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T-6 UPT Instrument Prep > Instruments > Flashcards

Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

When to file IFR?

A
  • Weather requires IFR (VFR cannot be maintained)
  • Airspace rules require an IFR flight plan
  • Night ops
  • Airspeed (KTAS) will exceed 180 within federal airways
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2
Q

When do you need to file an alternate?

A

WWW.RRUM
• Wx: <2000ft and 3 mi vis (even if a VFR descent from a MIA can be accomplished), can be 1500 and 3 if 2 independent precision approaches are available and operable
• Winds out of limits
• no Weather reporting capability
• Radar required for approaches
• RVSM: if you need to be in RVSM airspace to get to the destination
• Unmonitored NAVAIDs
• Minimums for the lowest approach > 1500 and 3

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3
Q

What disqualifies an alternate?

A
  • Wx: >= 500 above lowest compatible app, and 2mi or lowest vis min whichever is greater
  • Winds out of limits
  • no Weather reporting capability (A NA)
  • RVSM required to reach alternate
  • Radar required
  • A - Trouble A with an applicable note
  • G - GPS only available NAVAID
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4
Q

What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for the different types of airspace?

A

Airspace Visibility Requirement Cloud Clearance Requirement
Class A None None
Class B 3 SM Clear of clouds
Class C 3 SM 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ laterally
Class D 3 SM 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ laterally
Class E (Below 10,000’ MSL) 3 SM 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ laterally
Class E (At or above 10,000’ MSL) 5 SM 1000’ below, 1000’ above, 1 SM laterally
Class G (Below 10,000’ MSL) 3 SM 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ laterally
Class G (At or above 10,000’ MSL) 5 SM 1000’ below, 1000’ above, 1 SM laterally

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5
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient required when departing an airfield under IFR?

A

• 200 ft./NM

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6
Q

What minimums are needed for circling/straight-in approaches?

A

• Weather must be at or above both ceiling AND visibility requirements

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7
Q

Can you begin your enroute descent or instrument approach if the weather at your destination is below mins?

A

• No

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8
Q

What do you do if the weather goes below mins after you’ve already begun the approach? AFI 11-202V3, 8.17.1.1

A

• Continue to the MAP and execute the missed approach or climbout procedure

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9
Q

If a TEMPO condition at your alternate (+1 hour of your ETA) shows weather below mins due to thunderstorms, snow showers, or rain showers, can you still use that airfield as an alternate? AFI 11-202V3, 8.8

A

• Yes. However, if the TEMPO exists because of any other condition that pushes the weather below approach minimums (fog, haze, winds, etc.), you cannot use that airfield as an alternate.

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10
Q

If the forecast for your destination shows weather in limits, but includes a TEMPO line that is not, can you still file to that airfield? AFI 11-202V3, 8.6.1

A

• Yes, but you need to file an alternate

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11
Q

VFR ceiling and visibility? AFI 11-202V3, 7.2.2

A

• 1500’ and 3 SM

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12
Q

How does fuel planning change if you are filing with visibility only versus ceiling/visibility? AFI 11-202V3, 2.4.3.1

A
  • Filing with visibility only: Your plan must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at your destination
  • Filing with visibility and ceiling: Your plan only needs to include fuel up to your IAF
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13
Q

What are the weather minimums for takeoff in IMC? AFI 11-202V3, 8.11

A
  • Pilots will not takeoff if the weather is below the approach minimums for their aircraft, unless authorized by their MAJCOM, but in no case less than 600 RVR. Alternate minima and recovery procedures must be published.
  • [AETC] AFI 11-2 MDS must provide specific guidance on the alternate takeoff minimums and substitute recovery procedures. Minima below 1600 RVR are not authorized unless runways are equipped with centerline lights and visible markings, and to operative transmissometers.
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14
Q

When must you report “gear down” on an approach? AFI 11-202V3, 5.13

A

• Before crossing the runway threshold

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15
Q

What are the different types of IFR departures? AFI 11-202V3, 8.12.3

A
  • Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
  • Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) – Textual/Graphic (includes Reduced Takeoff Runway Length and Visual Climb over the Airport
  • Diverse Departure (proceed on course)
  • MAJCOM Departure
  • ATC Instructions
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16
Q

