Instrument Rating Flashcards

1
Q

What are the privileges of a Command Instrument Rating (CIR)?

A

A command (multi-engine helicopter) grade of instrument rating authorises the holder of the rating to fly a helicopter as pilot in command or co-pilot, while the helicopter is flying under the I.F.R.

CAO 40.2.1 (13.3.1)

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2
Q

What are the privileges of a Co-Pilot Instrument Rating (CPIR)?

A

A co-pilot (helicopter) grade of instrument rating authorises the holder of the rating to fly a helicopter as co-pilot of a helicopter for which the licence is valid while the helicopter is flying under the I.F.R.

CAO 40.2.1 (13.3.3)

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3
Q

What are the ranges of handling speeds during an approach for Category A aircraft?

A

Initial Approach: 90-150kts
Final Approach: 70-100kts
Maximum speed for a Missed Approach: 110kts

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.15)

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4
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirements and size of a Circling Area for a Category A aircraft?

A

Minimum obstacle clearance is 300ft.
The circling area is determined by drawing an arc centered on the threshold of each usable runway and joining these arcs by tangents. The radius for a Category A aircraft is 1.68NM.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.3)

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5
Q

When must a Missed Approach (Standard Procedure) be executed?

A

A missed approach must be executed if:

a. During the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft 
is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for 
the aid in use; or
b. During an instrument approach and below MSA (as specified 
on the IAL chart) the performance of the radio aid becomes 
suspect, or the radio aid fails; or
c. Visual reference is not established at or before reaching the 
MAPT (non-precision) or DA/RH (precision) from which the 
missed approach procedure commences; or
d. A landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions 
equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
e. Visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.

Note 1: For the purpose of this paragraph “visual reference” means the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10)

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6
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance gradient required during a Missed approach?

A

The missed approach is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100FT to an aircraft climbing along the specified missed approach path at a gradient of 2.5% (152FT/NM) from the MAPT (non-precision) or DA/RH (precision) from which the missed approach procedure commences. If this missed approach climb gradient cannot be achieved the DA, MDA or RH should be increased, or other action taken to achieve the required obstacle clearance along the specified missed approach flight path.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.1)

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7
Q

What bank angles / rate of turn are approach procedures based on?

A

Procedures are based on a bank angle of 25, or a bank angle which will produce a Rate One turn, whichever is less.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.22.1)

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8
Q

What are the Takeoff minima’s for IFR helicopters?

A

The takeoff minima for multi-engine IFR helicopter operating in accordance with PC1 or PC2 procedures are:

a. Cloud Ceiling: Clear of cloud until attaining Vyse or Vmin IMC which ever is greater. Also for helicopters operating in PC2, passing the defined point after takeoff.
b. RVR / VIS: 800M; 550M if the relevant runway or helicopter landing site has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60M; and centerline lighting or centerline markings.

All other helicopters: Cloud Ceiling of 500ft and an RVR / VIS of 800M

AIP ENR 1.5 (4.5.2)

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9
Q

If an Instrument Approach chart has a shaded background in the minima title, can these minima’s be reduced? And if so, when and by how much?

A

These minima may be reduced by 100FT whenever an actual aerodrome QNH is set. Approved sources of actual QNH are ATC, ATIS, AWIS and CASA-approved meteorological observers. An actual aerodrome QNH obtained from an approved source is valid for a period of 15 minutes from the time of receipt (Note: METAR QNH does not meet this requirement).

AIP ENR 1.5 (6.2.1)

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10
Q

What does it mean when an aerodrome minima is identified by a double asterisk? And what is the minimum number of navaids required to be carried in the aircraft for this procedure?

A

A double asterisk adjacent to the ALTERNATE title on applicable instrument approach charts identifies “Special Alternate Weather Minima’s”, and a note detailing the special minima. These special alternate minima will not be available (minima will revert to the standard alternate minima) during periods when:

a. Local METAR / SPECI or forecasting services are not available;
b. Or an aerodrome control service is not provided.

Special alternate weather minima are available for specified approaches at some aerodromes for use by aircraft with dual ILS/ VOR approach capability; ie, with duplicated LOC, G/P, marker and VOR receivers. The requirement for duplicated marker receivers may be satisfied by one marker receiver and DME. (The assumption is that such aircraft will also have two ADF systems, when an NDB is used for the ILS).

AIP ENR 1.5 (6.1 & 6.2)

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11
Q

Can a pilot of an IFR aircraft operating from an aerodrome out side controlled airspace (OCTA), depart without contacting ATS on the ground when taxiing?

A

The pilot of an IFR aircraft operating from a non-towered aerodrome must attempt to contact ATS on VHF or HF when taxiing. If the pilot is unable to establish contact, the flight may proceed on a broadcast basis provided contact is established as soon as possible after takeoff, and in the case of an RPT, CHTR or AWK flight, the pilot is assured of radio contact with his or her operator, or a representative of his or her operator who has immediate access to a serviceable telephone, until contact is made with ATS, or for flights other than RPT, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 minutes from ETD.
An IFR departure report is not sufficient to cancel a SARTIME for Departure. Pilots who have nominated a SARTIME for Departure must use the phrase ’CANCEL SARTIME’ with the departure report.

AIP ENR 1.1 (40.1 & 52.3.4)

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12
Q

Can a pilot make a DME or GPS arrival if he or she is not endorsed with DGA on their instrument rating?

A

No. A person choosing to conduct a DME or GPS arrival procedure must have a DGA approval endorsed into their personal logbook.
Once a DGA procedure had been endorsed into a pilot’s logbook, it does not have to be renewed each year and remains in effect while that person continues to hold an instrument rating.

CAO 40.2.1

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13
Q

When must a pilot plan for an alternate aerodrome?

A

A pilot in command must make provision for flight to an alternate 
aerodrome, when required, in accordance with the following paragraphs.

Weather:

a. When an aerodrome forecast is not available or is “provisional”
b. Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure: - An alternate is required if the ETA is during or up to 30 minutes prior to, or 30 minutes after, cloud more than SCT below alternate minima, the VIS is below alternate minima, the VIS has a % probability of fog, mist, dust, smoke or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below alternate minima, or if the winds exceed crosswind / downwind limits of the aircraft.
c. Thunderstorms
d. ETA is during or up to 30 minutes prior to, or 30 minutes after a forecast INTER / TEMPO which is below alternate minima. (Alternate not required if carrying an extra 30 / 60 minutes holding fuel)

Runway Lighting:
a. Portable Lighting: Must have a responsible person in attendance during the required period otherwise an alternate is required.
b. Electric Lighting: If there is no standby power, then you must plan for an alternate aerodrome unless you have a responsible person on standby with portable lighting.
c. PAL Lighting: You must plan for an alternate aerodrome unless you have a responsible person on standby to manually switch on the lights
Note 1: If an alternate has PAL, then a responsible person is not required as long as the aircraft has dual VHF (or 1 VHF + 1 HF) with 30 minutes of holding fuel.
Note 2: The alternate requirements need not be applied if the aircraft carries holding fuel for first light plus 10 minutes at the destination.
Note 3: The pilot in command or operator must ensure that arrangements for a responsible person have been made for the lighting to be operating during the following periods:
a. Departure: from at least 10 minutes before ETD to at least 30 minutes after takeoff.
b. Arrival: from at least 30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed.

Navaids:
A flight which is planned to be conducted under the IFR on the last 
route segment to its destination must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, unless:
a. For Regular Public Transport and Charter operations:
(1) The destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio navigation systems, each of which is capable of using the aid; or
(2) The destination is served by two radio navigation aids for which independent and separate instrument approach procedures have been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio navigation systems capable of using these aids;
b. For Aerial Work and Private operations:
the destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with the radio navigation system capable of using the aid.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.1 – 58.4.8)

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14
Q

What are the alternate minima’s for VFR and IFR flights?

A

For flight by aeroplanes under the VFR (day or night) and helicopters operating under the VFR at night, the alternate minima are a ceiling of cloud more than SCT below 1,500FT and a visibility of 8,000M.

When operating a helicopter under the VFR, and the use of helicopter VMC is permissible at the destination, the alternate minima are a ceiling of cloud more than SCT below 1,00FT and a visibility of 3,000M.

For IFR flights, the alternate minima for aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure, is published on the approach chart.

For IFR flights, the alternate minima for aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure, is the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.13, 58.2.3, 58.2.12

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15
Q

Can a pilot plan a night VFR flight holding only a command instrument (CIR) and if so, what additional qualifications must they have?

A

Yes, as long as they satisfy the aeronautical and recent experience requirements to conduct a flight under the night VFR procedures, which are (for charter);
Aeronautical Experience: 10 hours cross-country flight time using night V.F.R. procedures including a minimum of 2 navigation exercises (of at least 300 nautical miles or 3 hours duration), as either pilot in command or in command under supervision. Each exercise shall exceed a distance of 100 nautical miles from the point of departure and shall provide at least 1 landing at an aerodrome other than that of departure, located in an area remote from extensive ground lighting.
Recent Experience: 3 takeoffs and landings by night within the preceding 90 days, and either a night cross-country flight (of at least 100 nautical miles or 1 hour duration) within the preceding 6 months or a flight check by night with an approved person also within the preceding 6 months.

