surface Area Airspace (if class B,C,D, or E surface exists)

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14
Q

AR 95-1: What are the take off minimums for a pilot without 50 hours W-PC?

A

100 - 1/4

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15
Q

AR 95-1: When does an Army aviator no longer have take off minimums?

A

50 hours W-PC

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16
Q

AR 95-1: What are the take off minimums for a pilot with more than 50 hours W-PC?

A

0/0

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17
Q

AR 95-1: What is the minimum WX required to initiate an approach?

A

0/0

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18
Q

AR 95-1: When can an aircraft be flown below the published MDA or DH?

A

The approach threshold of the runway, or the approach lights or other markings, identifiable with the approach
end of the runway or landing area, must be clearly visible to the pilot.
The AC must be in a safe position to land.

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19
Q

AR 95-1: How much time can elapse before a pilot must be given a Proficiency Flight Evaluation for currency?

A

60 days in the aircraft mission, type, design, and

series (or series, group, per the applicable ATM) to be flown.

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20
Q

AR 95-1: What clothing and equipment must be worn by crew members when performing crew duties?

A

Leather Boots
Flight: Helmet, Suit, Gloves
Cotton/Wool/Nomex underwear
ID tags

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21
Q

AR 95-1: How often must your flight helmet be inspected?

A

120 days (180 days at Ft Rucker)

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22
Q

AR 95-1: When is it not acceptable to file IFR?

A 
VFR training
VFR only mission
Single Pilot
Excessive IFR delays from ATC
Time will not allow completion of mission
Hazardous WX
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23
Q

FM 3-04.240/AIM: If you are 60NM from a VOR, how wide is each radial?

A

1 mile

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24
Q

What does the L stand for in the L class VOR?

A

Low Altitude

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25
Q

What does the H stand for in the H class VOR?

A

High Altitude

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26
Q

How many degrees off course are you when you have full scale deflection on a VOR approach?

A

At least 10°

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27
Q

How many degrees off course are you when you have a full scale deflection on an ILS approach?

A

At least 2.5°

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28
Q

What are the classes of NDB’s and what distances are associated with them?

A 
L = 15 NM
MH = 25 NM
H = 50 NM
HH = 75 NM
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29
Q

What does Category A,B,C etc mean on an approach?

A

Determined by the aircraft speed and usually changes the weather minimums

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30
Q

What are the speeds associated with the Categories?

A 
A: 1-90 kts
B: 91-120 kts
C: 121-140 kts
D: 141-165 kts
E: 166+
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31
Q

Are category speeds determined by airspeed or ground speed?

A

Airspeed

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32
Q

If circling to land using Category A approach minimums, how large is the obstacle clearance area?

A

1.3 NM

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33
Q

When do you start a turn on a departure procedure?

A

400 feet above the departure end of the runway

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34
Q

What is EFAS?

A 
Enroute Flight Advisory Service
Who - Flight Watch
What - En route weather updates and collection of PIREPS
When - 0600-2200
Where - 5000'
How - 122.0 mhz
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35
Q

What is PMSV?

A

Pilot to Metro Service - a direct to pilot wx briefer service. Used to update wx or give PIREPS.

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36
Q

What is a Precision Approach?

A

A standard instrument approach procedure that has a glideslope/glidepath

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37
Q

What is an example of a Precision Approach?

A

ILS and PAR

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38
Q

What is the difference between an ILS and a PAR?

A

On a ILS the instruments provide the pilot with the elevation and azimuth information
On a PAR the Final controller (ATC) provides the information

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39
Q

What is a Non precision Approach?

A

A standard instrument approach procedure in which no electronic glideslope is provided

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40
Q

What are the Non precision approaches?

A

VOR, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, and SDF

everything but a ILS and PAR

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41
Q

What is a Final Approach Fix?

A

The fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed

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42
Q

What is the final approach fix for an ILS/PAR approach?

A

Glide path/slope intercept

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43
Q

How do you know when you are at the FAF on a PAR?

A

Final Controller (ATC) will announce, (on glide path, begin descent)

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44
Q

What is the FAF on a non precision approach?

A

Maltese Cross

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45
Q

What is a Final Approach Point?

A

The point on a non precision approach, where the procedure turn is completed and the descent may start

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46
Q

What is the missed approach point for an ILS/PAR approach?

A

On glide path at design height

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47
Q

How do you know that you are at the missed approach point on a PAR?

A

Final Controller (ATC) will announce, at decision height””

48
Q

What is the missed approach point for a non precision approach?

A

As published on each IAP (usually navaid passage or an elapsed time)

49
Q

On a precision approach what is the lowest altitude allowed called?

A

Decision Height

50
Q

On a non precision approach what is the lowest altitude allowed called?

A

Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)

51
Q

What is the meaning of the term crosscheck”?”

A

Observing and interpreting tow or more instruments to determine attitude and performance of an aircraft.

52
Q

When making minor corrections to altitude, what rate of change should be used on the vertical speed indicator?

A

The pitch attitude should produce a rate of change on the VSI about 2x the size of the altitude deviation. (100 ft off = 200 FPM correction)

53
Q

When should deviations in rate of climb or descent be corrected with pitch attitude? With power?