What if your destination doesn’t have published instrument approaches? AFI 11-202V3, 8.5

A
  • File to a point in space

* File to a nearby airfield with approaches, get below IMC, and proceed VFR to your destination

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17
Q

Can you use an airfield without any published or compatible approaches as an alternate? AFI 11-202V3, 8.8.2

A

• Yes, but forecast weather at that airfield, ±1 hour of your ETA, must permit a VFR descent from the Minimum IFR Altitude to a VFR approach and landing

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18
Q

An approach can bring you to the runway as much as _____ degrees off centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach. AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.4.7

A

• 30 degrees

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19
Q

What is the standard direction for holding? AFMAN 11-217V1, 8.1.1

A

• Right-hand turns

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20
Q

What must you do if you go one dot below or two dots above glideslope during an ILS? AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.2.1.3.1

A

• You must adhere to the Localizer minimums, but if you can recapture the glideslope within the Localizer minimums, you may resume the ILS

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21
Q

What are the different types of ODPs? AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.1

A
  • Non-standard weather minimums
  • Minimum climb gradient in lieu of non-standard weather minimums
  • Non-standard takeoff minima and a minimum climb gradient
  • ODP with specific routing
  • Combination of methods
  • Visual Climbout Over Airfield
  • Reduced Takeoff Runway Length Procedure
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22
Q

When can you legally descend below the MDA? AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.2.2.9.2

A

• Sufficient visual references within the runway environment must be established and the aircraft is in a position to land safely

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23
Q

What must you do if you lose sight of the runway during a circling approach? AFMAN 11-217V1, 14.4.2.4

A
  • Execute a climbing turn in the last known direction of the LANDING runway
  • Intercept and fly the missed approach procedure for the APPRAOCH runway
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24
Q

What is a VDP, and how do you calculate one if it isn’t published? AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.1.1.3/12.1.1.3.2

A

• Visual Descent Point, it is the point during a non-precision approach when you can descend out of the MDA if the runway is in sight. The VDP normally allows for a 3 degree glideslope.
• Divide the Height Above Touchdown (HAT by the glideslope x100
• Ex. HAT = 368 feet, Glideslope = 3 degrees
o 368 ft’ / 300 = 1.2 NM

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25
Q

What are the considerations for using a VOR for doing a groundspeed check? AFMAN 11-217V1, 5.6.1

A
  • You must be proceeding directly to or directly from the station
  • Your DME from the station must be greater than your altitude divided by 1,000 (ex. if you are at FL200, you must be more than 20 NM away)
  • Groundspeed checks made below 5,000 AGL are always accurate
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26
Q

What three pieces of info does a controller need to issue you in order to accomplish a circling approach? AFMAN 11-217V1, 13.6.2

A
  • Direction from the airport (N, S, E, W, NE, NW, SE, SW)
  • Left/Right base
  • Runway #
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27
Q

What do the letters X, Y, Z, following an approach title, mean on an approach plate? AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.1.3.2.1

A

• More than one approach exists for the same runway using the same guidance equipment (ex. ILS Z RWY 28L)

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28
Q

What do the letters A, B, C, following an approach title, mean on an approach plate? AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.1.3.4

A

• The approach is designed for circling minimums only, i.e. the approach will not bring you into the airfield in line with a runway (ex. TACAN-B)

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29
Q

Describe what constitutes the “runway environment.” AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.1.2.2

A
  • One or more of the following: runway, runway markings, runway lighting, VASI/PAPI, and approach lighting
  • NOTE: If using approach lighting to identify the landing environment, do not descend below TDZE+100 feet without seeing the red termination bars
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30
Q

Definition of Field Elevation? AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.4.1

A

• The highest point on any usable landing surface

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31
Q

What is TDZE? AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.4.2

A

• Touchdown Zone Elevation, the highest elevation in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface

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32
Q

What does VOR stand for? AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.3.5.1

