Instrument Rating Flashcards

Question

When can you descend below lower safe (LSALT) during an IFR approach?

Answer 1

An aircraft must not be flown under the IFR, lower than the published lowest safe altitude except when: a. Being assigned levels in accordance with ATS surveillance service terrain clearance procedures. b. When being flown in accordance with a published DME arrival. c. In accordance with an Instrument approach or holding procedure. d. When necessary during climb after departure from an aerodrome. e. When conducting a visual approach and all the criteria for a visual approach are met AIP GEN 3.3 (4.6) ENR 1.5 (1.14)

Answer 2

Subject to the requirements the pilot need not commence or may discontinue the approved instrument approach procedure to that aerodrome when: By Day. Within 30NM of that aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GPS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established; a. Clear of cloud; b. In sight of ground or water; c. With a flight visibility not less than 5,000M or, in the case  of a helicopter, is able to proceed under helicopter VMC,  or the aerodrome is in sight; and d. Subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude  not less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight (CAR 157), to within the circling area or, in the case of a helicopter, can subsequently maintain helicopter VMC to the HLS. By Night. At an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GPS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established: a. Clear of cloud; b. In sight of ground or water; c. With a flight visibility not less than 5,000M; and d. Within the circling area or VAA - H, as applicable; or e. Within 5NM (7NM for a runway equipped with an ILS) of  that aerodrome aligned with the runway centerline and established not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS or PAPI; or f. Within 10NM (14NM for Runways 16L and 34L at Sydney) of that aerodrome, established not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.14)

Answer 3

During visual circling, descent below the circling MDA may only occur when the pilot: a. Maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and b. Maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and c. Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (ie, the runway threshold or approach lighting or other  markings identifiable with the runway); d. And either by night or day, while complying with a, b & c, and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight maneuvers which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or e. In daylight only, while complying with a, b & c, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.3)

Answer 4

An instrument rating remains in force for the period of 1 year from the last day of the month in which the rating was issued or renewed. CAO 40.2.1 (5.1)

Answer 5

If the renewal is completed within 90 days of the original due date, it will still be valid up to 12 months from the original expiry date. CAO 40.2.1 (12.1a)

Answer 6

Except for a DME arrival procedure, the holder of an instrument rating may use a DME for: a. Determining position; or b. In conjunction with other types of navigational aids to conduct an instrument approach. CAO 40.2.1 (13.3.4, 13.4)

Answer 7

a. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown a DME arrival procedures, than that will cover the holder in relation to the GPS arrival procedures; and b. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown a GPS arrival procedures, than that will cover the holder in relation to the DME arrival procedures; and c. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown an ILS approach or a LLZ approach, than that will cover the holder in relation to a VOR approach. CAO 40.2.1 (11.3a)

Answer 8

The landing minima’s are: a. IFR Day – Visual approach requirements b. IFR Night – VMC from LSALT within 3NM. (This can only be carried out by aircraft less than 5700KG). AIP ENR 1.5 (4.6.2)

Answer 9

Where a prominent obstacle or obstacles within the circling  area prevent visual circling the sector in which the obstacles are located may be eliminated from the visual circling area. Sectors which have been eliminated from the visual circling area are annotated ‘No Circling’. Visual circling is prohibited in ‘no circling’ sectors by day in less than VMC and at night. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.2)

Answer 10

Lowest safe altitudes for IFR flights are published in MAP, NOTAM or AIP Supplement. The LSALT must be calculated using the following method: a. Where the highest obstacle is more than 360FT above the height determined for terrain, the LSALT must be 1,000FT  above the highest obstacle; or b. Where the highest obstacle is less than 360FT above the  terrain, or there is no charted obstacle, the LSALT must be 1,360FT above the elevation determined for terrain; except that c. Where the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the tolerance area is not above 500FT, the LSALT must not be less than 1,500FT. For Routes Defined by Radio Navigation Aids or to be Navigated by DR: the area to be considered must be within an area of 5NM surrounding and including an area defined by lines drawn from the departure point or en route radio aid, 10.3° each side of the nominal track (where track guidance is provided by a radio navigation aid), or 15° each side of the nominal track (where no track guidance is provided) to a limit of 50NM each side of track, thence paralleling track to abeam the destination and then converging by a semicircle of 50NM radius centered on the destination. On shorter routes, where these lines are displaced by less than 50NM abeam the destination, they shall converge by a radius based on that lesser distance. Where the lines thus drawn come at any time within the coverage of an en route or destination radio aid the aircraft is equipped to use, they will converge by straight lines to that aid. The minimum angle of convergence which must be used in this case is 10.3 each side of track. For Operations with Area Navigation Systems (including GNSS): the area to be considered must be within an area of 5NM surrounding and including an area defined by lines drawn from the departure point not less than 10.3° each side of the nominal track to a maximum of 30NM for conventional RNAV systems and 7NM for GNSS, thence paralleling track to abeam the destination and converging by a semicircle of 30NM (RNAV) or 7NM (GNSS) centered on the destination. For Aircraft Flown at Night Under the VFR: the area to be considered must be:   a. The area specified in para 4.8 or 4.9 for aircraft navigated by means of a radio navigation system; or   b. Within a radius of 10NM from any point along the aircraft’s nominal track. However, the pilot of an aircraft who has positively determined by visual fix that a critical obstruction has been passed may nevertheless descend immediately to a lower altitude, provided that the required obstacle clearance above significant obstructions ahead of the aircraft is maintained. If the navigation of the aircraft is inaccurate, or the aircraft is deliberately flown off track, or where there is a failure of any radio navigation aid normally available, the area to be considered is a circle centered on the DR position, with a radius of 5NM plus 20% of the air distance flown from the last positive fix. AIP GEN 3.3 (4.1, 4.5, 4.8, 4.9 4.10)