CAO 40.2.1 (14)

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16
Q

The holder of a Command Instrument Rating (CIR) shall not act as pilot in command of an IFR flight unless within the proceeding 90 days they have completed: -

A

a. Completed 3 hours instrument time with a minimum of either 1 hour instrument flight time on that category of aircraft or 1 hour instrument time on an approved flight simulator; or
b. Completed either 1 hour of dual instrument flight instruction time on that category of aircraft or 1 hour instrument instruction time on an approved flight simulator; or
c. Completed 1 hour instrument flight time whilst acting in command under supervision or 1 hour instrument time whilst acting in command under supervision on an approved flight simulator; or
d. Passed the instrument rating test on either that category of aircraft or an approved flight simulator.
Where an instrument rating has expired for a period of less than 12 months, an applicant may qualify for issue of a rating by passing the instrument rating test applicable to the renewal of a rating.
Where an instrument rating has expired for a period in excess of 12 months, an applicant may qualify for issue of a rating by passing the instrument rating test applicable to the initial issue of an instrument rating.

CAO 40.2.1 (11.2) (12.2 & 12.3)

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17
Q

Which helicopters must be fitted with a cockpit voice recorder (CVR)?

A

An aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight In excess of 5 700 kg and which is:
a. Turbine powered; or
b. Of a type first certificated in its country of manufacture on or after 1 July 1965;
shall not be flown (except in agricultural operations) unless it is equipped with an approved flight data recorder and an approved cockpit voice recorder system;

An aircraft with a maximum takeoff weight less than or equal to 5 700 kg and which is:
a. Pressurised; and
b. Turbine powered by more than 1 engine; and
c. Of a type certificated in its country of manufacture for operation with more than eleven places; and
d. Issued with its initial Australian Certificate of airworthiness after 1 January 1988
shall not be flown unless it is equipped with an approved cockpit voice recorder system.

Where an aircraft is required to be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder, the system shall be operated continuously from the start of the use of the check list before starting engines for the purpose of flight until completion of the final check list at the termination of the flight.

CAO 20.18 (6

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18
Q

What is the Lowest Safe Altitude (LSALT), for IFR flights flying routes that are not published on aeronautical charts and the highest terrain or obstacle in the tolerance area is not above 500ft?

A

1500ft

AIP GEN 3.3 (4.5c)

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19
Q

In the event of a missed approach (standard procedure) being initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what procedure must the pilot adopt?

A

In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPT, the pilot must fly the aircraft to the MAPT and then follow the missed approach procedure. When a missed approach is required from visual circling, the expectation is that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and overhead the aerodrome the pilot will establish the aircraft climbing on the missed approach track.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.2, 1.10.3)

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20
Q

What are the alternate minima’s, for an IFR flight to an aerodrome without an instrument approach procedure?

A

For aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima is not more than SCT below the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.12c)

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21
Q

Can an aircraft having a MTOW greater than 5700KG, and operating under the IFR at night, operate to an aerodrome, which does not have an approved instrument approach procedure?

A

No. It can however go there by day and depart by night. Furthermore, it can operate by night to an aerodrome which has an approach procedure that cannot be flown due to failure of the radio navaid. This is subject to:

a. Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to an alternate aerodrome meeting all the requirements specified in ENR 1.1 Section 58.
b. The aircraft must be able to be navigated to the destination and then, if necessary, to the alternate aerodrome in accordance with the navigation requirements of ENR 1.1 Sub-section 19.1.
c. Descent below the LSALT/MSA must be in accordance with the requirements for visual approaches by night specified in ENR 1.5 Sub-section 1.14.

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.5.1, 1.5.2)

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22
Q

At what point can an IFR aircraft below 5700KG, descend below LSALT when making an approach to an aerodrome at night that has no instrument approach procedure?

A

Descent below LSALT for the route sector to be flown must not be commenced until the aircraft is positively fixed within 3NM of the destination aerodrome and the aerodrome lighting has been visually identified. Subsequent maneuvering for descent and landing must be in VMC and confined within 3NM of the destination aerodrome while operating below the LSALT. Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to an alternate aerodrome meeting all the requirements specified in ENR 1.1 Section 58.

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.4.2a,c)

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23
Q

What are the recent experience requirements for conducting an instrument approach?

A

The holder of a command instrument rating shall not carry out an ILS or LLZ approach in IMC as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, within the preceding 35 days, that person has performed in flight, or in a synthetic flight trainer approved for the purpose, either one of those approaches.
The holder of a command instrument rating must not, as pilot in command of an aircraft, carry out a RNAV/(GNSS) approach or an instrument approach using DME or GPS arrival procedures, NDB or VOR in I.M.C. unless, in the preceding 90 days, the holder has performed an approach using the same type of navigation aid or procedure in flight or in an approved synthetic flight trainer.
The holder of a command instrument rating must not carry out a RNAV/(GNSS) approach as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, in the preceding 6 months, the holder has carried out a RNAV/(GNSS) approach:
a. In flight or in an approved synthetic flight trainer; and
b. Using a GNSS receiver:
i. Which is the same as that fitted in the aircraft; or
ii. Which CASA has determined in writing is to be taken as being the same as that fitted in the aircraft.
However:
a. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown a DME arrival procedures, than that will cover the holder in relation to the GPS arrival procedures; and
b. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown a GPS arrival procedures, than that will cover the holder in relation to the DME arrival procedures; and
c. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown an ILS approach or a LLZ approach, than that will cover the holder in relation to a VOR approach.

The holder of a command instrument rating shall not carry out an instrument approach in I.M.C. as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, during the preceding 15 months, proficiency on the navigation aid being used has been demonstrated to CASA, an approved testing officer or approved person during an instrument rating test or a flight proficiency test.

CAO 40.2.1 (11.3, 11.3A, 11.3B, 11.4, 11.6)

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24
Q

What are the helicopter visual meteorological conditions (VMC)? When can helicopter VMC be used? And what alternates are required to operate helicopter VMC?

A

Helicopter VMC exists when:
a. Operating a helicopter below 700FT above the ground; or 700FT above the water and operating at a distance from land not greater than the distance from which the aircraft could reach land if the engine failed, or in the case of a multi engine aircraft, if an engine fails, the remaining engines in operation can give the highest minimum speed at which the aircraft can be controlled and reach land.
Helicopter VMC = Visibility 800M and clear of cloud

b. Operating a helicopter below 700FT above the water and operating at a distance from land greater than the distance from which the aircraft could reach land if the engine failed, or in the case of a multi engine aircraft, if an engine fails, the remaining engines in operation cannot give the highest minimum speed at which the aircraft can be controlled and reach land.
Helicopter VMC = Visibility 1,500M and cloud separation of 600M horizontal and 500FT Vertical. If the helicopter uses track guidance provided by an approved operating radio navigation aid than; Visibility can be reduced to 800M and clear of cloud.

Helicopter VMC is only permissible when:
a. Day operation only.
b. At a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see any obstructions or air traffic in sufficient time to avoid collision.
c. If operating less than 10NM from an aerodrome with an approved instrument approach- procedure, then:
I. In accordance with all requirements to report, broadcast and maintain a listening watch; and
II. Maintaining a separation of at least 500FT vertically from any aircraft conducting an IFR operation less than 10NM from the aerodrome.
When operating a helicopter under the VFR, and the use of helicopter VMC is permissible at the destination, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when either of the following conditions is forecast at the destination: 
Cloud - more than SCT below a ceiling of 1,000FT; or Visibility - less than 3,000M.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.2), ENR 1.2 (2.5), CAR 258

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25
Q

When can you descend below lower safe (LSALT) during an IFR approach?

A

An aircraft must not be flown under the IFR, lower than the published lowest safe altitude except when:

a. Being assigned levels in accordance with ATS surveillance service terrain clearance procedures.
b. When being flown in accordance with a published DME arrival.
c. In accordance with an Instrument approach or holding procedure.
d. When necessary during climb after departure from an aerodrome.
e. When conducting a visual approach and all the criteria for a visual approach are met

AIP GEN 3.3 (4.6) ENR 1.5 (1.14)

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26
Q

When can a visual approach be carried out during an IFR flight and conducting an instrument approach to an aerodrome?

A

Subject to the requirements the pilot need not commence or may discontinue the approved instrument approach procedure to that aerodrome when:

By Day. Within 30NM of that aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GPS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established;

a. Clear of cloud;
b. In sight of ground or water;
c. With a flight visibility not less than 5,000M or, in the case 
of a helicopter, is able to proceed under helicopter VMC, 
or the aerodrome is in sight; and
d. Subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude 
not less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight (CAR 157), to within the circling area or, in the case of a helicopter, can subsequently maintain helicopter VMC to the HLS.