A

• Very High Frequency Omni-directional Range

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33
Q

What are the three modes on the GPS and what are their sensitivities? AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.2.3.1.3, 12.2.3.1.4

A
  • Enroute (30+ NM from the airfield): +5 miles
  • Approach Arm (within 30 NM of the airfield): +1 mile
  • Approach Active (within 2 NM of the FAF): +0.3 miles
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34
Q

What are MSA and ESA? AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.4.1.7

A

• MSA: Minimum Safe Altitude – Provides 1,000’ of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the facility
o If more than one Minimum Safe Altitude is required, it becomes a Minimum Sector Altitude. These MSAs will be depicted on each approach plate and provide 1000’ of obstacle clearance within 25 NM of the facility.
• ESA: Emergency Safe Altitude – Normally exists at military facilities only, provides 1,000’ of obstacle clearance (2,000’ in mountainous terrain) within 100 NM of the facility

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35
Q

What is the range of the ILS glideslope signal? AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.2.1.2.3

A

• 10 NM

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36
Q

What is the range of a Localizer signal? AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.2.1.3

A

• 18 NM, 10 degrees

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37
Q

What is a Trouble T? Does a Trouble T automatically mean there is an ODP for that airfield? AFMAN 11-217V1, 7.4.1.1

A

• It is a warning that obstacles around the airfield may require non-standard departure minimums, but it does not necessarily mean there is an ODP for the airfield

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38
Q

When is a Procedure Turn not executed? (SNERT) AFMAN 11-217V1, 11.3.1

A
  • Cleared a Straight-In
  • Flying approach via No Procedure Turn (NoPT) routing
  • Established in holding, subsequently cleared the approach, and holding & procedure turn course are the same
  • Radar vectors to final
  • Timing approach (from holding)
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39
Q

What is the length of holding at or below 14,000’? Above 14,000’? AFMAN 11-217V1, 8.3.5

A

• One minute at or below 14,000’, One minute and 30 seconds above 14,000’

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40
Q

What is an LDA? AFMAN 11-217V1, 4.9

A

• Localizer-type Directional Aid, similar to a localizer but not part of a complete ILS system, doesn’t necessarily bring you in on centerline (up to 30 degrees off)

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41
Q

What do you do if you get a RAIM failure on a GPS approach and you are inside the FAF? AFMAN 11-217V1, 12.2.3

A

• Discontinue the approach (do not descend further, climb Missed Approach altitude, proceed to the MAP and execute climbout)

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42
Q

Define ‘Mountainous Terrain.’ AFMAN 11-217V3, Pg. 203

A

• An area where the surface elevation changes more than 300’ within 1 NM or 3,000’ within 10 NM

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43
Q

What are the Category B circling parameters? AFMAN 11-217V3, 10.8.5 / AFMAN 11-217V1, 6.5.1

A

• 91-120 KIAS / 1.5 NM radius

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44
Q

What does an underlined NAVAID frequency on an approach plate mean? Any IAP, Pg. XIX

A

• That NAVAID does not have voice transmission capability on that frequency

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45
Q

What does a white “C” on a black square mean on the circling approach minimums line? Any IAP, Pg. XV

A

• A modification to your circling approach exists to address an increase in True Airspeed due to an increase in altitude

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46
Q

Identify the control tower on an airfield sketch. Any IAP, Pg. XVIII

A
  • Black square with TWR written above it

* If the tower and airport beacon are collocated, only the beacon star symbol will be displayed

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47
Q

A black star with a white circle on an airfield sketch denotes what? Any IAP, Pg. XVIII

A

• Airport beacon location

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48
Q

At the top of an airfield sketch in an approach plate, what does a white “D” on a black square mean? Any IAP, Pg. XVIII

A

• The runway has a declared distance which may be different than the length listed next to the runway in the sketch (may be due to an obstacle, a displaced threshold, etc.)