Answer 11

The pilot in command of an aircraft operating in Class G airspace, or to the VFR in Class E airspace, must apply appropriate tolerances to the flight path to ensure that controlled airspace, or restricted areas, are not infringed. In calculating whether an intended flight path may infringe controlled airspace, the following navigational tolerances must be applied to the intended flight path depending on method of navigation used. These tolerances may be rounded up to the nearest half degree for practical purposes: a. NDB ±6.9 b. VOR/TACAN ±5.2 c. DR ±12 Note: For DR tracking ±9° may be used where initial track guidance has been provided by NDB, VOR or TACAN and there is no subsequent change in track.  d. RNAV ±14NM e. GPSRNAV/GPSOCEANIC ±7NM AIP ENR 1.1 (19.12)

Answer 12

A positive radio fix is one determined by the passage of the aircraft over: a. A NDB; or b. A VOR station; or c. A DME; or d. Is one determined by GNSS meeting the equipment and pilot  requirements of GEN 1.5 Section 8.; or e. Is one determined by the intersection of two or more position lines which intersect with angles of not less than 45 and which are obtained from NDBs, VORs, localisers or DMEs in any combination. For the purpose of this paragraph, a position line must be within the rated coverage of the aid with the exception that if a fix is deter- mined entirely by position lines from NDBs, the position lines must be within a range of 30NM from each of the NDBs AIP ENR 1.1 (19.5.1)

Answer 13

An aircraft operating under the IFR and using a radio navigation system or systems on routes where, after making allowance for possible tracking errors of ±9 from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used to fix the position of the aircraft. The maximum time interval between positive fixes must not exceed two (2) hours. Note: The distance between Nav aids can be calculated by multiplying the rated coverage of the aid an aircraft is flying to by 6.66 to give you the maximum distance between positive fix’s. AIP ENR 1.1 (19.1.1c)

Answer 14

The following ranges are quoted for planning purposes. Actual ranges obtained may sometimes be less than these due to facility and site variations (see ERSA). The localizer ranges are for those installations that have been nominated for position fixing at ranges beyond 25NM: a. NDB (published in ERSA); b. VOR and DME: ``` Aircraft Altitude (FT) Range (NM) Below 5,000 60   5,000 to below 10,000 90 10,000 to below15,000 120 15,000 to below 20,000 150 20,000 and above 180 c. Localizer: Aircraft Altitude (FT) Range (NM) At 2,000 AGL within ±10° of course line 25 Below 5,000 30 5,000 and above 50 ``` AIP GEN 1.5 (2.2)

Answer 15

An Instrument rating remains in force for the period of 1 year from the last day of the month in which the rating was issued or renewed CAO 40.2.1 (5.1)

Answer 16

VFR may only be conducted: a. In VMC, b. Provided that, when operating at or below 2000feet above ground or water, the pilot is able to navigate by visual reference to ground or water, c. Sub-sonic speeds, d. In accordance with speed restrictions (ENR 1.1 – 80) - 250 knots below 10,000 feet AIP ENR 1.2 (1.1)

Answer 17

1500 feet AIP GEN 3.3 (4.5 c)

Answer 18

Area QNH is a forecast value, which is valid for a period of 3 hours – Actual QNH is valid for 15 minutes from the time of receipt & must be from an approved source AIP ENR 1.7 (2.2.1), AIP ENR 1.5 (5.3.2)

Answer 19

The reversal procedure must be entered from a track within ± 30° of the outbound track of the reversal procedure AIP ENR 1.5 (2.7.3)

Answer 20

Yes - However the minima must be increased by 50 feet. AIP ENR 1.5 (5.3.3)

Answer 21

The forecast must indicate that the flight can be conducted in VMC, not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 10 nm either side of track AIP ENR 1.10 (1.24)

Answer 22

When operating a helicopter under VFR & Helicopter VMC is permissible at the destination, the pilot must provide for a suitable alternate when forecast conditions at the destination are: a. Cloud more than SCT (4/8) below a ceiling of 1000 feet or b. Vis – less than 3000m AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.2)

Answer 23

Missed Approach path is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100 feet along the missed approach path – 2.5 % gradient or 152 feet per nm * If gradient can not be achieved MDA should be increased or other actions taken to achieve the required obstacle clearance AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10 Note 2)

Answer 24

The Pilot must immediately notify ATC if the aircraft is found to be off-track by any of the deviations described below: Where track guidance is provided by a Localiser or VOR, ½ scale deflection or more of the CDI Where track guidance is provided by a NDB, ± 5° or more from the specified bearing Where track guidance is provided by a DME, ± 2nm or more from the required Arc Where track guidance is provided by a RNAV system, an indicated cross track deviation of ±2nm or more; and When navigating by visual reference to ground or water, more than 1nm from the cleared track AIP ENR 1.1 (19.6.2)

Answer 25

In Aerodrome & Trend type forecasts, cloud heights are given above aerodrome elevation. In other forecasts heights are expressed: a. As a flight level; or b. With reference to mean sea level AIP GEN 3.5 (3.7.1)

Answer 26

Initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and overhead the aerodrome establish the aircraft on the missed approach path AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.3)

Answer 27

Reversal Procedures are used to reverse direction onto an inbound track – Procedure Turns: 45°/180° - Timing from facility, 45° turn away for 1 minute (CAT1) followed by a 180° turn in the opposite direction 80°/260° - Timing from facility, 80° turn away followed by a 260° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track Base Turns – Specific outbound track to intercept inbound track AIP ENR 1.5 (2.7.2)

Answer 28

Wind allowances should be made in heading & timing for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before passing the holding fix inbound. Full use should be made of indications available from the aid & estimated or known winds AIP ENR 1.5 (3.2.1e)

Answer 29

All procedures depict tracks & pilots should attempt to maintain the track by applying corrections to heading for known or estimated winds DAP 1-1 (1.8)