By Night. At an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GPS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:

a. Clear of cloud;
b. In sight of ground or water;
c. With a flight visibility not less than 5,000M; and
d. Within the circling area or VAA - H, as applicable; or
e. Within 5NM (7NM for a runway equipped with an ILS) of 
that aerodrome aligned with the runway centerline and established not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS or PAPI; or
f. Within 10NM (14NM for Runways 16L and 34L at Sydney) of that aerodrome, established not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.14)

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27
Q

When can you descend below MDA, during a visual circling approach?

A

During visual circling, descent below the circling MDA may only occur when the pilot:

a. Maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and
b. Maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and
c. Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (ie, the runway threshold or approach lighting or other 
markings identifiable with the runway);
d. And either by night or day, while complying with a, b & c, and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight maneuvers which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or
e. In daylight only, while complying with a, b & c, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.3)

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28
Q

How long does an instrument rating remain current for?

A

An instrument rating remains in force for the period of 1 year from the last day of the month in which the rating was issued or renewed.

CAO 40.2.1 (5.1)

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29
Q

When does the 12 month validity period start, if you sit your IR renewal before its due date?

A

If the renewal is completed within 90 days of the original due date, it will still be valid up to 12 months from the original expiry date.

CAO 40.2.1 (12.1a)

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30
Q

Can the holder of an instrument rating use a DME without a qualification on that instrument?

A

Except for a DME arrival procedure, the holder of an instrument rating may use a DME for:

a. Determining position; or
b. In conjunction with other types of navigational aids to conduct an instrument approach.

CAO 40.2.1 (13.3.4, 13.4)

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31
Q

What types of instrument approaches qualify you to conduct other types of instrument approaches?

A

a. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown a DME arrival procedures, than that will cover the holder in relation to the GPS arrival procedures; and
b. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown a GPS arrival procedures, than that will cover the holder in relation to the DME arrival procedures; and
c. If a holder of a command instrument rating has, in the preceding 90 days, flown an ILS approach or a LLZ approach, than that will cover the holder in relation to a VOR approach.

CAO 40.2.1 (11.3a)

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32
Q

What are the landing minima’s for an IFR flight to an aerodrome without an approach procedure?

A

The landing minima’s are:

a. IFR Day – Visual approach requirements
b. IFR Night – VMC from LSALT within 3NM. (This can only be carried out by aircraft less than 5700KG).

AIP ENR 1.5 (4.6.2)

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33
Q

What does it mean when the approach plate shows a no circling area around the aerodrome?

A

Where a prominent obstacle or obstacles within the circling 
area prevent visual circling the sector in which the obstacles are located may be eliminated from the visual circling area. Sectors which have been eliminated from the visual circling area are annotated ‘No Circling’.
Visual circling is prohibited in ‘no circling’ sectors by day in less than VMC and at night.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.2)

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34
Q

How do you determine Lowest Safe Altitude (LSALT)?

A

Lowest safe altitudes for IFR flights are published in MAP, NOTAM or AIP Supplement.

The LSALT must be calculated using the following method:

a. Where the highest obstacle is more than 360FT above the height determined for terrain, the LSALT must be 1,000FT 
above the highest obstacle; or
b. Where the highest obstacle is less than 360FT above the 
terrain, or there is no charted obstacle, the LSALT must be 1,360FT above the elevation determined for terrain; except that
c. Where the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the tolerance area is not above 500FT, the LSALT must not be less than 1,500FT.

For Routes Defined by Radio Navigation Aids or to be Navigated by DR: the area to be considered must be within an area of 5NM surrounding and including an area defined by lines drawn from the departure point or en route radio aid, 10.3° each side of the nominal track (where track guidance is provided by a radio navigation aid), or 15° each side of the nominal track (where no track guidance is provided) to a limit of 50NM each side of track, thence paralleling track to abeam the destination and then converging by a semicircle of 50NM radius centered on the destination. On shorter routes, where these lines are displaced by less than 50NM abeam the destination, they shall converge by a radius based on that lesser distance. Where the lines thus drawn come at any time within the coverage of an en route or destination radio aid the aircraft is equipped to use, they will converge by straight lines to that aid. The minimum angle of convergence which must be used in this case is 10.3 each side of track.

For Operations with Area Navigation Systems (including GNSS): the area to be considered must be within an area of 5NM surrounding and including an area defined by lines drawn from the departure point not less than 10.3° each side of the nominal track to a maximum of 30NM for conventional RNAV systems and 7NM for GNSS, thence paralleling track to abeam the destination and converging by a semicircle of 30NM (RNAV) or 7NM (GNSS) centered on the destination.

For Aircraft Flown at Night Under the VFR: the area to be considered must be: 


a. The area specified in para 4.8 or 4.9 for aircraft navigated by means of a radio navigation system; or 

b. Within a radius of 10NM from any point along the aircraft’s nominal track. However, the pilot of an aircraft who has positively determined by visual fix that a critical obstruction has been passed may nevertheless descend immediately to a lower altitude, provided that the required obstacle clearance above significant obstructions ahead of the aircraft is maintained.

If the navigation of the aircraft is inaccurate, or the aircraft is deliberately flown off track, or where there is a failure of any radio navigation aid normally available, the area to be considered is a circle centered on the DR position, with a radius of 5NM plus 20% of the air distance flown from the last positive fix.

AIP GEN 3.3 (4.1, 4.5, 4.8, 4.9 4.10)

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35
Q

What are the tracking tolerances to avoid CTA for VFR aircraft?

A

The pilot in command of an aircraft operating in Class G airspace, or to the VFR in Class E airspace, must apply appropriate tolerances to the flight path to ensure that controlled airspace, or restricted areas, are not infringed. In calculating whether an intended flight path may infringe controlled airspace, the following navigational tolerances must be applied to the intended flight path depending on method of navigation used. These tolerances may be rounded up to the nearest half degree for practical purposes:
a. NDB ±6.9
b. VOR/TACAN ±5.2
c. DR ±12
Note: For DR tracking ±9° may be used where initial track guidance has been provided by NDB, VOR or TACAN and there is no subsequent change in track.

d. RNAV ±14NM
e. GPSRNAV/GPSOCEANIC ±7NM

AIP ENR 1.1 (19.12)

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36
Q

What is considered a Positive Fix?

A

A positive radio fix is one determined by the passage of the aircraft over:

a. A NDB; or
b. A VOR station; or
c. A DME; or
d. Is one determined by GNSS meeting the equipment and pilot 
requirements of GEN 1.5 Section 8.; or
e. Is one determined by the intersection of two or more position lines which intersect with angles of not less than 45 and which are obtained from NDBs, VORs, localisers or DMEs in any combination.

For the purpose of this paragraph, a position line must be within the rated coverage of the aid with the exception that if a fix is deter- mined entirely by position lines from NDBs, the position lines must be within a range of 30NM from each of the NDBs

AIP ENR 1.1 (19.5.1)

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37
Q

How do you determine the maximum distance an IFR aircraft can travel before obtaining a positive fix using radio navigational aid?

A

An aircraft operating under the IFR and using a radio navigation system or systems on routes where, after making allowance for possible tracking errors of ±9 from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used to fix the position of the aircraft. The maximum time interval between positive fixes must not exceed two (2) hours.
Note: The distance between Nav aids can be calculated by multiplying the rated coverage of the aid an aircraft is flying to by 6.66 to give you the maximum distance between positive fix’s.

AIP ENR 1.1 (19.1.1c)

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38
Q

What are the rated coverage’s of ground based Nav Aids?

A

The following ranges are quoted for planning purposes. Actual ranges obtained may sometimes be less than these due to facility and site variations (see ERSA). The localizer ranges are for those installations that have been nominated for position fixing at ranges beyond 25NM:

a. NDB (published in ERSA);
b. VOR and DME:

Aircraft Altitude (FT)	        Range (NM)
Below 5,000			    60	

5,000 to below 10,000 	    90
10,000 to below15,000 	   120
15,000 to below 20,000     	   150
20,000 and above		   180
c.	Localizer:
Aircraft Altitude (FT)	       Range (NM)
At 2,000 AGL within 		
±10° of course line		    25
Below 5,000 			    30
5,000 and above		    50

AIP GEN 1.5 (2.2)

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39
Q

How long does an Instrument rating remain current?

A

An Instrument rating remains in force for the period of 1 year from the last day of the month in which the rating was issued or renewed

CAO 40.2.1 (5.1)

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40
Q

What are the Visual Flight Rules?

A

VFR may only be conducted:

a. In VMC,
b. Provided that, when operating at or below 2000feet above ground or water, the pilot is able to navigate by visual reference to ground or water,
c. Sub-sonic speeds,
d. In accordance with speed restrictions (ENR 1.1 – 80) - 250 knots below 10,000 feet

AIP ENR 1.2 (1.1)

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41
Q

What is the lowest possible LSALT where high terrain or obstacles in the tolerance area is not above 500 feet?