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49
Q

On an approach plate, what does a white “L” on a black circle next to a CTAF mean? Any IAP, Pg. I

A

• A pilot can activate airport lighting on that frequency

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50
Q

What does a dot on the top of a lighting symbol mean? What if the lighting symbol is black? FIH, B-30

A

• A dot means sequenced flashing lights. A black lighting symbol means pilot-controlled lighting

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51
Q

In a NORDO situation, what altitude do you fly? What route do you fly? FIH, A-6

A

• Fly the highest of your Assigned, Minimum IFR, or Expected altitudes (in that order of preference). Fly the Assigned, Vectored, Expected, or Filed route (in that order of preference)

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52
Q

What variation in altitude is allowed when flying at MDA? T-6 Syllabus Course Training Standards, Item #27e

A

• +100 feet, -0 feet

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53
Q

According to the DASH-1, when does the gear need to be down during an instrument approach? 1T-6A-1, 2-23

A

• Prior to the FAF

54
Q

What is the equivalent of a FAF on an ILS approach?

A

• Glideslope Intercept

55
Q

What do the different airport colors on an IFR Enroute Low Altitude chart mean? IFR Enroute Low Altitude chart, Airports Legend

A
  • Blue: Airport has published instrument approaches, and/or radar minima published in High Altitude DoD FLIPs
  • Green: Airport has published instrument approaches, and/or radar minima published in FAA publications
  • Brown: Airport have no published instrument approaches or radar minima
56
Q

Maximum Holding Airspeeds

A
  • <= 6000’ - 200 KIAS
  • 6000-14000 - 230 KIAS
  • +14000 - 265 KIAS
  • USAF bases - 310 KIAS
  • USN bases - 230 KIAS
57
Q

Comm Requirements for Radar Approaches

A
  • 1 minute prior to final
  • 15 sec for ASR, 5 sec for PAR on final
  • ASR – Airport/Air Route Surveillance Radar
  • PAR – Precision Approach Radar
58
Q

RAIM (Receiver Autonomus Integrity Monitoring)

A
  • Verifies integrity of signal of the constellation to check for faults
  • Requires minimum of 5 satellites, 4 with Baro-aiding
59
Q

FDE (Fault Detection Equipment)

A
  • Identifies which satellite is at fault

* Requires 1 additional satellite (6 total, 5 with baro-aiding)

60
Q

Minimum VFR point-to-point altitude

A

• 3,000’ AGL

61
Q

When must an approach be designated circling?

A
  • Approach is >30 degrees off runway heading
  • Approach does not intersect extended centerline by approach end of runway
  • Greater than 4 degree glideslope
62
Q

RVSM (Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums)

A
  • FL290-FL410
  • With proper RVSM equipment, can keep 1000’ separation
  • Without RVSM equipment, must report to ATC and will be kept at 2000’ separation
63
Q

Fuel Filing with alternates 11-202 V3 4.18.2

A
  • Ensure enough fuel to increase flight time by 10% or 20 minutes, whichever is greater, up to 45 minutes
  • Calculated with max fuel endurance @ 10,000 ft (321 PPH in T-6, generally rounded to 300 PPH)
64
Q

Minimum Altitudes

A
  • Non-congested Areas: 500’ AGL
  • Congested Areas: 1000’ AGL
  • Wildlife Preserves/National Parks: 2000’ AGL
65
Q

LAHSO (Land and Hold Short Operations)

A
  • Air Force members cannot participate in actively (Don’t want to restrict RWY available)
  • Can participate passively (takeoff/land on full RWY when someone else is LAHSOing on intersecting RWY)
66
Q

Runway End Crossing Height

A
  • USAF/USN Non-joint Bases: 0’ AGL

* Other: 35’ AGL

67
Q

Turn Rate in Holding

A

• 3 deg/s, 30 deg bank, bank angle required by flight director (Auto-pilot), whichever is LEAST

68
Q

Can you deviate from the 11-217?

A

• Yes, in an emergency, to protect lives, for safety of flight (EPS); must write it up post-flight

69
Q

Airspeed restrictions flying through Class C & D airspace?

A

• 200 KIAS when less than 2500’ AGL within 4 miles of an airport

70
Q

What is the OCS?

A

Obstacle Clearance Surface: a 40:1 slope from the departure end of the runway up to 25NM (non-mountainous terrain) or 46NM (mountainous) that if an obstacle penetrates it, it is considered a low, close-in obstacle.