Answer 30

An aircraft operating under the IFR must be navigated by: a. A full time licensed flight navigator, or b. An approved self contained NAV system or approved long range radio NAV system; or c. Use of a radio navigation system or systems on routes where,  after making allowance for possible tracking errors of ±9 from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used to fix the position of the aircraft. The maximum time interval between positive fixes must not exceed two (2) hours; or d. Visual reference to the ground or water by day, on route segments where suitable en route radio navigation aids are not available, provided that weather conditions permit flight in VMC and the visual position fixing requirements of Para ENR 1.1 (19.2.1b) are able to be met. Note: Self-contained or long range navigation systems may only be used as the sole means of navigation if the system installed in the aircraft has been approved by the CASA and the pilot in command operates the system in accordance with the terms of this approval. ENR 1.1 (19.2.1b) reads: When navigating by visual reference to the ground or water, the pilot in command must positively fix the aircraft’s position by visual reference to features shown on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes. When flying over the sea, visual reference features may include rocks and reefs and fixed man-made objects which are marked on suitable charts and are readily identifiable from the air. AIP ENR 1.1 (19.1)

Answer 31

A pilot in command must make provision for flight to an alternate aerodrome, when required in accordance with: a. When an aerodrome Forecast is not available or is “Provisional” Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the fore- cast commencement of, the following weather conditions: b. Cloud - more than SCT below alternate minima c. Visibility - below alternate minima d. Visibility with % probability of fog, smoke, dust or mist etc e. Wind exceeds cross/downwind limits of aircraft f. ETA within 30 minutes of INTER / TEMPO which is below the alternate minima’s or indicates thunderstorms, however if extra fuel is carried 30 / 60 minutes – no alternate is required AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.1 – 58.2.6)A pilot in command must make provision for flight to an alternate aerodrome, when required in accordance with: a. When an aerodrome Forecast is not available or is “Provisional” Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the fore- cast commencement of, the following weather conditions: b. Cloud - more than SCT below alternate minima c. Visibility - below alternate minima d. Visibility with % probability of fog, smoke, dust or mist etc e. Wind exceeds cross/downwind limits of aircraft f. ETA within 30 minutes of INTER / TEMPO which is below the alternate minima’s or indicates thunderstorms, however if extra fuel is carried 30 / 60 minutes – no alternate is required AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.1 – 58.2.6)

Answer 32

a. The Database card must be current and of a kind endorsed by manufacturer b. The coordinates for the NDB / VOR cannot be modified by the crew or operator c. GPS integrity (RAIM) is available before descent below MSA/LSALT d. The nominated azimuth aid (VOR or NDB) must be used for track guidance e. In the event of significant disparity between NDB / VOR track, and GPS track indication, the pilot must discontinue the arrival procedure Note: significant disparity NDB >6.9° VOR > 5.2° f. If at any time during the approach, there is cause to doubt the validity of the GPS information (eg. RAIM warning) or if the GPS integrity is lost (eg. RAIM not available), the pilot must conduct a missed approach AIP ENR 1.5 (11.2.2)

Answer 33

BY DAY – within 30 nm of aerodrome, not below LSALT/ MSA for route segment, the appropriate DME/GPS arrival procedure or MDA for procedure being flown, the aircraft is established: a. Clear of cloud; b. In sight of ground or water; c. With a flight visibility not less than 5000m or, in the case of a helicopter, is able to proceed under Heli-VMC, or the aerodrome in sight; and d. Subsequently can maintain and at an altitude not less than minimum prescribed for VFR flight (CAR157) or Heli VMC to the HLS BY NIGHT – At an altitude not below LSALT/MSA for route segment, the appropriate steps of the DME/GPS arrival procedure or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established: a. Clear of cloud, b. In sight of ground or water, c. With a flight visibility not less than 5000m, and d. Within the circling area, e. Within 5nm (7nm for a runway equipped with an ILS) of that aerodrome aligned with runway centerline & established not below ’On slope’ of the T-VASIS or PAPI or f. Within 10nm of that aerodrome, established not below the ILS guide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection. Sydney has other requirements AIP ENR 1.5 (1.14)

Answer 34

Yes, subject to the following: a. Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to an alternate aerodrome meeting all the requirements in ENR 1.1 (58) b. The aircraft must be able to be navigated to the destination and then, if necessary to the alternate aerodrome in accordance with navigational requirements c. Descent & maneuvering below LSALT only within 3 nm of aerodrome (positive fix) with aerodrome lighting identified d. The pilot is responsible foe ensuring they are familiar with terrain in circling area & maintains required obstacle clearance for aircraft category e. Aerodrome must meet lighting requirements as per ENR 1.174.1 Suitability of aerodrome AIP ENR 1.10 (1.4.2)

Answer 35

A CVR shall be operated continuously from the start of the check list before engine starting until completion of the final check list CAO 20.18 (6.4)

Answer 36

No – An aircraft >5700KG may only be planned to a destination with an approved instrument approach procedure for which the aircraft appropriately equipped and the pilot is qualified HOWEVER: It is OK to plan flight to destination if the aid(s) have failed provided: a. Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to a suitable alternate b. The aircraft is navigated to the destination and then if necessary, to an alternate in accordance with IFR navigation requirements (ENR 1.1 19.1) c. Descent below LSALT / MSA must be in accordance with the requirements for visual approaches by night (ENR 1.5 1.14) AIP ENR 1.10 (1.5.2)

Answer 37

IFR by Day – Visual Approach Requirements IFR at night – VMC from LSALT within 3nm (Only aircraft not above 5,700kgs MTOW) AIP ENR 1.5 (4.7.1)