A

1500 feet

AIP GEN 3.3 (4.5 c)

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42
Q

How long is an area QNH valid for and how long is an actual QNH valid for?

A

Area QNH is a forecast value, which is valid for a period of 3 hours – Actual QNH is valid for 15 minutes from the time of receipt & must be from an approved source

AIP ENR 1.7 (2.2.1), AIP ENR 1.5 (5.3.2)

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43
Q

When may an aircraft commence an approach without entering the holding pattern?

A

The reversal procedure must be entered from a track within ± 30° of the outbound track of the reversal procedure

AIP ENR 1.5 (2.7.3)

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44
Q

Can you use the forecast Area QNH for an Instrument Approach?

A

Yes - However the minima must be increased by 50 feet.

AIP ENR 1.5 (5.3.3)

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45
Q

What consideration must be made in regards with the forecast to conduct Charter under the VFR at night, in relation to obstacle clearance?

A

The forecast must indicate that the flight can be conducted in VMC, not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 10 nm either side of track

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.24)

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46
Q

What are the Alternate requirements when operating under Helicopter VMC?

A

When operating a helicopter under VFR & Helicopter VMC is permissible at the destination, the pilot must provide for a suitable alternate when forecast conditions at the destination are:

a. Cloud more than SCT (4/8) below a ceiling of 1000 feet or
b. Vis – less than 3000m

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.2)

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47
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance required (Gradient) during a missed approach?

A

Missed Approach path is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 100 feet along the missed approach path – 2.5 % gradient or 152 feet per nm * If gradient can not be achieved MDA should be increased or other actions taken to achieve the required obstacle clearance

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10 Note 2)

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48
Q

What are the tracking tolerances and when must you advise ATC that you are off-track inside controlled airspace?

A

The Pilot must immediately notify ATC if the aircraft is found to be off-track by any of the deviations described below:
Where track guidance is provided by a Localiser or VOR, ½ scale deflection or more of the CDI
Where track guidance is provided by a NDB, ± 5° or more from the specified bearing
Where track guidance is provided by a DME, ± 2nm or more from the required Arc
Where track guidance is provided by a RNAV system, an indicated cross track deviation of ±2nm or more; and
When navigating by visual reference to ground or water, more than 1nm from the cleared track

AIP ENR 1.1 (19.6.2)

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49
Q

How are cloud bases determined for TAF’s / TTF’s?

A

In Aerodrome & Trend type forecasts, cloud heights are given above aerodrome elevation. In other forecasts heights are expressed:

a. As a flight level; or
b. With reference to mean sea level

AIP GEN 3.5 (3.7.1)

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50
Q

How do you execute a missed approach while visually circling & then loosing visual reference?

A

Initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and overhead the aerodrome establish the aircraft on the missed approach path

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.3)

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51
Q

Describe three types of reversal procedures & what they are used for?

A

Reversal Procedures are used to reverse direction onto an inbound track – Procedure Turns:
45°/180° - Timing from facility, 45° turn away for 1 minute (CAT1) followed by a 180° turn in the opposite direction
80°/260° - Timing from facility, 80° turn away followed by a 260° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track
Base Turns – Specific outbound track to intercept inbound track

AIP ENR 1.5 (2.7.2)

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52
Q

Should allowances be made for wind while holding?

A

Wind allowances should be made in heading & timing for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before passing the holding fix inbound. Full use should be made of indications available from the aid & estimated or known winds

AIP ENR 1.5 (3.2.1e)

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53
Q

Should pilots make allowances for wind with approach procedures?

A

All procedures depict tracks & pilots should attempt to maintain the track by applying corrections to heading for known or estimated winds

DAP 1-1 (1.8)

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54
Q

What are the requirements for flights under the IFR?

A

An aircraft operating under the IFR must be navigated by:

a. A full time licensed flight navigator, or
b. An approved self contained NAV system or approved long range radio NAV system; or
c. Use of a radio navigation system or systems on routes where, 
after making allowance for possible tracking errors of ±9 from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used to fix the position of the aircraft. The maximum time interval between positive fixes must not exceed two (2) hours; or
d. Visual reference to the ground or water by day, on route segments where suitable en route radio navigation aids are not available, provided that weather conditions permit flight in VMC and the visual position fixing requirements of Para ENR 1.1 (19.2.1b) are able to be met.

Note: Self-contained or long range navigation systems may only be used as the sole means of navigation if the system installed in the aircraft has been approved by the CASA and the pilot in command operates the system in accordance with the terms of this approval.

ENR 1.1 (19.2.1b) reads:
When navigating by visual reference to the ground or water, the pilot in command must positively fix the aircraft’s position by visual reference to features shown on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes. When flying over the sea, visual reference features may include rocks and reefs and fixed man-made objects which are marked on suitable charts and are readily identifiable from the air.

AIP ENR 1.1 (19.1)

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55
Q

When must a pilot plan for an alternate aerodrome due to weather?

A

A pilot in command must make provision for flight to an alternate aerodrome, when required in accordance with:
a. When an aerodrome Forecast is not available or is “Provisional”
Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the fore- cast commencement of, the following weather conditions:
b. Cloud - more than SCT below alternate minima
c. Visibility - below alternate minima
d. Visibility with % probability of fog, smoke, dust or mist etc
e. Wind exceeds cross/downwind limits of aircraft
f. ETA within 30 minutes of INTER / TEMPO which is below the alternate minima’s or indicates thunderstorms, however if extra fuel is carried 30 / 60 minutes – no alternate is required

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.1 – 58.2.6)A pilot in command must make provision for flight to an alternate aerodrome, when required in accordance with:
a. When an aerodrome Forecast is not available or is “Provisional”
Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the fore- cast commencement of, the following weather conditions:
b. Cloud - more than SCT below alternate minima
c. Visibility - below alternate minima
d. Visibility with % probability of fog, smoke, dust or mist etc
e. Wind exceeds cross/downwind limits of aircraft
f. ETA within 30 minutes of INTER / TEMPO which is below the alternate minima’s or indicates thunderstorms, however if extra fuel is carried 30 / 60 minutes – no alternate is required

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.1 – 58.2.6)

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56
Q

What are the requirements & restrictions that Apply to the conduct of a GPS arrival?

A

a. The Database card must be current and of a kind endorsed by manufacturer
b. The coordinates for the NDB / VOR cannot be modified by the crew or operator
c. GPS integrity (RAIM) is available before descent below MSA/LSALT
d. The nominated azimuth aid (VOR or NDB) must be used for track guidance
e. In the event of significant disparity between NDB / VOR track, and GPS track indication, the pilot must discontinue the arrival procedure
Note: significant disparity NDB >6.9° VOR > 5.2°
f. If at any time during the approach, there is cause to doubt the validity of the GPS information (eg. RAIM warning) or if the GPS integrity is lost (eg. RAIM not available), the pilot must conduct a missed approach

AIP ENR 1.5 (11.2.2)

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57
Q

During an instrument approach when can a visual approach be commenced?

A

BY DAY – within 30 nm of aerodrome, not below LSALT/ MSA for route segment, the appropriate DME/GPS arrival procedure or MDA for procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:

a. Clear of cloud;
b. In sight of ground or water;
c. With a flight visibility not less than 5000m or, in the case of a helicopter, is able to proceed under Heli-VMC, or the aerodrome in sight; and
d. Subsequently can maintain and at an altitude not less than minimum prescribed for VFR flight (CAR157) or Heli VMC to the HLS

BY NIGHT – At an altitude not below LSALT/MSA for route segment, the appropriate steps of the DME/GPS arrival procedure or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:

a. Clear of cloud,
b. In sight of ground or water,
c. With a flight visibility not less than 5000m, and
d. Within the circling area,
e. Within 5nm (7nm for a runway equipped with an ILS) of that aerodrome aligned with runway centerline & established not below ’On slope’ of the T-VASIS or PAPI or
f. Within 10nm of that aerodrome, established not below the ILS guide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection. Sydney has other requirements

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.14)

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58
Q

Can an IFR Flight at night with a MTOW <5,700kgs be planned to an aerodrome with no instrument approach procedure?

A

Yes, subject to the following:

a. Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to an alternate aerodrome meeting all the requirements in ENR 1.1 (58)
b. The aircraft must be able to be navigated to the destination and then, if necessary to the alternate aerodrome in accordance with navigational requirements
c. Descent & maneuvering below LSALT only within 3 nm of aerodrome (positive fix) with aerodrome lighting identified
d. The pilot is responsible foe ensuring they are familiar with terrain in circling area & maintains required obstacle clearance for aircraft category
e. Aerodrome must meet lighting requirements as per ENR 1.174.1 Suitability of aerodrome

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.4.2)

59
Q

From when does a CVR have to be operational in an aircraft that is required to have one installed?

A

A CVR shall be operated continuously from the start of the check list before engine starting until completion of the final check list

CAO 20.18 (6.4)

60
Q

Can an aircraft operating under IFR by night with a MTOW > 5,700kgs be planned to a destination without an instrument approach procedure?