A

Pitch - 100FPM or less (as long as airspeed doesn’t change by more than 5 knots)
Power - more than 100FPM or 5 knots of airspeed

54
Q

When should power be adjusted for level off during climbs and descents?

A

Level off by 10% of the rate of climb or descent.

ultimately dependent upon weight of aircraft

55
Q

During turns, the initial bank is started with reference to what instrument?

A

Attitude Indicator (should take 4-6 seconds)

56
Q

How do you determine the bank angle required to obtain a standard rate turn?

A

Use 15% of TAS.
80 kts = 12
100 kts = 15
200 kts = 30

57
Q

Turns to a specified heading are normally made in what direction? When should the rollout be started?

A

Turn in the shortest direction to the heading.

Rollout lead is equal to half the angle of bank.

58
Q

When making heading changes of more than 20°, what rate of turn should be used? Less than 20°?

A

20° - Standard Rate Turn (3° per second)

59
Q

In developing an instrument cross-check, what are the most important instruments to watch?

A

Although no specified method of cross checking is recommended, those interments which give the best information for controlling the aircraft in any given maneuver should be used.

60
Q

What are the Pitch Attitude Control Instruments?

A

Altimeter
Attitude
Airspeed
VSI

61
Q

What are the Bank Attitude Control Instruments?

A

Heading
Attitude
Turn and Slip

62
Q

For unusual attitude recovery, what sequence of flight control adjustments are required?

A

Attitude
Heading
Power
Trim

63
Q

What are the two possible ways of returning static pressure to the flight instruments should the primary static system fail during flight?

A

Use alternate static source if available or break the glass on the VSI. The VSI will now operate in reverse and there will be a lag in the Altimeter and Airspeed indicators.

64
Q

Indicated Altitude:

A

Read on the dial with the current altimeter setting.

65
Q

Pressure Altitude:

A

Height measured above the 29.92 inch of mercury pressure level (standard datum plane). If the Kollsman window is set to 29.92, the hand of the dial indicate pressure altitude.

66
Q

Absolute Altitude:

A

Altitude above the surface of terrain where the aircraft is flying.

67
Q

True Altitude:

A

Altitude above MSL.

68
Q

Density Altitude:

A

Altitude for which a given air density exists in the standard atmosphere.

69
Q

How does atmospheric temperature effect indicated altitude?

A

Air is warmer than the standard temp, the aircraft will be higher than indicated.
Air is colder than the standard temp, the aircraft will be lower than indicated.

70
Q

Slaved / Free Gyro modes

A

*

71
Q

What is the line of sight range for VHF/UHF radio equipment at 1000ft AGL?

A

39.6 NM

72
Q

What is the normal range of L and H class VORs at 1000ft AGL?

A

40 NM from 1000ft AGL up to and including 18,000ft AGL

73
Q

MIA:

A

Minimum IFR Altitude

  • Mountainous areas, 2000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course to be flown
  • Non Mountainous areas, 1000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course to be flown
  • Or as assigned by ATC
74
Q

MEA:

A

Minium Enroute IFR Altitude
- The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance

75
Q

MOCA:

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
- The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airways routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements of the entire route segment and which assures nag signal coverage within 25 SM (22NM) of the closest navaid that defines the route.

76
Q

MRA:

A

Minimum Reception Altitude

- Lowest Altitude at which an intersection can be determined

77
Q

MCA:

A

Minium Crossing Altitude
- Lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude.

78
Q

MVA:

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude

- Lowest MSA altitude at which and IFR aircraft will be vectored by a controller.

79
Q

MAA:

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude
- Highest usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. Prevents receiving conflicting nag signals operating on same freq.

80
Q

OROCA:

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude

  • Provides 1000ft buffer in Non Mountainous terrain
  • Provides 2000ft buffer in Mountainous terrain
  • doesn’t guarantee signal coverage for nav/comm/radar
81
Q

MSA:

A

Minimum Safe Altitude

  • Used in emergencies to provide 1000 ft clearance
  • designated as an Minimum Sector Altitude or an ESA
82
Q

Minimum Sector Altitude

A
  • Altitude depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1000 ft of obstacle clearance within a 25 mile radius of the nag upon which the procedure is predicated. (emergency use only and do not guarantee reception)
83
Q

ESA

A

Emergency Safe Altitude
- Altitude depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1000 ft obstacle clearance in non mountainous terrain and 2000ft obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain within a 100 mile radius of the nav upon which the procedure is based. (normally only in military procedures)

84
Q

TAA:

A

Terminal Arrival Area

- MSA fro RNAV approached. NOT mando but expected.

85
Q

Radial

A

a course emanating from a VOR/VORTAC/TACAN

86
Q

Bearing

A

The horizontal direction to or from any point. Based on magnetic North.

87
Q

Course

A

The intended direction of flight in the horizontal plane measured in degrees from North.

88
Q

Homing

A

Just keeping the bearing pointer aligned with the index.

You will fly a curved path if there is a crosswind.

89
Q

Tracking

A

Using a wind drift correction to fly a direct course. ATC clearances that specify direct” require tracking.”