71
Q

How can you tell if a runway has an ODP?

A

It will be denoted by the “trouble T” on the approach plate.

72
Q

What should a clearance requiring holding include?

A

What should a clearance requiring holding include?

  • Direction of holding
  • The holding fix
  • Expect further clearance
  • Holding course
  • Leg length (standard if nothing said)
  • Turn direction if left is desired
73
Q

When should ATC issue holding instructions, and when should the aircraft reduce speed?

A

ATC should issue holding instructions at least 5 mins before reaching a clearance limit fix, if no clearance beyond the fix has been received, the aircraft should start reducing speed 3 minutes before the fix so that the aircraft will cross it at or below maximum holding airspeed.

74
Q

What are the two techniques for entering holding?

A

The 70 degree and AIM methods.

75
Q

When established in a holding pattern above the minimum published holding altitude, when may the pilot descend?

A

When cleared for the approach.

76
Q

When should the pilot slow to maneuvering speed when trying to do an approach?

A

Prior to reaching the IAF.

77
Q

How is a procedure turn depicted?

A

A barb on the maneuvering side.

78
Q

What are the three common methods for flying a procedure turn approach?

A
  • holding technique
  • 45/180 method
  • 80 260 method
79
Q

When doing the holding method for a procedure turn, use normal holding procedures except for what exceptions?

A
  • May lead the turn for outbound if heading within 90 degrees
  • Teardrop course must be within 30 degrees of the procedure turn course (use course guidance)
  • If the procedure course is intercepted outbound, maintain the course for the remainder of the outbound leg and turn towards the maneuvering side to reverse course
  • Begin timing once outbound abeam of the procedure turn fix (or after completion of the outbound turn if abeam cannot be determined)
  • Do not descend from the procedure turn fix altitude until outbound abeam of the fix (or completion of the outbound turn if abeam cannot be determined)
80
Q

When none is depicted, what is considered the FAF for a procedure turn?

A

The FAF is considered the point at which you begin your descent from the procedure turn completion altitude.

81
Q

When may you descend from the procedure turn fix altitude when using the 45/180 or 80/260 methods?

A

Once abeam the procedure turn fix and on a parallel or intercept heading to the outbound track.

82
Q

When may you descend from the procedure turn completion altitude using the 45/180 or 80/260 methods?

A

Once established inbound.

83
Q

How does one conduct the 45/180 procedure turn?

A

Turn 45 degrees away from the outbound track toward the maneuvering side, and start timing once initiating the turn (1 min for cat A and B, 1 min 15s for C and D). Turn 180 degrees in the opposite direction to intercept the course inbound.

84
Q

How is a HILO PT depicted on an approach plate?

A

It is depicted like any other holding pattern, but with a heavy black line.

85
Q

When a specific ground track is required for a procedural track, how is it depicted on the approach plate?

A

By a heavy black line.

86
Q

When may you lead the turn to intercept the procedure track?

A

When your heading is within 90 degrees of the procedure track course. Otherwise you must overfly the fix and turn in the shorter direction to intercept the course.

87
Q

How do you descend during a procedure track?

A

If a descent is depicted at the IAF, start descent when abeam or past the IAF and on a parallel or intercept heading to the procedural track course. For all other altitude restrictions, only comply with that altitude when established on that segment of the approach. You may consider yourself on the next segment of the approach once a lead point is reached and a turn has begun.

88
Q

When entering a GPS approach via NoPT routing and a holding pattern is depicted at an IF, may the pilot do the holding pattern?

A

They may, but they must inform ATC and receive clearance to do so.

89
Q

What is required of the pilot’s nav instruments when inside the FAF?

A

Once inside the final approach fix, one navigation receiver available to the pilot flying must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides the final approach course guidance.

90
Q

How is the final approach fix depicted on an approach plate?

A

By a Maltese cross.

91
Q

On multi-facility approaches with different MDAs and a depicted VDP, which MDA is the VDP computed for?

A

The lowest MDA published.

92
Q

How does one calculate the required VVI indication for a 3 and 2.5 degree glideslope?