Answer 38

With an accurate QNH set, the altimeter(s) should read the nominated elevation to within 60 feet. If an altimeter has an error in excess of ± 75 feet it must be considered unserviceable. When two altimeters are required for the flight, one altimeter must read the nominated elevation to within 60 feet. Remaining altimeter has error between 60 – 75 feet – IFR flight approved to first point of landing where altimeter can be-checked & if 2nd check indicates error ± 60 feet → altimeter is unserviceable Altimeters can be checked at two different locations on an airfield AIP ENR 1.7 (1.2.2)

Answer 39

Sector 1 – Parallel Entry – after fix turn on outbound heading to track parallel with the inbound track before turning onto the holding side to intercept the inbound track to the fix Sector 2 – Offset Entry – after the fix turn onto a heading to make good a track making an angle of 30 ° from the reciprocal inbound track on the holding side before turning in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound track to the fix Sector 3 – Direct Entry – after the fix turn the aircraft to follow the holding pattern AIP ENR 1.5 (3.3.2)

Answer 40

An appropriate broadcast on CTAF or Area VHF AIP ENR 1.1 (21.1.6)

Answer 41

A missed approach must be executed if: a. During the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigational tolerances for the aid in use; or b. During Instrument Approach, and below MSA, the performance of the aid fails or becomes suspect; or c. Visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA / RH from which the missed approach procedure commences; or d. A landing cannot be affected from the runway approach unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal or better than circling minima; or e. Visual reference is lost while circling AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.1)

Answer 42

A pilot must plan for an alternate unless: a. PAL + Responsible Person + Standby Power→ no alternate req. b. Electric Lighting + Responsible Person + Portable Lighting→ no alternate req. c. Electric Lighting + Standby Power + Responsible Person→ no alternate req. d. Portable Lighting + Responsible Person→ no alternate req. If alternate has PAL a responsible person is not required as long as the aircraft is fitted with dual VHF or one VHF & one HF with 30 minutes of holding fuel * A responsible person is one who has been instructed in& is competent to display the standard runway lighting with portable lights AIP ENR 1.1 (58.4)

Answer 43

The position reporting points for a route should be separated by a distance of approximately. 200nm or 30 minutes, whichever is least AIP ENR 1.1 (20.7)

Answer 44

Reports of “CHANGING TO (location) CTAF (frequency)” are required by pilots of IFR flights when inbound to a non-towered aerodrome when the ATC frequency will not, or cannot, be monitored. AIP ENR 1.1 (21.1.7)

Answer 45

In airspace where ATC approval is not required to change level, the pilot of an IFR flight must report present position & intentions to ATC approximately One (1) minute prior to making any change AIP ENR 1.7 (2.1)

Answer 46

A pilot in command must ensure that the forecasts cover the period  of the flight and that the aerodrome forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodromes, to be nominated in the flight plan, are valid for a period of not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA. AIP ENR 1.10 (1.2.5)

Answer 47

A forecast must be either a flight forecast or an area forecast with an aerodrome forecast for the destination & alternate aerodrome if required. Flight can depart without forecast provided the pilot is satisfied of a safe return to the departure point within 1 hour – The flight can continue if forecast for destination is obtained within 30 minutes after departure. Flights where forecasts cannot be obtained or are ‘Provisional’ may depart provided they carry an alternate and the alternate meets all requirements. AIP ENR 1.10 (1.2.1), (1.2.2), (1.2.3)

Answer 48

The shading means minima’s have been calculated assuming forecast terminal QNH, however if actual QNH is obtained by an approved source the minima may be reduced by 100 feet. Approved sources: ATC, ATIS, AWIS & CASA approved meteorological observer (Not METAR) Actual QNH is valid for 15 minutes from receipt AIP ENR 1.5 (5.3.2)

Answer 49

A pilot in command must maintain track/heading on the route progressively authorised by ATC until: a. By day- Within 5NM of the aerodrome; or b. By night- For an IFR flight, within the prescribed circling area; or For a VFR flight, within 3NM of the aerodrome, and the aerodrome is in sight. From this position the circuit must be joined as directed by ATC for an approach to the nominated runway. AIP ENR 1.1 (12.8.4)

Answer 50

For IFR flights, the alternate minima are as follows: a. For aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima published on the chart. b. For aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure where  an aerodrome forecast is unavailable or is “provisional”, the  pilot in command must make provision for a suitable alternate. c. For aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima is the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM. AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.12)

Answer 51

When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used, the pilot in command or operator must ensure that arrangements have been made for the lighting to be operating during the following periods: a. Departure: from at least 10 minutes before ETD to at least 30 minutes after takeoff; b. Arrival: from at least 30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed. The above shall apply to runway, obstacle and taxiway lighting. AIP ENR 1.1 (59.4.1)

Answer 52

METER - Routine Reports are issued at fixed times, hourly or half hourly, and are made available at preflight briefing or on request to aircraft in flight. SPECI - Special Reports are aerodrome weather reports issued whenever weather conditions fluctuate about or are below specified criteria. AIP GEN 3.5 (4.2), (4.3)

Answer 53

CAVOK is included in the report (from staffed stations only) or forecast when the following conditions are observed, or forecast to occur, simultaneously: a. Visibility of 10KM or more; b. Nil significant cloud, i.e.no cloud below 5,000 FT or below the highest 25NM minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, and no cumulonimbus or towering cumulus at any height; and c. Nil significant weather. When the term CAVOK is given, the elements visibility, weather  and cloud will not be given. AIP GEN 3.5 (12.13.1)

Answer 54

A QNH can be considered accurate if it is provided by ATIS, Tower or an automatic remote-reporting aerodrome sensor. Area or forecast QNH must not be used for the test. Site elevation must be derived from aerodrome survey data published by Airservices or supplied by the aerodrome owner. AIP ENR 1.7 (1.4.1), (1.4.2)