A

No – An aircraft >5700KG may only be planned to a destination with an approved instrument approach procedure for which the aircraft appropriately equipped and the pilot is qualified
HOWEVER: It is OK to plan flight to destination if the aid(s) have failed provided:
a. Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to a suitable alternate
b. The aircraft is navigated to the destination and then if necessary, to an alternate in accordance with IFR navigation requirements (ENR 1.1 19.1)
c. Descent below LSALT / MSA must be in accordance with the requirements for visual approaches by night (ENR 1.5 1.14)

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.5.2)

61
Q

What is the landing minimum for an aerodrome without an approved instrument approach procedure for an IFR flight?

A

IFR by Day – Visual Approach Requirements
IFR at night – VMC from LSALT within 3nm (Only aircraft not above 5,700kgs MTOW)

AIP ENR 1.5 (4.7.1)

62
Q

IFR Altimeters should read to within how many feet of nominated altitude?

A

With an accurate QNH set, the altimeter(s) should read the nominated elevation to within 60 feet. If an altimeter has an error in excess of ± 75 feet it must be considered unserviceable.
When two altimeters are required for the flight, one altimeter must read the nominated elevation to within 60 feet. Remaining altimeter has error between 60 – 75 feet – IFR flight approved to first point of landing where altimeter can be-checked & if 2nd check indicates error ± 60 feet → altimeter is unserviceable Altimeters can be checked at two different locations on an airfield

AIP ENR 1.7 (1.2.2)

63
Q

List and describe the sector entries for an instrument approach

A

Sector 1 – Parallel Entry – after fix turn on outbound heading to track parallel with the inbound track before turning onto the holding side to intercept the inbound track to the fix
Sector 2 – Offset Entry – after the fix turn onto a heading to make good a track making an angle of 30 ° from the reciprocal inbound track on the holding side before turning in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound track to the fix
Sector 3 – Direct Entry – after the fix turn the aircraft to follow the holding pattern

AIP ENR 1.5 (3.3.2)

64
Q

What must follow a report given by an IFR aircraft to ‘Flightwatch’?

A

An appropriate broadcast on CTAF or Area VHF

AIP ENR 1.1 (21.1.6)

65
Q

When must a missed approach be executed (Standard Procedure)?

A

A missed approach must be executed if:

a. During the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigational tolerances for the aid in use; or
b. During Instrument Approach, and below MSA, the performance of the aid fails or becomes suspect; or
c. Visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA / RH from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
d. A landing cannot be affected from the runway approach unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal or better than circling minima; or
e. Visual reference is lost while circling

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.1)

66
Q

When must a pilot plan for an alternate aerodrome due to lighting requirements?

A

A pilot must plan for an alternate unless:
a. PAL + Responsible Person + Standby Power→ no alternate req.
b. Electric Lighting + Responsible Person + Portable Lighting→ no alternate req.
c. Electric Lighting + Standby Power + Responsible Person→ no alternate req.
d. Portable Lighting + Responsible Person→ no alternate req.
If alternate has PAL a responsible person is not required as long as the aircraft is fitted with dual VHF or one VHF & one HF with 30 minutes of holding fuel
* A responsible person is one who has been instructed in& is competent to display the standard runway lighting with portable lights

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.4)

67
Q

What are the reporting requirements of an IFR flight enroute?

A

The position reporting points for a route should be separated by a distance of approximately. 200nm or 30 minutes, whichever is least

AIP ENR 1.1 (20.7)

68
Q

What are the communication requirements for an IFR flight, when a listening watch can no longer be maintained with ATS due to the requirements to communicate with a non-towered aerodrome?

A

Reports of “CHANGING TO (location) CTAF (frequency)” are required by pilots of IFR flights when inbound to a non-towered aerodrome when the ATC frequency will not, or cannot, be monitored.

AIP ENR 1.1 (21.1.7)

69
Q

How long before any changes in level are made, must a pilot of an IFR flight OCTA notify ATC of their intentions?

A

In airspace where ATC approval is not required to change level, the pilot of an IFR flight must report present position & intentions to ATC approximately One (1) minute prior to making any change

AIP ENR 1.7 (2.1)

70
Q

What period of validity must the aerodrome forecast have for a pilot to plan a flight too?

A

A pilot in command must ensure that the forecasts cover the period 
of the flight and that the aerodrome forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodromes, to be nominated in the flight plan, are valid for a period of not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA.

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.2.5)

71
Q

Can a flight depart without the required weather forecast?

A

A forecast must be either a flight forecast or an area forecast with an aerodrome forecast for the destination & alternate aerodrome if required.
Flight can depart without forecast provided the pilot is satisfied of a safe return to the departure point within 1 hour – The flight can continue if forecast for destination is obtained within 30 minutes after departure.
Flights where forecasts cannot be obtained or are ‘Provisional’ may depart provided they carry an alternate and the alternate meets all requirements.

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.2.1), (1.2.2), (1.2.3)

72
Q

What is the meaning of a shaded background in the minima title box of an instrument approach chart?

A

The shading means minima’s have been calculated assuming forecast terminal QNH, however if actual QNH is obtained by an approved source the minima may be reduced by 100 feet. Approved sources: ATC, ATIS, AWIS & CASA approved meteorological observer (Not METAR) Actual QNH is valid for 15 minutes from receipt

AIP ENR 1.5 (5.3.2)

73
Q

What are the tracking requirements for a visual approach?

A

A pilot in command must maintain track/heading on the route progressively authorised by ATC until:
a. By day- Within 5NM of the aerodrome; or
b. By night- For an IFR flight, within the prescribed circling area; or
For a VFR flight, within 3NM of the aerodrome, and the aerodrome is in sight.
From this position the circuit must be joined as directed by ATC for an approach to the nominated runway.

AIP ENR 1.1 (12.8.4)

74
Q

What are the alternate minima’s for IFR flights?

A

For IFR flights, the alternate minima are as follows:

a. For aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima published on the chart.
b. For aerodromes with an instrument approach procedure where 
an aerodrome forecast is unavailable or is “provisional”, the 
pilot in command must make provision for a suitable alternate.
c. For aerodromes without an instrument approach procedure, the alternate minima is the lowest safe altitude for the final route segment plus 500FT and a visibility of 8KM.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.12)

75
Q

What period of time, must a pilot ensure the runway lighting, which is not pilot activated is operating?

A

When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used, the pilot in command or operator must ensure that arrangements have been made for the lighting to be operating during the following periods:
a. Departure: from at least 10 minutes before ETD to at least 30 minutes after takeoff;
b. Arrival: from at least 30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed.
The above shall apply to runway, obstacle and taxiway lighting.

AIP ENR 1.1 (59.4.1)

76
Q

What is a METAR & what is a SPECI?

A

METER - Routine Reports are issued at fixed times, hourly or half hourly, and are made available at preflight briefing or on request to aircraft in flight.
SPECI - Special Reports are aerodrome weather reports issued whenever weather conditions fluctuate about or are below specified criteria.

AIP GEN 3.5 (4.2), (4.3)

77
Q

Define the term ‘CAVOK’.

A

CAVOK is included in the report (from staffed stations only) or forecast when the following conditions are observed, or forecast to occur, simultaneously:
a. Visibility of 10KM or more;
b. Nil significant cloud, i.e.no cloud below 5,000 FT or below the highest 25NM minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, and no cumulonimbus or towering cumulus at any height; and
c. Nil significant weather.
When the term CAVOK is given, the elements visibility, weather 
and cloud will not be given.

AIP GEN 3.5 (12.13.1)

78
Q

What can be considered an accurate QNH or site elevation, with reference to altimeter checks?

A

A QNH can be considered accurate if it is provided by ATIS, Tower or an automatic remote-reporting aerodrome sensor. Area or forecast QNH must not be used for the test.

Site elevation must be derived from aerodrome survey data published by Airservices or supplied by the aerodrome owner.

AIP ENR 1.7 (1.4.1), (1.4.2)

79
Q

Can the holder of an instrument rating use a DME without a qualification on that instrument?

A

Despite Regulation (CAO 40.2.1 13.3.4) NAV aid needs to be endorsed in the logbook – The holder of an instrument rating may use a DME to: - determine position & - in conjunction with other NAV aids to conduct an instrument approach, other than a DME arrival procedure

CAO 40.2.1 (13.4)

80
Q

When must a VFR at night flight provide an Alternate aerodrome?

A

A flight permitted to operate under the VFR at night must provide an alternate aerodrome within one (1) hour flight time of the destination unless:


a. The destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) 
and the aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, or
b. The aircraft is fitted with an approved GNSS receiver, and the pilot and aircraft meet the requirements of GEN 1.5 Section 8.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.3.3)

81
Q

What are the requirements for CIR in terms of recentcy and expired periods?