A

3 deg VVI = (Groundspeed * 10)/2

2.5 deg VVI = (Groundspeed * 10 - 200)/2

93
Q

When can the pilot descend below the MDA/DA/DH?

A

When sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing.

94
Q

When must you discontinue the localizer approach?

A

When the localizer course becomes unreliable, or anytime full-scale deflection of the CDI occurs on final approach.

95
Q

When can you not descend below localizer minimums when flying an ILS?

A

When the aircraft is more than one dot below or two dots above the glide slope.

96
Q

May the middle marker be used to identify the MAP?

A

The middle marker may never be the sole means of identifying the MAP.

97
Q

What do you set in the course window when flying a back course approach?

A

The inbound course for the opposite runway.

98
Q

What must you do if you lose RAIM inside the FAF on a GPS approach?

A

Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the missed approach waypoint and execute a missed approach.

99
Q

What are the types of radar approaches and which one is the precision approach?

A

They are ASR and PAR. PAR provides glideslope and is precision.

100
Q

When should you try to contact the controlling agency on a radar (ASR or PAR) if no communications have been received?

A

One minute while being vectored to final, 15 seconds while on final for ASR, and 5 seconds on final with a PAR.

101
Q

Can you begin your enroute descent or instrument approach if the weather at your destination is below mins? AFI 11-202V3, 8.17.1

A

• No

102
Q

What do you do if the weather goes below mins after you’ve already begun the approach? AFI 11-202V3, 8.17.1.1

A

• Continue to the MAP and execute the missed approach or climbout procedure

103
Q

What are the weather minimums for takeoff in IMC? AFI 11-202V3, 8.11

A

• Pilots will not takeoff if the weather is below the approach minimums for their aircraft, unless authorized by their MAJCOM

104
Q

When must you report “gear down” on an approach? AFI 11-202V3, 5.13

A

• Before crossing the runway threshold

105
Q

• What are authorized weather sources in priority order?

A

o Local wx unit
o Servicing AF operational weather squadron (OWS)
o Another military wx unit
o FAA wx forecast or flight weather briefing agency
o Flight Service Station (FSS 1-800-WXBRIEF)

106
Q

• VFR cloud clearances?

A

o Class B: 3 SM, clear of clouds
o Class C & D: 3 SM, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal (3-152)
o Class E & G (above 10,000’): 5 SM, 1000’ above, 1000’ below, 2000’ horizontal (F-111)
o Class E & G (below 10,000’): 3 SM, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal (3-152)

107
Q

• What is required for flight into Class B airspace?

A

o Clearance from the controlling authority (2-way radio)
o Mode C transponder (within 30 NM)
o 3SM visibility and clear of clouds
o Not exceed 200 KIAS in the airspace underlying Class B or in a VFR corridor through Class B or necessary for safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.

108
Q

• What airspeed limitations exist in class C and D airspace?

A

o 200 KIAS at or below 2500’ AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport, unless authorized by ATC or necessary for safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.

109
Q

• Can you practice IFR approaches under VFR?

A

o Yes, with OG/CC approval

110
Q

• How do you calculate reserve fuel?

A

o Consumption rate is calculated at max endurance at 10,000’

111
Q

• What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight planning?

A

o To a final landing, either at the destination airport or alternate airport (if one is required), plus the fuel reserve.
o Fuel required for an approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel if a visibility only weather criterion is used to determine the suitability of the original destination.
o Fuel required for an approach and missed approach is not required if the ceiling and visibility criteria is used to determine the suitability of the original destination.

112
Q

• What are the reserve fuel requirements?

A

o Visibility AND Ceiling: Fuel to arrive at IAF and then fly to alternate, if required, plus 10% (of flight time up to 45 minutes) or 20 minutes whichever is greater
o Visibility ONLY (non-AETC): Fuel to arrive at IAF, fly the approach…execute missed approach…and then fly to alternate, if required, plus 10% (up to 45 minutes) or 20 minutes whichever is greater.

113
Q

• What is the “Control and Performance” concept?