Answer 55

Despite Regulation (CAO 40.2.1 13.3.4) NAV aid needs to be endorsed in the logbook – The holder of an instrument rating may use a DME to: - determine position & - in conjunction with other NAV aids to conduct an instrument approach, other than a DME arrival procedure CAO 40.2.1 (13.4)

Answer 56

A flight permitted to operate under the VFR at night must provide an alternate aerodrome within one (1) hour flight time of the destination unless:  a. The destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR)  and the aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, or b. The aircraft is fitted with an approved GNSS receiver, and the pilot and aircraft meet the requirements of GEN 1.5 Section 8. AIP ENR 1.1 (58.3.3)

Answer 57

CIR Holder – no instrument approach unless proceeding 15 months proficiency on NAV aids demonstrated to a CASA testing officer or approved person. – If instrument rating has expired for less than 12 months→ pass renewal instrument rating test If instrument rating has expired for over 12 months→ pass test applicable to initial issue of instrument rating CAO 40.2.1 (11.6), (12.2), (12.3)

Answer 58

ATC may specify a rate of climb or descent. Other considerations are as follows: a. The phrase “STANDARD RATE”, when included in a clearance, specifies a rate of climb or descent of not less than 500FT per minute, except that the last 1,000FT to an assigned level must be made at 500FT per minute. b. In the case of a step-climb or descent, the specified rate will be applicable to all level clearances issued in the course of the step climb or descent. If unable to comply with the prescribed rate, the pilot in command must advise ATC. AIP ENR 1.7 (4.1.9)

Answer 59

The pilot in command of an IFR flight must notify the intentions to amend route, deviate from track or change level in sufficient time for ATS to advise traffic. When a position estimate changes by more than two (2) minutes the pilot must advise ATS AIP ENR 1.1 (44.2)

Answer 60

Taxiing reports for IFR flights must include the following information: a. Aircraft type; b. POB (for IFR flights other than RPT); c. IFR; d. Location; e. Destination or departure quadrant or intentions; and f. Runway to be used Departure report must include the following information:   a. Time; b. Outbound track in degrees magnetic; c. Intended cruising level; and d. The estimate for the first en route reporting point. TAXIING CALL: Melbourne Centre, Helicopter ZFD, EC225, POB12, IFR, Taxing Barrow Island for the Attwood Eagle, runway 21” DEPARTURE Call: Melbourne Centre, ZFD, departed Barrow Island at :54, tracking 350°, on climb to four thousand, estimating Attwood Eagle at :30 ” AIP ENR 1.1 (42.2), (43.3)

Answer 61

A positive radio fix is one determined by the passage of the aircraft over: a. A NDB;or b. A VOR station; or c. A DME;or d. Is one determined by GNSS meeting the equipment and pilot  requirements of GEN 1.5 Section 8.; or e. Is one determined by the intersection of two or more position  lines which intersect with angles of not less than 45 and which are obtained from NDBs, VORs, localisers or DMEs in any combination. AIP ENR 1.1 (19.5.1)

Answer 62

Obstacle clearance altitude is: a. In a precision approach procedure, the lowest altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or b. In a non-precision runway approach procedure, the lowest altitude below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or c. In a visual (circling) procedure, the lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation in accordance with obstacle clearance criteria. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.17.1)

Answer 63

Before beginning a flight, a pilot in command must study all avail- able information appropriate to the intended operation and, in the cases of flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome, flights over water (see ENR 1.1 Section 62.) and all IFR flights, must make a careful study of: a. Current weather reports and forecasts for the route to be flown and the aerodromes to be used; b. The airways facilities available on the route to be flown and the condition of those facilities; c. The condition of aerodromes to be used and their suitability for the aircraft to be used; d. The Air Traffic Control rules and procedures appertaining to the particular flight; and e. All Head Office and FIR NOTAM applicable to the en route phase of flight, and location-specific NOTAM for aerodromes. The pilot must then plan the flight in relation to the information obtained. AIP ENR 1.10 (1.1)

Answer 64

When a flight is delayed so that the meteorological and operational information does not cover the period of flight, updates must be obtained as necessary, to allow the flight to be concluded safely. AIP ENR 1.10 (1.2.6)

Answer 65

Published ILS CAT I DA and visibility minima may be used, except that: a. Minimum visibility1.5KM is required when precision approach  CAT I lighting system (also known as HIAL) is not available;  and b. Minimum visibility 1.2KM is required unless: 1. The aircraft is manually flown at least to the CAT I DA using a flight director or approved HUDLS; or the aircraft is flown to the CAT I DA with an autopilot coupled (LOC and GP); and 2. The aircraft is equipped with a serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems; and 3. High intensity runway edge lighting is available. c. Minimum visibility 0.8KM is required if instrumented RVR in-  formation in the threshold zone is not available. AIP ENR 1.5 (4.7.3)

Answer 66

Initial Approach 90 – 150 knots Final Approach 70 – 100 knots Visual Circling Max 100 knots Missed Approach Max 110 knots AIP ENR 1.5 (1.15.1) Table 1.1

Answer 67

In Class E airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are provided with an air traffic control service, are separated from other IFR flights, and receive traffic information on VFR flights as far as is practicable. VFR flights receive a Surveillance Information Service (SIS) on request. AIP ENR 1.4 (2.1.4)

Answer 68

When weather conditions at the destination are forecast to be above alternate minima’s, but additionally, intermittent or temporary deteriorate in the weather below the values are forecast, provision of an alternate need not be made if sufficient additional fuel is carried to allow the aircraft to hold for: a. 30 minutes for intermittent deterioration (INTER); and b. 60 minutes for temporary deterioration (TEMPO). AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.4)

Answer 69

A flight may be planned under the IFR by day to a destination aerodrome which is not served by a radio navigation aid without the requirement to provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, provided that: a. Not more than SCT cloud is forecast below the final route segment LSALT plus 500FT and forecast visibility at the destination aerodrome is not less than 8KM; AIP ENR 1.1 (58.3.2)