A

CIR Holder – no instrument approach unless proceeding 15 months proficiency on NAV aids demonstrated to a CASA testing officer or approved person. – If instrument rating has expired for less than 12 months→ pass renewal instrument rating test If instrument rating has expired for over 12 months→ pass test applicable to initial issue of instrument rating

CAO 40.2.1 (11.6), (12.2), (12.3)

82
Q

What is meant when ATC uses the phrase ‘Standard Rate’ in a clearance?

A

ATC may specify a rate of climb or descent. Other considerations are as follows:

a. The phrase “STANDARD RATE”, when included in a clearance, specifies a rate of climb or descent of not less than 500FT per minute, except that the last 1,000FT to an assigned level must be made at 500FT per minute.
b. In the case of a step-climb or descent, the specified rate will be applicable to all level clearances issued in the course of the step climb or descent. If unable to comply with the prescribed rate, the pilot in command must advise ATC.

AIP ENR 1.7 (4.1.9)

83
Q

When must a pilot notify ATS of any intensions to change course or level, or an error in a previously notified position report ETA?

A

The pilot in command of an IFR flight must notify the intentions to amend route, deviate from track or change level in sufficient time for ATS to advise traffic. When a position estimate changes by more than two (2) minutes the pilot must advise ATS

AIP ENR 1.1 (44.2)

84
Q

What needs to be included in an IFR Taxi & Departure report OCTA? – give example

A

Taxiing reports for IFR flights must include the following information:

a. Aircraft type;
b. POB (for IFR flights other than RPT);
c. IFR;
d. Location;
e. Destination or departure quadrant or intentions; and
f. Runway to be used

Departure report must include the following information: 


a. Time;
b. Outbound track in degrees magnetic;
c. Intended cruising level; and
d. The estimate for the first en route reporting point.

TAXIING CALL: Melbourne Centre, Helicopter ZFD, EC225, POB12, IFR, Taxing Barrow Island for the Attwood Eagle, runway 21”
DEPARTURE Call: Melbourne Centre, ZFD, departed Barrow Island at :54, tracking 350°, on climb to four thousand, estimating Attwood Eagle at :30 ”

AIP ENR 1.1 (42.2), (43.3)

85
Q

What is considered a positive fix?

A

A positive radio fix is one determined by the passage of the aircraft over:

a. A NDB;or
b. A VOR station; or
c. A DME;or
d. Is one determined by GNSS meeting the equipment and pilot 
requirements of GEN 1.5 Section 8.; or
e. Is one determined by the intersection of two or more position 
lines which intersect with angles of not less than 45 and which are obtained from NDBs, VORs, localisers or DMEs in any combination.

AIP ENR 1.1 (19.5.1)

86
Q

What is the obstacle clearance altitude- OCA?

A

Obstacle clearance altitude is:

a. In a precision approach procedure, the lowest altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
b. In a non-precision runway approach procedure, the lowest altitude below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria; or
c. In a visual (circling) procedure, the lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation in accordance with obstacle clearance criteria.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.17.1)

87
Q

What information must a pilot study before submitting an IFR flight plan?

A

Before beginning a flight, a pilot in command must study all avail- able information appropriate to the intended operation and, in the cases of flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome, flights over water (see ENR 1.1 Section 62.) and all IFR flights, must make a careful study of:
a. Current weather reports and forecasts for the route to be flown and the aerodromes to be used;
b. The airways facilities available on the route to be flown and the condition of those facilities;
c. The condition of aerodromes to be used and their suitability for the aircraft to be used;
d. The Air Traffic Control rules and procedures appertaining to the particular flight; and
e. All Head Office and FIR NOTAM applicable to the en route phase of flight, and location-specific NOTAM for aerodromes.
The pilot must then plan the flight in relation to the information obtained.

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.1)

88
Q

In relation to forecasts what happens if a flight is delayed?

A

When a flight is delayed so that the meteorological and operational information does not cover the period of flight, updates must be obtained as necessary, to allow the flight to be concluded safely.

AIP ENR 1.10 (1.2.6)

89
Q

What are the visibility minima requirements for ILS CAT 1 approaches?

A

Published ILS CAT I DA and visibility minima may be used, except that:

a. Minimum visibility1.5KM is required when precision approach 
CAT I lighting system (also known as HIAL) is not available; 
and
b. Minimum visibility 1.2KM is required unless:
1. The aircraft is manually flown at least to the CAT I DA using a flight director or approved HUDLS; or the aircraft is flown to the CAT I DA with an autopilot coupled (LOC and GP); and
2. The aircraft is equipped with a serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems; and
3. High intensity runway edge lighting is available.
c. Minimum visibility 0.8KM is required if instrumented RVR in- 
formation in the threshold zone is not available.

AIP ENR 1.5 (4.7.3)

90
Q

What are the CAT A handling speeds?

A

Initial Approach 90 – 150 knots
Final Approach 70 – 100 knots
Visual Circling Max 100 knots
Missed Approach Max 110 knots

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.15.1) Table 1.1

91
Q

What are the requirements & ATC services when operating in Class E airspace?

A

In Class E airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are provided with an air traffic control service, are separated from other IFR flights, and receive traffic information on VFR flights as far as is practicable. VFR flights receive a Surveillance Information Service (SIS) on request.

AIP ENR 1.4 (2.1.4)

92
Q

When conditions deteriorate temporarily i.e. INTER / TEMPO, when is an alternate not required?

A

When weather conditions at the destination are forecast to be above alternate minima’s, but additionally, intermittent or temporary deteriorate in the weather below the values are forecast, provision of an alternate need not be made if sufficient additional fuel is carried to allow the aircraft to hold for:

a. 30 minutes for intermittent deterioration (INTER); and
b. 60 minutes for temporary deterioration (TEMPO).

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.4)

93
Q

Can an aircraft operating IFR by day be planned to a destination not served by a radio navigation aid without providing a suitable alternate?

A

A flight may be planned under the IFR by day to a destination aerodrome which is not served by a radio navigation aid without the requirement to provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, provided that:
a. Not more than SCT cloud is forecast below the final route segment LSALT plus 500FT and forecast visibility at the destination aerodrome is not less than 8KM;

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.3.2)

94
Q

The holding pattern may be shortened but can it be increased?

A

The pilot may shorten the holding pattern to leave the holding fix at a specified time. For prolonged holding at a level not limited by obstacles, the length of the pattern may be increased, subject to ATC approval where appropriate

AIP ENR 1.5 (3.6.1)

95
Q

What are the recent experience requirements for a pilot with a CIR on an IFR flight?

A

Within the proceeding 90 days:

a. 3 hours instrument time with a minimum of 1 hour in the aircraft or approved SIM OR
b. 1 hour dual instruction on A/C or approved SIM OR
c. 1 hour ICUS on A/C or approved SIM OR
d. Passed instrument rating test on the category of aircraft or in an approved SIM

Approaches: NDB, VOR, DME/GPS Arrival, GPS NPA – all 90 days in aircraft or SIM,
ILS or LLZ – 35 days in A/C or approved SIM

CAO 40.2.1 (11.2a-d), (11.3), (11.4)

96
Q

What is the meaning of a double asterisk in conjunction with aerodrome minima?

A

Special alternate weather minima is identified by a double asterisk on the instrument approach chart special alternate minima for specified approach at some aerodromes for aircraft equipped with: Dual ILS / VOR capabilities with duplicated LLZ, G/P Marker & VOR receivers*** One marker & one DME is OK If NDB locator is used – Dual ADF’s special alternate minima’s will not be available if local SPECI / METAR services not available or aerodrome control services

AIP ENR 1.5 (6.2.2)

97
Q

What are the take off minima’s for IFR helicopters?

A

The minima for a qualifying multi-engine helicopter are:

a. Clear of cloud:
1. For helicopters operating in PC1 - until attaining the 
greater of Vyse or Vmin IMC; or
2. For helicopters operating in PC2 - until attaining the 
greater of Vyse or Vmin IMC, and passing the defined 
point after takeoff; and
b. Visibility of:
i. 800M; or
ii. 550M, but only if the relevant runway or helicopter landing site has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60M, and
centreline lighting or centreline markings.

The minima for all other helicopter are: 


a. A ceiling of 500FT; and 

b. Visibility of 800M.

AIP ENR 1.5 (4.5.2)

98
Q

During visual circling when can you descend below MDA?

A

a. A/C is maintained within circling area (Category)
b. Visibility along intended flight path maintained (not less than chart minima)
c. Visual contact with runway environment (Landing runway)
d. By night or day while complying with a, b & c intercept (at a height not less than MDA) position down- wind, base or final & from this position a continuous descent can be completed (Normal for A/C type), maintaining obstacle clearance (Category) until aligned with the landing runway OR
e. DAYLIGHT only, maintains visual contact with obstacles along flight path with required category obstacle clearance until aligned with the runway and complying with a, b & c.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.3)

99
Q

What is the definition of Night?