A

o Establish known pitch and power, Trim, Cross check performance instruments, Adjust

114
Q

• What is TAS given indicated airspeed and altitude? (rough WAG technique)

A

o KIAS + (half of altitude) – i.e. 200 KIAS at 10,000’ = 200+50 = 250 KTAS

115
Q

• Turn Radius (60 to 1)/Lead Points?

A

o NM per minute minus 2 – i.e. 300 knots GS = 5 NM/min…turn radius = 3 NM

116
Q

• Radials per nautical mile (60 to 1)?

A

o 60 divided by distance from NAVAID = radials per NM – i.e. 12 DME arc = 5 radials/NM

117
Q

• Course Intercepts?

A

o Outbound: TIM, Twist in radial, TC+45 degrees

o Inbound: TIM, Twist in INBOUND course, CB+30 degrees

118
Q

• Fix-to-fix?

A

o TIM
o Twist in radial
o Turn (shortest direction) between course head and bearing pointer
o GPS – Direct, Enter, NAV, NAV, track GPS course

119
Q

• En-route Descents?

A

o Altitude to lose / NM to go…i.e. 10,000’ to lose / 20 NM = 5 degrees NL

120
Q

• Can I file to a destination?

A

o R – Runway length/width
o A – Approach compatible?
o T – Towered?
o Civilian Fields:
 J – Joint use
 A – Alternate required by no suitable exists
 I – Interceptor Aircraft
 M – Manager of Airfield grants approval
 E – Emergency Aircraft
 C – Designated Aircraft (coordinated)
 W – Wing/CC approval / LOA letter of Agreement
 P – Airport is a Civil “P” field
o A – Alternate required?
o W – Weather?
o T – Told, Trouble T (compatible with ODP/SID)?

121
Q

• What kind of Departures can we fly?

A

o D – Diverse Departures (S – Sector Departures)
o O – Obstacle Departure Procedures (V – Visual Climb Over the Airport – VOCA)
o R – Radar Vectors/ ATC instructions
o M – MAJCOM Certified
o S – SID – standard instrument departures
o N – Non-standard weather minimum climb/procedures

122
Q

• MEA – Minimum En-route Altitude?

A

o Lowest published alt. between nav fixes that provides at least 1000’ obstacle clearance (2000’ in mountainous areas) and guarantees NAVAID reception

123
Q

• MOCA – Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude?

A

o Lowest published alt. between nav fixes that provides at least 1000’ obstacle clearance (2000’ in mountainous areas) and guarantees NAVAID reception within 22 NM of the facility

124
Q

• MCA – Minimum Crossing Altitude?

A

o Lowest altitude at which a nav fix can be crossed when entering or continuing along an airway that will allow an aircraft to clear all obstacles while carrying out a normal climb to the required MEA altitude of the airway in question beyond the fix.

125
Q

• OROCA – Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude?

A

o Provides at least 1000’ obstacle clearance (2000’ in mountainous areas). Does not guarantee NAVAID reception.

126
Q

• ORTA – Off Route Terrain Clearance Altitude?

A

o Provides at least 3000’ terrain clearance. Used outside USA. Does not guarantee NAVAID reception.

127
Q

• MIA – Minimum IFR Altitude?

A

o The lowest safe altitude permitted to be flown under IFR. Normally, this is the lowest published IFR altitude (i.e. MEA, MOCA, OROCA, or ORTCA) for a given area

128
Q

• RVSM – Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums?

A

o FL 290-FL 410 (inclusive)
o Requires special aircraft certification or specific ATC approval for non-certified aircraft. Climbs/descents – VSI should be 1000 fpm, but no less than 500 fpm/no more than 1500

129
Q

• When can we descend on approaches?

A

o Non-DME Teardrop: Outbound/Abeam, Parallel/Intercept heading, fly offs met
o Procedure Track: Outbound/Abeam, Parallel/Intercept heading
o Procedure Turn: Outbound/Abeam
o HILO: Outbound

130
Q

• How do you correct back to an arc?

A

o 5 degrees for every half mile inside, 10 degrees for every half mile outside

T-6 UPT Instrument Prep (1 decks)

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