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Aviation > Instruments > Flashcards

Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What is an Aircraft Approach Category

A

A grouping of aircraft based on a reference landing speed which typically determines the minimums

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1
Q

If Vref (reference landing speed) is not specified , what value is used to determine Aircraft Approach Category?

A

1.3 Vso at the max certified landing weight

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2
Q

Category A speed

A

< 91 KIAS

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3
Q

Category B speed

A

91-121 KIAS

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4
Q

Category C speed

A

121-141 KIAS

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5
Q

Category D speed

A

141-166 KIAS

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6
Q

Category E speed

A

> 166 KIAS

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7
Q

HAA

A

Height Above Airport

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8
Q

CAR

A

Circling Approach Area

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9
Q

What are two reasons why circling-only approaches are designated?

A
  1. The final approach course alignment with the runway exceeds 30 degrees 2. The descent gradient from the FAF is greater than 400ft/NM
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10
Q

How do you know which equipment is required to fly an IAP?

A
  1. It’s in the title 2. Notes on the chart
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11
Q

How are circling-only approaches identified?

A

By providing final approach guidance and a letter (starting with A) (VOR A)

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12
Q

What does a title with more than one nav system indicate? (VOR/DME RWY 13)

A

That both nav systems are required to fly the procedure

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13
Q

What does an “or” indicate in the title of a procedure? (VOR or GPS RWY 15)

A

That either nav system may be flown

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14
Q

MAWP

A

Missed Approach Waypoint

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15
Q

MAHWP

A

Missed Approach Holding Waypoint

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16
Q

The MSA on an approach chart gives at least how much vertical separation from hazards?

A

1000 ft

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17
Q

MDA

A

Minimum Descent Altitude; the lowest altitude to which a descent is authorized on final or during circling where no electronic glideslope is provided (not a missed approach, just a level off)

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18
Q

What do you need to descend below the MDA?

A

Runway in sight, position to land, and required visibility

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19
Q

DA

A

Decision Altitude; the specified altitude on a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established.

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20
Q

DH

A

Decision Height; same as DA, except with reference to height above terrain, with either a radar altimeter or Baro

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21
Q

TDZE

A

Touch Down Zone Elevation

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22
Q

HAT

A

Height above touchdown

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23
Q

LPV

A

Localizer performance with vertical guidance. A WAAS-enabled vertically guided approach that provides ILS-like approach mins to airports without ILS

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24
Q

Which procedures can WAAS users fly?

A

RNAV and basic RNP as well as LPV

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25
Q

Who can fly to LNAV/VNAV minimums?

A

Those with an FMS that incorporates Baro-VNAV into the solution

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26
Q

Who can fly to LPV minimums

A

Those with WAAS-LPV avionics and when WAAS is functioning

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27
Q

Who can fly to LNAV minimums?

A

Those without WAAS or Baro, or when WAAS is unavailable

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28
Q

GBAS

A

Ground based augmentation system; focuses its service are to within 30 miles of the airfield and broadcasts a correction signal that enables very high precision approaches

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29
Q

Precision Approach (PA)

A

An instrument approach that provides course and glide path deviation information meeting ICAO standards (PAR, ILS, GLS)

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30
Q

Approach with vertical guidance (APV)

A

An instrument approach that provides course and glide path information but that doesn’t meet ICAO standards (LPV, LNAV/VNAV, etc)

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31
Q

Non-precision approach (NPA)

A

An instrument approach that provides course deviation information but no glide path. (VOR, LNAV, LOC, etc)

32
Q

MAP

A

Missed approach point. Variable depending on the equipment used–DA, DH, another fix, or a specified time

33
Q

What is the standard direction for holding patterns?

A

Right

34
Q

How long is the initial outbound leg of a holding pattern (minutes)?

A

1 minute below 14000ft, 1.5 min above

35
Q

What must be accomplished in the last 6 months for a pilot to act as PIC in IFR conditions?