90
Q

What is the maximum distance you can file a direct route between two VORs below 14,500 AGL and be assured reception?

A

80 NM.

91
Q

When do you start the outbound timing of a VOR or ADF holding pattern?

A

Abeam the station (TO/FROM indicator switches)

92
Q

When do you start the outbound timing of an Intersection holding pattern?

A

Wings Level (or 90° from Inbound course)

93
Q

If you correct 5° left in the inbound leg of a holding pattern what should your outbound correction be?

A

15° right

94
Q

If your outbound time in a holding pattern of 60 seconds creates a 45 second inbound time, what will your next outbound time be?

A

Using the E6b, line the inner 45 with the outer 60 and read the speed index at 80 seconds.

95
Q

Are holding entry procedures determined from ground track or aircraft heading?

A

Aircraft heading (+ or - 5°)

96
Q

How do you execute a 45°/180° PT?

A
  1. Fly outbound for 2 minutes
  2. Turn 45° left and fly 1 minute after wings level
  3. Turn 180° right and fly for 45 seconds
  4. Turn right to reciprocal of outbound heading
97
Q

How do you execute a 80°/260° PT?

A
  1. Fly outbound for 2 minutes
  2. Turn left for a heading change of 80°
  3. Turn right for a heading change of 260° (reciprocal of outbound heading)
98
Q

MSAW

A

Minimum Safe Altitude Warning
- function of the ARTSIII computer that aids the controller by alerting him or her when a tracked Mode C equipped aircraft is below or is predicted by the computer to go below a predetermined MSA.

99
Q

MDA

A

Minimum Descent Altitude
The lowest altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which a descent is authorized on final approach or during circle to land maneuvering in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided.

100
Q

DH

A

Decision Height
With respect to the operation of the aircraft, means the height at which a decision must be made during a precision approach to either continue or execute a missed approach

101
Q

If a course change is required at an intersection, when should that change be started?

A

An early turn is one method of adhering to airways or routes. The use of any available cockpit instrumentation, such as Distance Measuring Equipment, may be used by the pilot to lead the turn when making course changes. This is consistent with the intent of 14 CFR Section 91.181, which requires pilots to operate along the centerline of an airway and along the direct course between navigational aids or fixes. (AIM 5-3-5, a.)

102
Q

What is a Straight in Approach?

What is a Straight in Landing?

A

Straight in Approach - the final approach is begun without executing a PT.
Straight in Landing - a landing made on a runway aligned 30° of the final approach course following the completion of an IAP.

103
Q

What is a Visual Approach?

A

Aircraft can proceed visually and C/C. Must have airport or proceeding aircraft in sight at all times. WX must be 1000 or greater and 3SM or greater.

104
Q

What is a Contact Approach?

A

Must be C/C with at least 1 mile visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions. May deviate from IAP and proceed visually as long as ground visibility is at least 1 mile. Must request from ATC.

105
Q

What are four weather hazards described on the En Route / Mission Data section of the DD175-1?

A

Thunderstorms
High Density Altitudes
Icing
Gusty Winds

106
Q

What are the three P”s for risk management?”

A

Perceive
Process
Perform

107
Q

GPS”

A

VOR: + or - 5°
LOC: Less than full scale deflection
GPS: Less than full scale deflection

108
Q

What are the five f*cking T’s?

A 
Time
Turn
Tune
(Twist: Course in HSI)
Torque
Talk
(Tanks: Fuel)
109
Q

HAT

A

Height of the DH or MDA above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone (first usable 3000ft)

110
Q

HAA

A

Height of the MDA above the airport elevation. Published in conjunction with circling minimums.

111
Q

HAL

A

Height above a designated helicopter landing area used for helicopter IAPs.

112
Q

AIRMET

A

(WA) (issued every 6 hours)

  1. Moderate turbulence
  2. Moderate icing
  3. Sustained 30 knot winds at surface
  4. Widespread ceilings
113
Q

SIGMET

A

(WS) (issued as needed)

  1. Severe turbulence
  2. Severe icing
  3. Dust/Sand Storms, Volcanic Ash
  4. Volcanic Eruption
114
Q

CONVECTIVE SIGMET

A

(WST) (issued every hour)

  1. Severe Thunderstorms due to:
    a. Surface winds ≥50 knots
    b. Hail at surface ≥ 3/4 inches in diameter
    c. Tornadoes
  2. Embedded Thunderstorms
  3. A line of mother fÏ…ckin thunderstorms
  4. Thunderstorms ≥ to VIP level 4 affecting 40 or more of an area at least 3000 square miles
115
Q

NDB Classes and Ranges:
MH
H
HH

A

MH: 25NM
H: 50 NM
HH: 75NM

116
Q 
VOR Classes and Ranges:
HA
L
T
U
A

HA:

117
Q

How is a remote altimeter setting computed?

A

Add height adjustment to MDA, Subtract airport elevation, and then round up to the nearest hundred.
* RNAV RWY 18 at Mobile Downtown (BFM): DA is 351 + 50 = 401 - 26 = 375, round up to 400 for new DA.

IERW TH-67 instruments (4 decks)

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