A

‘Night’ is that period between the end of evening civil twilight & the beginning of morning civil twilight

AIP GEN 2.7 (1.1)

100
Q

What are ATC responsibilities regarding limits of clearances given in CTA?

A

ATC is responsible for issuing clearances that will enable an aircraft to remain within controlled airspace if the pilot has planned to do so. if the pilot is in doubt that the clearance will keep the aircraft in controlled airspace ATC should be advised and an alternative clearance may be requested

AIP ENR 1.1 (3.11)

101
Q

What are the alternate minima’s for aerodromes without an instrument approach for an IFR flight?

A

For aerodromes without an instrument approach the alternative minima is the LSALT for the final route segment plus 500 feet and a visibility of 8 kilometers.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.12c)

102
Q

What are the VMC conditions for helicopters in class C, D, E and G airspace below 10,000 feet?

A

In Class C – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 1500m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical
In Class D – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 600m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical above cloud or 500ft vertically below cloud
In Class E – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 1500m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical
In Class G – 5000m Vis, Cloud Separation 1500m Horizontal and 1000ft Vertical
In Class G, at or below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL – 5000 Vis, Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water

AIP ENR 1.2 (2.2)

103
Q

How do you calculate LSALT within a tolerance area?

A

The LSALT must be calculated using the following method:

a. Where the highest obstacle is more than 360FT above the height determined for terrain, the LSALT must be 1,000FT 
above the highest obstacle; or
b. Where the highest obstacle is less than 360FT above the 
terrain, or there is no charted obstacle, the LSALT must be 1,360FT above the elevation determined for terrain; except that
c. Where the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the tolerance area is not above 500FT, the LSALT must not be less than 1,500FT.

AIP GEN 3.3 (4.5)

104
Q

What equipment must be installed & serviceable for a multi-engine helicopter with a MTOW of above 5,700kgs to operate IFR?

A

a. 2 ASI (1 to prevent icing),
b. 2 Altimeters,
c. 2 instantaneous VSI,
d. 2 slip indicators,
e. 2 AI + standby AI with alternate power source,
f. 1 compass,
g. 1 OAT,
h. 1 Heading Indicator,
i. 1 accurate timepiece + other instruments specified in the flight manual.
j. Lighting - Pax & cockpit lights, landing light x 2 or 1 with 2 filaments, position & anti-coll lights, torches, instrument lights with alternate power source & dimming
k. Approved automatic pilot (unless 2 crew operations)
l. Windshield clear vision equipment
m. Flight data + cockpit voice recorder (>5,7 t, turbine & post 1965)
n. Assigned attitude indicator
o. Aircraft radar equipment (crew 2 + pilots)
p. Overwater – floats, life rafts (100nm or 30mins) lifejackets to be worn
q. Radio & NAV requirements

CAO 20.18 Appendix VII

105
Q

Can a pilot with a command instrument rating (CIR) plan a NVFR flight?

A

Yes, provided he/she meets recent experience requirements which are:
Aeronautical experience – 10 hours X-country using NVFR procedures including 2 NAV exercises (300nm+ or 3 hours +) Each exercise shall exceed 100 nm from the departure point & include I landing in an area remote from extensive ground lighting
Recent Experience – proceeding 90 days 3 take offs, 3Landings + 1 X-country flight at least 1 hour or 100nm OR Flight check at night proceeding 6 months by an approved person

CAO 40.2.1 (14.1)

106
Q

Can a pilot make a DME Arrival if he/she is not endorsed with DME on his/her instrument rating?

A

No – DME Arrival procedure must be entered into the pilot’s logbook DME / GPS Arrival does not have to be renewed & remains in effect while a person continues to hold an instrument rating

CAO 40.2.1 (6.5), (13.3.4), (APP1-4.2)

107
Q

Can an IFR CHTR aircraft depart OCTA without contacting ATS?

A

The pilot of an IFR aircraft operating from a non-towered aerodrome must attempt to contact ATS on VHF or HF when taxiing. If the pilot is unable to establish contact, the flight may proceed on a broadcast basis provided contact is established as soon as possible after takeoff, and

a. In the case of an RPT, CHTR or AWK flight, the pilot is assured of radio contact with his or her operator, or a representative of his or her operator who has immediate access to a serviceable telephone, until contact is made with ATS, or
b. For flights other than RPT, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 minutes from ETD.

AIP ENR 1.1 (40.1)

108
Q

What are the main differences between TTF’s & TAF’s?

A
Aerodrome forecasts (TAF) are a statement of meteorological conditions expected for a specified period in the airspace within a radius of five (5) nautical miles of the aerodrome reference point. 
TTF is defined as an aerodrome weather report (METAR/SPECI) to which a statement of trend is appended. The TTF relates to weather conditions expected to affect the aerodrome of origin for the validity period of the forecast. The validity period is normally three hours, commencing at the time of observation. 
The TTF supersedes the TAF for its validity period and is the current forecast for pilots of aircraft whose arrival time falls within the validity period. 

AIP GEN 3 5 (3.3.1)

109
Q

What are the alternate minima’s for VFR Flights?

A

For flight by aeroplanes under the VFR (day or night) and helicopters operating under the VFR at night, the alternate minima are more than SCT below a ceiling of 1,500FT and a visibility of 8KM.
For VFR helicopter operations by day, the alternate minima are more than SCT below a ceiling of 1,000FT and a visibility of 3KM.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.13), (58.2.2)

110
Q

What must a pilot report on first contact with Departure Control, when ATS Surveillance service is provided?

A

In Class C control zones (where an ATS surveillance service is provided), on first contact with departures control, a pilot must report:
a. The direction of turn; 

b. The initial heading;
c. The altitude passing, to nearest 100FT; and

d. The last assigned level.
However, an aircraft tracking via a SID which does not incorporate initial heading instructions is only required to advise altitude passing and confirm assigned level.

AIP ENR 1.1 (8.1)

111
Q

What procedure must a pilot follow if a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point?

A

In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPT, pilots must fly the aircraft to the MAPT and then follow the missed approach procedure.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.10.2)

112
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance & circling area required for CAT A aircraft?

A

Minimum obstacle clearance for CAT A is – 300 feet. And the circling area is determined by drawing an arc centred on the threshold of each usable runway and joining these arcs by tangents. For CAT A, radii = 1.68 nm

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.3 Note 2, 3)

113
Q

What happens to the landing visibility minima, if a runway is equipped with HIAL, but it is not available?

A

If the installed HIAL on a runway is not available, the landing visibility minima for a Localiser (LOC) approach must be increased by 900M.

114
Q

What obstacle clearance does MSA provide?

A

25NM and 10NM MSAs provide 1,000FT obstacle clearance. An aircraft within 25NM or 10NM of the facility may use the applicable MSA, and deviation from the track being flown is permitted to facilitate entry to the instrument approach. In instances where the 25NM MSA has been divided into sectors, and the appropriate Sector MSA is lower than the 10NM MSA, the Sector MSA may be used for tracking to the aid provided aircraft tracking can be maintained within the sector.

AIP ENR 1.5 (2.2.1)

115
Q

When must a pilot plan for an alternate aerodrome due to navigation aid requirements?

A

A flight which is planned to be conducted under the IFR on the last 
route segment to its destination must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, unless:

a. For Regular Public Transport and Charter operations:
1. The destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been pre- scribed and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio navigation systems, each of which is capable of using the aid; or
2. The destination is served by two radio navigation aids for which independent and separate instrument approach procedures have been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio navigation systems capable of using these aids;
b. For Aerial Work and Private operations:
the destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an instrument approach procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with the radio navigation system capable of using the aid.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.3.1)

116
Q

What does ‘No Circling’ on an approach Plate mean?

A

Where a prominent obstacle or obstacles within the circling 
area prevent visual circling the sector in which the obstacles are located may be eliminated from the visual circling area. Sectors which have been eliminated from the visual circling area are annotated ‘No Circling’.
Visual circling is prohibited in ‘no circling’ sectors by day in less than VMC and at night.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.2)

117
Q

When can an aircraft land or continue an Approach below the approved DA, MDA in

A

Except in an emergency, an aircraft must not land or continue an approach below the approved DA, MDA or RH,

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.6)

118
Q

Are 30 minute buffers required for a TTF?

A

Due to the continuous weather watch provided by TTF, the 30 minute buffers do not apply. Flight, which will be completed within the time of validity of the TTF, may be planned wholly with reference to the destination TTF.

AIP ENR 1.1 (58.2.9)

119
Q

To stay in CTA, how high above the lower limit of the CTA steps should you remain?

A

A pilot, desiring to retain control area protection during climb or de-scent in Class C or Class D airspace, should maintain at least 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA steps.

AIP ENR 1.1 3.12

120
Q

What are the Emergency SSR codes?

A

7700 – Emergency in flight
7600 – Loss of two-way communications
7500 – Unlawful interference

AIP ENR 1.6 (6.4.2)

121
Q

In VMC, the pilot of an IFR flight may request a visual departure. What requirements must be met for the pilot to request it & for ATC to offer it?