A

6 approaches, Holding, Intercepting and Tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic Systems

36
Q

If not IFR current in the last six months (and less than a year), you can regain currency by:

A

Performing the 6 HITS with a safety pilot

37
Q

IMSAFE preflight assessment:

A

Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion

38
Q

PAVE Risk Management & Personal Minimums:

A

Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressure

39
Q

DECIDE Decision making:

A

Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate

40
Q

Personal documents required for flight:

A

Pilot Cert, Medical, Photo ID, Radio Operator Permit (if international)

41
Q

ARROW Aircraft documents required for flight:

A

Airworthiness cert
Registration
Radio Station license (international)
Operating limitations (AFM)
Weight & Balance

42
Q

AVIATES Maintenance inspections required for IFR

A

Airworthiness directives
VOR (30 days)
Inspections (annual, 100 hour)
Altimeter + Static (24 months)
Transponder (24 months)
ELT (12 months
Supplemental Type Certificate req. inspections

43
Q

SAFETY Passenger Briefing

A

Safety (belts, seat)
Air (vents and environmental controls)
Fire extinguisher
Exit (doors, emergency, survival kit)
Traffic / Talking
Your questions

44
Q

Preflight info required for IFR flight (NW KRAFT)

A

NOTAMs
Weather
Known delays
Runway lengths
Alternates available
Fuel requirements
TOLD

45
Q

How long before departure should you file a flight plan? AIM 5-1-6

A

30 minutes, or 4 hours prior to above FL230

46
Q

Minimum IFR fuel required. 91.167

A

Fuel to go to destination, to the more distant alternate, then 45 minutes at normal cruise

47
Q

An alternate is always required unless: (91.169)

A

An instrument approach is available, and: for at least hour before and after ETA, the ceiling is greater than 2000 and visibility at least 3 SM

48
Q

What weather conditions must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate?

A

Precision: 600ft + 2 SM
Non-precision: 800ft + 2 SM
No approach available: weather better than the MEA

49
Q

What are the GPS considerations when filing an alternate?

A

Non-WAAS GPS equipped: can’t plan an RNAV to BOTH
WAAS no Baro-VNAV equipped: LNAV circling mins at alternate
WAAS + Baro equipped: LNAV/VNAV or RNP .3 minimums allowed

50
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes below FL290? 91.179

A

0-179: ODD thousands
180-359: EVEN thousands

51
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290 in non-RVSM?

A

0-179: flight levels at 4,000 ft increments starting at FL290
180-359: flight levels at 4,000ft increments starting at FL310

52
Q

What are the IFR cruising altitudes FL290-FL410 (in RVSM)?

A

0-179: Odd flight levels starting at FL290
180-359: Even flight levels

53
Q

What are the IFR takeoff minimums for part 135?

A
  1. prescribed TO mins for the runway, or if none:
    1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility, or more than 2 engines: 1/2 SM visibility
54
Q

Departure procedures (DP) ensure obstacle clearance, provided:

A
  1. The airplane croses the departure end at 35ft
  2. Reaches 400ft before turning
  3. climbs at least 200 ft/NM, or as published
55
Q

How do you convert feet per nautical mile (FPNM) to feet per minute?

A

FPM = FPNM x GS / 60

56
Q

What are the two types of Departure Procedures (DP)?

A

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) - providing only obstacle clearance, and Standard Instrument Departures (SID)

57
Q

At what altitude are turns allowed on a departure procedure?

A

400ftAGL

58
Q

What is a Visual Climb Over the Airport (VOCA)?

A

A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC - climbing turns over the airport in lieu of complying with climb gradients greater than 200ft/NM

59
Q

What are the elements of an IFR departure clearance?

A

Clearance Limit
Route
Altitude
Frequency (departure)
Transponder code

60
Q

What is an EDCT?

A

Expect Departure Clearance Time - at busy airports, aircraft are expected to depart within 5 minutes

61
Q

What’s a STAR?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival–a transition from the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to land can be made

62
Q

MAA

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude - “MAA-17000”

63
Q

MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude - the lowest altitude you can cross a fix en route to a segment with a higher MEA

64
Q

MEA

A

Minumum Enroute Altitude - assures radio coverage and obstacle clearance

65
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - provides obstacle clearance, but radio signal only out 22NM

66
Q

MORA (Jeppesen)

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude - provides obstacle clearance. Grid MORA provides the same in a grid

67
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude

68
Q

MTA

A

Minimum Turning Altitude. Annotated with a MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction

69
Q

MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude - the lowest altitude that IFR aircraft will be vectored by a controller

70
Q

OROCA

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude

71
Q

What is Indicated Airspeed (IAS)?

A

The altitude indicated on the altimeter

72
Q

What is Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?

A

IAS corrected for instrument and calibration errors

73
Q

What is Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)?

A

CAS corrected for compressibility error

74
Q

What is True Airspeed (TAS)?

A

Actual speed through the air

75
Q

What is Mach number?

A

The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound

76
Q
A
77
Q

Max speed in a procedure turn

A

200 KIAS

Aviation (9 decks)

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