Answer 70

The pilot may shorten the holding pattern to leave the holding fix at a specified time. For prolonged holding at a level not limited by obstacles, the length of the pattern may be increased, subject to ATC approval where appropriate AIP ENR 1.5 (3.6.1)

Answer 71

Within the proceeding 90 days: a. 3 hours instrument time with a minimum of 1 hour in the aircraft or approved SIM OR b. 1 hour dual instruction on A/C or approved SIM OR c. 1 hour ICUS on A/C or approved SIM OR d. Passed instrument rating test on the category of aircraft or in an approved SIM Approaches: NDB, VOR, DME/GPS Arrival, GPS NPA – all 90 days in aircraft or SIM, ILS or LLZ – 35 days in A/C or approved SIM CAO 40.2.1 (11.2a-d), (11.3), (11.4)

Answer 72

Special alternate weather minima is identified by a double asterisk on the instrument approach chart special alternate minima for specified approach at some aerodromes for aircraft equipped with: Dual ILS / VOR capabilities with duplicated LLZ, G/P Marker & VOR receivers*** One marker & one DME is OK If NDB locator is used – Dual ADF’s special alternate minima’s will not be available if local SPECI / METAR services not available or aerodrome control services AIP ENR 1.5 (6.2.2)

Answer 73

The minima for a qualifying multi-engine helicopter are: a. Clear of cloud: 1. For helicopters operating in PC1 - until attaining the  greater of Vyse or Vmin IMC; or 2. For helicopters operating in PC2 - until attaining the  greater of Vyse or Vmin IMC, and passing the defined  point after takeoff; and b. Visibility of: i. 800M; or ii. 550M, but only if the relevant runway or helicopter landing site has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60M, and centreline lighting or centreline markings. The minima for all other helicopter are:   a. A ceiling of 500FT; and   b. Visibility of 800M. AIP ENR 1.5 (4.5.2)

Answer 74

a. A/C is maintained within circling area (Category) b. Visibility along intended flight path maintained (not less than chart minima) c. Visual contact with runway environment (Landing runway) d. By night or day while complying with a, b & c intercept (at a height not less than MDA) position down- wind, base or final & from this position a continuous descent can be completed (Normal for A/C type), maintaining obstacle clearance (Category) until aligned with the landing runway OR e. DAYLIGHT only, maintains visual contact with obstacles along flight path with required category obstacle clearance until aligned with the runway and complying with a, b & c. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.3)

Answer 75

‘Night’ is that period between the end of evening civil twilight & the beginning of morning civil twilight AIP GEN 2.7 (1.1)

Answer 76

ATC is responsible for issuing clearances that will enable an aircraft to remain within controlled airspace if the pilot has planned to do so. if the pilot is in doubt that the clearance will keep the aircraft in controlled airspace ATC should be advised and an alternative clearance may be requested AIP ENR 1.1 (3.11)

Answer 77

For aerodromes without an instrument approach the alternative minima is the LSALT for the final route segment plus 500 feet and a visibility of 8 kilometers. AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.12c)

Answer 78

In Class C – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 1500m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical In Class D – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 600m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical above cloud or 500ft vertically below cloud In Class E – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 1500m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical In Class G – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 1500m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical In Class G, at or below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL – 5000 Vis, Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water AIP ENR 1.2 (2.2)

Answer 79

The LSALT must be calculated using the following method: a. Where the highest obstacle is more than 360FT above the height determined for terrain, the LSALT must be 1,000FT  above the highest obstacle; or b. Where the highest obstacle is less than 360FT above the  terrain, or there is no charted obstacle, the LSALT must be 1,360FT above the elevation determined for terrain; except that c. Where the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the tolerance area is not above 500FT, the LSALT must not be less than 1,500FT. AIP GEN 3.3 (4.5)

Answer 80

a. 2 ASI (1 to prevent icing), b. 2 Altimeters, c. 2 instantaneous VSI, d. 2 slip indicators, e. 2 AI + standby AI with alternate power source, f. 1 compass, g. 1 OAT, h. 1 Heading Indicator, i. 1 accurate timepiece + other instruments specified in the flight manual. j. Lighting - Pax & cockpit lights, landing light x 2 or 1 with 2 filaments, position & anti-coll lights, torches, instrument lights with alternate power source & dimming k. Approved automatic pilot (unless 2 crew operations) l. Windshield clear vision equipment m. Flight data + cockpit voice recorder (>5,7 t, turbine & post 1965) n. Assigned attitude indicator o. Aircraft radar equipment (crew 2 + pilots) p. Overwater – floats, life rafts (100nm or 30mins) lifejackets to be worn q. Radio & NAV requirements CAO 20.18 Appendix VII

Answer 81

Yes, provided he/she meets recent experience requirements which are: Aeronautical experience – 10 hours X-country using NVFR procedures including 2 NAV exercises (300nm+ or 3 hours +) Each exercise shall exceed 100 nm from the departure point & include I landing in an area remote from extensive ground lighting Recent Experience – proceeding 90 days 3 take offs, 3Landings + 1 X-country flight at least 1 hour or 100nm OR Flight check at night proceeding 6 months by an approved person CAO 40.2.1 (14.1)

Answer 82

No – DME Arrival procedure must be entered into the pilot’s logbook DME / GPS Arrival does not have to be renewed & remains in effect while a person continues to hold an instrument rating CAO 40.2.1 (6.5), (13.3.4), (APP1-4.2)

Answer 83

The pilot of an IFR aircraft operating from a non-towered aerodrome must attempt to contact ATS on VHF or HF when taxiing. If the pilot is unable to establish contact, the flight may proceed on a broadcast basis provided contact is established as soon as possible after takeoff, and a. In the case of an RPT, CHTR or AWK flight, the pilot is assured of radio contact with his or her operator, or a representative of his or her operator who has immediate access to a serviceable telephone, until contact is made with ATS, or b. For flights other than RPT, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 minutes from ETD. AIP ENR 1.1 (40.1)