A

A pilot of an IFR flight may only request a visual departure when the cloud base will allow the aircraft to climb in VMC to the MSA/- LSALT applicable to the departure. Additionally, if the intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, the cloud base must permit flight in VMC at that level.

AIP ENR 1.1 (6.3.1)

122
Q

What are the general provisions of separation for all flights in CTA?

A

a. In Class A airspace, IFR flights only are permitted. All flights are 
provided with an air traffic control service and are separated from 
each other.
b. In Class C airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are 
provided with an air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR, Special VFR, and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights. Special VFR flights are separated from other Special VFR flights when visibility is less than VMC.
c. In Class D airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with an air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and Special VFR flights, and receive traffic in- formation in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic in- formation in respect of all other flights. Special VFR flights are separated from other Special VFR flights when visibility is less than VMC.
d. In Class E airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are provided with an air traffic control service, are separated from other IFR flights, and receive traffic information on VFR flights as far as is practicable. VFR flights receive a Surveillance Information Service (SIS) on request.
e. At controlled aerodromes, ATC provides runway separation to all aircraft.

AIP ENR 1.4 (2.1.2)

123
Q

When does the outbound timing commence in the holding pattern?

A

Outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading whichever comes later

AIP ENR 1.5 (3.2.1b)

124
Q

When can you descent below your LSALT?

A

An aircraft must not be flown under the IFR, lower than the published lowest safe altitude or the lowest safe altitude calculated, except

a. When being assigned levels in accordance with ATS surveillance service terrain clearance procedures; or
b. When being flown in accordance with a published DME arrival, instrument approach or holding procedure; or
c. Except when necessary during climb after departure from an aerodrome; or
d. Except during VMC by day

AIP GEN 3.3 (4.6)

125
Q

If you sit your IR renewal before its due date when does the 12 months validity period start?

A

If the renewal is completed within 90 days prior to its due date, it is valid for twelve months from its original expire date

CAO 40.2.1 (12.1a)

126
Q

When can a descent be initiated while conducting a reversal procedure, and the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility?

A

For an approach which incorporates a reversal procedure, if an outbound descent is specified, the descent to the specified altitude may be commenced after the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility and is established on the specified track or has turned to a heading to intercept the specified outbound track.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.20.2)

127
Q

The descent rate after the FAF should not exceed what?

A

Aircraft may commence a segment in excess of the specified commencement altitude provided that any upper altitude limitations are observed, however the rate of descent after the FAF should not normally exceed 1000 feet per minute

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.19.2)

128
Q

What type of instrument approaches qualifies you for other approaches?

A

A DME Arrival renews a GPS arrival & vice versa An ILS or LLZ approach renews a VOR approach

CAO 40.2.1 (11.3)

129
Q

What is the alternative to applying pressure error correction (PEC) in conjunction with precision approaches?

A

Operators may apply aircraft Pressure Error Correction (PEC) or, alternatively, add at least 50FT to the published DA. Compensation for aircraft pressure error is not required when determining Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) for non-precision approaches.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.18.2)

130
Q

What is the minimum time recommended to submit a flight plan prior to ETD?

A

Submission of flight details at least 30 minutes before ETD is recommended

AIP ENR 1.10 (2.15)

131
Q

What are the bank angle and maximum speed allowed for a SIDs?

A

Unless otherwise specified, flight parameters are as follows: 


a. Bank angle - 15 ̊ average achieved;

b. Maximum speed for turning departures - 290KT.


AIP ENR 1.5 (8.5.5)

132
Q

After take off, by when must you be established on your departure track?

A

Unless tracking via a SID or instructed by ATS, a pilot must remain within 5 nm of the departure A/D to establish flight on the departure track as soon as practicable after take off

AIP ENR 1.1 (8.3)

133
Q

When are you considered “Established” on track or on a DME arc?

A

Established means being: - within ½ of full scale deflection for the ILS, VOR & GPS, - within 5 ° of the required bearing for the NDB, - within 2 nm ± of the DME arc

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.20.2 Note)

134
Q

What bank angle are approach procedures based on?

A

Procedures are based on a bank angle of 25, or a bank angle which will produce a Rate One turn, whichever is less.
Rate one – rule of thumb: 10 % of indicated airspeed + 7

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.22)

135
Q

In CTA, how soon after receiving instructions from ATC must a pilot commence a level change?

A

The pilot in command must commence a change of level as soon as possible, but not later than one (1) minute after receiving that instruction from ATC, unless that instruction specifies a later time or place.

AIP ENR 1.7 (4.1.1)

136
Q

Which VFR flights are required to submit a SARTIME or alternative a flight note with a responsible person?

A

VFR flights in the following categories are required to submit a SARTIME flight notification to ATS, or, as an alternative, to leave a Flight Note with a responsible person:

a. RPT and CHTR flights;
b. Over-water flights;
c. Flights in Designated Remote Areas;
d. Flights at night proceeding beyond 120NM from the aerodrome of departure.

AIP ENR 1.10 (2.11)

137
Q

What must a holding pattern be entered in accordance with?

A

The entry into the holding pattern must be according to heading in relation to the three entry sectors, recognizing a zone of flexibility of 5 on either side of the sector boundaries. For holding on a VOR intersection, the entry track is limited to the radials forming the intersection. For holding on a VOR/ DME fix the entry track is limited to either the VOR radial, DME arc or alternatively along the entry radial to a VOR/DME fix at the end of the outbound leg, as published.

AIP ENR 1.5 (3.3.1)

138
Q

VFR Altimeters should read to within how many feet of nominated altitude?

A

With an accurate QNH set, a VFR altimeter(s) should read site elevation to within 100FT (110FT at test sites above 3,300FT) to be accepted as serviceable by the pilot. If an aircraft fitted with two VFR altimeters continues to fly with one altimeter reading 100FT (110FT) or more in error, the faulty altimeter must be placarded un- serviceable and the error noted in the maintenance release.

AIP ENR 1.7 (1.3.1)

139
Q

The outbound leg of the holding pattern must be no longer than what?

A

The outbound leg must be no 
longer than:
a. Up to and including FL 140 - 1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart;

AIP ENR 1.5 (3.2.1)

140
Q

What are the requirements to descend below MDA while visually circling during a NPA?

A

During visual circling, descent below the circling MDA may only occur when the pilot:

a. Maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and
b. Maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and
c. Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (ie, the runway threshold or approach lighting or other 
markings identifiable with the runway); and either
d. By night or day, while complying with a., b. and c. and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight manoeuvres which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or
e. In day light only, while complying with a, b and c, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway.

AIP ENR 1.5 (1.7.6)

141
Q

What are the initial actions for an IFR flight with a communications failure?

A

a. Squawk 7600
b. Listen to ATIS & voice modulated NAV aids
c. Transmit intentions & position with “Transmitting Blind”
d. If VMC & certain of maintaining VMC→ stay VMC & land at the most suitable aerodrome
e. If IMC or uncertain of maintaining VMC, proceed with the latest route clearance acknowledged & climb to planned level if no clearance limit was received or acknowledged - If a clearance limit was received, hold at the nominated location for 3 minutes at MSA or last assigned level (whichever is higher) & proceed as planned or last route & climb to planned level
f. If receiving ATC surveillance service climb to MSA / LSALT & if vectored maintain last vector for 2 minutes then proceed with the latest ATC route clearance
g. If in a holding pattern – complete 1 more & proceed

ERSA Emergency Procedures (Emergency. 3)

142
Q

What are the requirements for VFR on top?

A

VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud is available provided that:

a. VMC can be maintained during the entire flight, including climb, cruise and descent.
b. For VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud, visual position fixing requirements, or the other navigational requirements of sub-section 19.1 must be met.
c. Prior to conducting a VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud, the pilot in command must ensure that current forecasts and observations (including those available in- flight observations) indicate that conditions in the area of, and during the period of, the planned descent below the cloud layer will permit the descent to be conducted in VMC.
d. The position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur must be such as to enable continuation of the flight to the destination and, if required, an alternate aerodrome in VMC

AIP ENR 1.1 (19.2.1d)

143
Q

What is Special VFR & what are the Requirements?

A

By day, when VMC do not exist, the ATC unit responsible for a CTR may issue, at pilot request, a Special VFR clearance for flight in the CTR, or in a CTA next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR, provided the Special VFR flight will not unduly delay an IFR flight.
Special VFR may be requested by a pilot:
a. By day
b. When VMC does NOT exist
c. To the ATC unit responsible, for the purpose of entering or leaving a CTR or an adjoining CTA provided it does not delay an IFR flight

Pilots are responsible for ensuring that under a special VFR clearance they remain:

a. Clear of cloud
b. Visibility not less than 800 m (Helicopters)
c. Speed that give adequate opportunity to observe &avoid obstructions & traffic
d. In accordance with CAR 157 – Low Flying requirements

AIP ENR 1.2 (1.2.1)