Answer 84

``` Aerodrome forecasts (TAF) are a statement of meteorological conditions expected for a specified period in the airspace within a radius of five (5) nautical miles of the aerodrome reference point. TTF is defined as an aerodrome weather report (METAR/SPECI) to which a statement of trend is appended. The TTF relates to weather conditions expected to affect the aerodrome of origin for the validity period of the forecast. The validity period is normally three hours, commencing at the time of observation. The TTF supersedes the TAF for its validity period and is the current forecast for pilots of aircraft whose arrival time falls within the validity period. ``` AIP GEN 3 5 (3.3.1)

Answer 85

For flight by aeroplanes under the VFR (day or night) and helicopters operating under the VFR at night, the alternate minima are more than SCT below a ceiling of 1,500FT and a visibility of 8KM. For VFR helicopter operations by day, the alternate minima are more than SCT below a ceiling of 1,000FT and a visibility of 3KM. AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.13), (58.2.2)

Answer 86

In Class C control zones (where an ATS surveillance service is provided), on first contact with departures control, a pilot must report: a. The direction of turn;   b. The initial heading; c. The altitude passing, to nearest 100FT; and  d. The last assigned level. However, an aircraft tracking via a SID which does not incorporate initial heading instructions is only required to advise altitude passing and confirm assigned level. AIP ENR 1.1 (8.1)

Answer 87

In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPT, pilots must fly the aircraft to the MAPT and then follow the missed approach procedure. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.2)

Answer 88

Minimum obstacle clearance for CAT A is – 300 feet. And the circling area is determined by drawing an arc centred on the threshold of each usable runway and joining these arcs by tangents. For CAT A, radii = 1.68 nm AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.3 Note 2, 3)

Answer 89

If the installed HIAL on a runway is not available, the landing visibility minima for a Localiser (LOC) approach must be increased by 900M.

Answer 90

25NM and 10NM MSAs provide 1,000FT obstacle clearance. An aircraft within 25NM or 10NM of the facility may use the applicable MSA, and deviation from the track being flown is permitted to facilitate entry to the instrument approach. In instances where the 25NM MSA has been divided into sectors, and the appropriate Sector MSA is lower than the 10NM MSA, the Sector MSA may be used for tracking to the aid provided aircraft tracking can be maintained within the sector. AIP ENR 1.5 (2.2.1)

Answer 91

A flight which is planned to be conducted under the IFR on the last  route segment to its destination must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, unless: a. For Regular Public Transport and Charter operations: 1. The destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been pre- scribed and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio navigation systems, each of which is capable of using the aid; or 2. The destination is served by two radio navigation aids for which independent and separate instrument approach procedures have been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio navigation systems capable of using these aids; b. For Aerial Work and Private operations: the destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with the radio navigation system capable of using the aid. AIP ENR 1.1 (58.3.1)

Answer 92

Where a prominent obstacle or obstacles within the circling  area prevent visual circling the sector in which the obstacles are located may be eliminated from the visual circling area. Sectors which have been eliminated from the visual circling area are annotated ‘No Circling’. Visual circling is prohibited in ‘no circling’ sectors by day in less than VMC and at night. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.2)

Answer 93

Except in an emergency, an aircraft must not land or continue an approach below the approved DA, MDA or RH, AIP ENR 1.5 (1.6)

Answer 94

Due to the continuous weather watch provided by TTF, the 30 minute buffers do not apply. Flight, which will be completed within the time of validity of the TTF, may be planned wholly with reference to the destination TTF. AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.9)

Answer 95

A pilot, desiring to retain control area protection during climb or de-scent in Class C or Class D airspace, should maintain at least 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA steps. AIP ENR 1.1 3.12

Answer 96

7700 – Emergency in flight 7600 – Loss of two-way communications 7500 – Unlawful interference AIP ENR 1.6 (6.4.2)

Answer 97

A pilot of an IFR flight may only request a visual departure when the cloud base will allow the aircraft to climb in VMC to the MSA/- LSALT applicable to the departure. Additionally, if the intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, the cloud base must permit flight in VMC at that level. AIP ENR 1.1 (6.3.1)

Answer 98

a. In Class A airspace, IFR flights only are permitted. All flights are  provided with an air traffic control service and are separated from  each other. b. In Class C airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are  provided with an air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR, Special VFR, and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights. Special VFR flights are separated from other Special VFR flights when visibility is less than VMC. c. In Class D airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with an air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and Special VFR flights, and receive traffic in- formation in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic in- formation in respect of all other flights. Special VFR flights are separated from other Special VFR flights when visibility is less than VMC. d. In Class E airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are provided with an air traffic control service, are separated from other IFR flights, and receive traffic information on VFR flights as far as is practicable. VFR flights receive a Surveillance Information Service (SIS) on request. e. At controlled aerodromes, ATC provides runway separation to all aircraft. AIP ENR 1.4 (2.1.2)

Answer 99

Outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading whichever comes later AIP ENR 1.5 (3.2.1b)

Answer 100

An aircraft must not be flown under the IFR, lower than the published lowest safe altitude or the lowest safe altitude calculated, except a. When being assigned levels in accordance with ATS surveillance service terrain clearance procedures; or b. When being flown in accordance with a published DME arrival, instrument approach or holding procedure; or c. Except when necessary during climb after departure from an aerodrome; or d. Except during VMC by day AIP GEN 3.3 (4.6)

Answer 101

If the renewal is completed within 90 days prior to its due date, it is valid for twelve months from its original expire date CAO 40.2.1 (12.1a)

Answer 102

For an approach which incorporates a reversal procedure, if an outbound descent is specified, the descent to the specified altitude may be commenced after the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility and is established on the specified track or has turned to a heading to intercept the specified outbound track. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.20.2)

Answer 103

Aircraft may commence a segment in excess of the specified commencement altitude provided that any upper altitude limitations are observed, however the rate of descent after the FAF should not normally exceed 1000 feet per minute AIP ENR 1.5 (1.19.2)

Answer 104

A DME Arrival renews a GPS arrival & vice versa An ILS or LLZ approach renews a VOR approach CAO 40.2.1 (11.3)

Answer 105

Operators may apply aircraft Pressure Error Correction (PEC) or, alternatively, add at least 50FT to the published DA. Compensation for aircraft pressure error is not required when determining Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) for non-precision approaches. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.18.2)

Answer 106

Submission of flight details at least 30 minutes before ETD is recommended AIP ENR 1.10 (2.15)

Answer 107

Unless otherwise specified, flight parameters are as follows:   a. Bank angle - 15 ̊ average achieved;  b. Maximum speed for turning departures - 290KT.  AIP ENR 1.5 (8.5.5)

Answer 108

Unless tracking via a SID or instructed by ATS, a pilot must remain within 5 nm of the departure A/D to establish flight on the departure track as soon as practicable after take off AIP ENR 1.1 (8.3)

Answer 109

Established means being: - within ½ of full scale deflection for the ILS, VOR & GPS, - within 5 ° of the required bearing for the NDB, - within 2 nm ± of the DME arc AIP ENR 1.5 (1.20.2 Note)

Answer 110

Procedures are based on a bank angle of 25, or a bank angle which will produce a Rate One turn, whichever is less. Rate one – rule of thumb: 10 % of indicated airspeed + 7 AIP ENR 1.5 (1.22)

Answer 111

The pilot in command must commence a change of level as soon as possible, but not later than one (1) minute after receiving that instruction from ATC, unless that instruction specifies a later time or place. AIP ENR 1.7 (4.1.1)

Answer 112

VFR flights in the following categories are required to submit a SARTIME flight notification to ATS, or, as an alternative, to leave a Flight Note with a responsible person: a. RPT and CHTR flights; b. Over-water flights; c. Flights in Designated Remote Areas; d. Flights at night proceeding beyond 120NM from the aerodrome of departure. AIP ENR 1.10 (2.11)

Answer 113

The entry into the holding pattern must be according to heading in relation to the three entry sectors, recognizing a zone of flexibility of 5 on either side of the sector boundaries. For holding on a VOR intersection, the entry track is limited to the radials forming the intersection. For holding on a VOR/ DME fix the entry track is limited to either the VOR radial, DME arc or alternatively along the entry radial to a VOR/DME fix at the end of the outbound leg, as published. AIP ENR 1.5 (3.3.1)

Answer 114

With an accurate QNH set, a VFR altimeter(s) should read site elevation to within 100FT (110FT at test sites above 3,300FT) to be accepted as serviceable by the pilot. If an aircraft fitted with two VFR altimeters continues to fly with one altimeter reading 100FT (110FT) or more in error, the faulty altimeter must be placarded un- serviceable and the error noted in the maintenance release. AIP ENR 1.7 (1.3.1)

Answer 115

The outbound leg must be no  longer than: a. Up to and including FL 140 - 1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart; AIP ENR 1.5 (3.2.1)

Answer 116

During visual circling, descent below the circling MDA may only occur when the pilot: a. Maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and b. Maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and c. Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (ie, the runway threshold or approach lighting or other  markings identifiable with the runway); and either d. By night or day, while complying with a., b. and c. and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight manoeuvres which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or e. In day light only, while complying with a, b and c, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway. AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.6)

Answer 117

a. Squawk 7600 b. Listen to ATIS & voice modulated NAV aids c. Transmit intentions & position with “Transmitting Blind” d. If VMC & certain of maintaining VMC→ stay VMC & land at the most suitable aerodrome e. If IMC or uncertain of maintaining VMC, proceed with the latest route clearance acknowledged & climb to planned level if no clearance limit was received or acknowledged - If a clearance limit was received, hold at the nominated location for 3 minutes at MSA or last assigned level (whichever is higher) & proceed as planned or last route & climb to planned level f. If receiving ATC surveillance service climb to MSA / LSALT & if vectored maintain last vector for 2 minutes then proceed with the latest ATC route clearance g. If in a holding pattern – complete 1 more & proceed ERSA Emergency Procedures (Emergency. 3)

Answer 118

VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud is available provided that: a. VMC can be maintained during the entire flight, including climb, cruise and descent. b. For VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud, visual position fixing requirements, or the other navigational requirements of sub-section 19.1 must be met. c. Prior to conducting a VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud, the pilot in command must ensure that current forecasts and observations (including those available in- flight observations) indicate that conditions in the area of, and during the period of, the planned descent below the cloud layer will permit the descent to be conducted in VMC. d. The position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur must be such as to enable continuation of the flight to the destination and, if required, an alternate aerodrome in VMC AIP ENR 1.1 (19.2.1d)

Answer 119

By day, when VMC do not exist, the ATC unit responsible for a CTR may issue, at pilot request, a Special VFR clearance for flight in the CTR, or in a CTA next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR, provided the Special VFR flight will not unduly delay an IFR flight. Special VFR may be requested by a pilot: a. By day b. When VMC does NOT exist c. To the ATC unit responsible, for the purpose of entering or leaving a CTR or an adjoining CTA provided it does not delay an IFR flight Pilots are responsible for ensuring that under a special VFR clearance they remain: a. Clear of cloud b. Visibility not less than 800 m (Helicopters) c. Speed that give adequate opportunity to observe &avoid obstructions & traffic d. In accordance with CAR 157 – Low Flying requirements AIP ENR 1.2 (1.2.1)