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IFR Twin Engine > Instrument Rating > Flashcards

Instrument Rating Flashcards

1
Q

Minimums for the approach to require an alternate

A

At the time of submitting the flight plan that the forecast of 1 hour before and after the eta at the aerodrome of intended landing.

The ceiling is at least 1000ft above the lowest published minimum for the instrument procedure to be used

The visibility is at least 5km or 2km more than the published minimum in the AIP. Whichever is the greater.

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2
Q

Minimums for a nominated alternate aerodrome precision approach

A

Either a specific minimum for that aerodrome published in the alternate minima table

6,2,3,1
For a precision approach. A ceiling of 600ft or 200ft above DA/DH whichever is higher and visibility of 3km or 1km more than the published minimum whichever is greater

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3
Q

Minimums for a nominated alternate aerodrome non precision approach

A

8,2,4,1.5
A ceiling of 800ft or 200ft above MDA/MDH whichever is the higher and 4km visibility or 1500m more than the prescribed minimum whichever is the higher

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4
Q

What to do with instruments once established in a hold entry

A

Set the inbound on the OBS as well so that both G430s show the same picture to avoid confusion

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5
Q

Order of plan when carrying out TU MAP

A 
PPC 110kts
Unsuspend
Local call
After T/O Checklist
Brief the hold
Airways back to CH
Load the FPL and cut onto track
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6
Q

What instruments to use when tracking an arc

A

HDG bug, RMI and DME. Use GPS discretely to help orientate

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7
Q

How to control yaw in engine failure

A

Fuckload of rudder and up to 5deg AOB. Use HDG bug to remain on track

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8
Q

To intercept the arc what should I do

A

Use OBS to provide tracking to give time to set HSI 10deg in the direction of the arc. Anticipate by 1% GS and make a 45deg cut. At 0.3nm remaining follow CDI onto arc

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9
Q

Hold brief

A 
Where is it
Direction
Timed or limiting distance
Inbound
Outbound
MSA
Entry type
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10
Q

What to do on entry to a hold

A

Suspend FPL by pushing OBS
TTTT
Twist turn time talk

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11
Q

Approach speed

A

100kts

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12
Q

How to successfully intercept the ILS

A

Monitor the OBS to see when the CDI is active. That gives you an indication to anticipate the HSI CDI becoming active

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13
Q

MAP radio call

A

MIR missed approach

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14
Q

Flap setting and speed before FAF

A

2 stages and 100kts

This ensures no config changes on final approach which makes it easier to remain stable.
Also get ATC call completed before setup

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15
Q

MAP sequence

A

PPC 110kts radio call after T/O checklist

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16
Q

What to focus on for VOR or ILS

A

HDG, HSI, Altimeter,DME, ASI remember CUP checks prior to Stable Gate

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17
Q

Descent Procedures

A

A Trash Rash Makes Pain

ABRIEFS
TCTWO
RAIM
MIXTURES RICH
PBN CHECK
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18
Q

Approach Procedures/Before landing

Complete in hold

A 
Altimeters cross check and state QNH and altitude
Pitots as required
Nav 1 and 2 on GPS or VLOC
BUMPFHR
(Brakes, U/C, then work down flow.
Fuel tank to engine
Fuel pumps Mixture rich
Powers set
Hatches Harnesses
Radio Call if required
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19
Q

ABRIEFS TCTWO

A 
ATIS
BRIEF ARRIVAL AND APPROACH AND MAP
RADIO FREQUENCIES SET AND NAVAIDS TUNED IDENTIFIED AND SET
INSTRUMENTS HSI, OBS, ALTIMETERS SET
ENGINE MIXTURES, POWERS, TS PS
FUEL TANK TO ENGINE, QUANTITY
SECURITY
THREATS SIGNIFICANT
CHARTS BRIEFED CARRIED
TERRAIN RADAR, MSA, ADVISORIES, GLIDESLOPE
WEATHER SIGNIFICANT
OPERATIONAL NOTAMS
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20
Q

CUP

A

Cowls not applicable
Gear fixed
Prop full fine

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21
Q

Cruise procedures

A 
TOD state
Compass and QNH
Log update fuel and etas
Engine Ts Ps Mixture
Alternate Airs
Alternators and Airspace controlled or uncontrolled
Icing 
Radios and NAVAIDS and GPS TUNE ID SET
Carbon monoxide
PBN check XTRK and EPU within limits
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22
Q

What approach gradient is assumed for airspace containment

A

5%

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23
Q

Do radar Sid climb gradients ensure airspace containment

A

Yes

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24
Q

What is the assumed MAP climb gradient for airspace containment

A

5%

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25
Q

What are the requirements of PBN

A

ANP + EPU within +/- half navigation accuracy of the part of the route.
Eg ENR is 2nm full deflection so PBN must be within 1nm of track for the majority of the route

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26
Q

Visual departures to intercept MSA must have what requirements

A

Must be able to achieve MNM 3.3% climb gradient or higher stated and by day only

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27
Q

ROC required formula

A

Gradient % x Groundspeed x 1.013

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28
Q

SID MNM performance unless otherwise stated

A

3.3% (200ft/nm)

Climb on centreline to 400ft above departure end of runway before commencing a turn

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29
Q

Category A max IAS for turns on a SID

A

120kts

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30
Q

What is take off minima if there’s no specified minima

A

A ceiling of at least 300ft and more than 1500m visibility

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31
Q

Holding pattern Cat A speed

A

170kts in normal and turbulent conditions at or below 14000ft

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32
Q

Holding turns AOB

A

25deg or 3deg/sec whichever is the lesser

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33
Q

Assym critical

A 
Control
Pitch blue line
Gear Flap up pitch up more to maintain blue line
Identify
Confirm
Feather
Mayday
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34
Q

Emergency brief on take off roll

A

If I have an engine failure on the ground or prior to 82kts I will keep straight close both throttles and stop

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35
Q

Engine failure brief sufficient rwy remaining

A

If I have engine failure airborne with sufficient rwy remaining I will control the yaw close both throttles positively lower the nose and land using flap as required and a mayday call if time is permitting

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36
Q

Engine failur brief with insufficient runway remaining

A

If I have an engine failure airborne with insufficient runway remaining I will maintain blue line and carry out emergency drills and advise intentions to ATC,
request RV for an approach

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37
Q

MAPt for TU20

A

480ft RWY20 Waypoint

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38
Q

MAPt for TU02

A

510ft at TU402 waypoint

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39
Q

CH MAPt 02

DA/MDA

A

DA 323ft

MDA 620ft 0DME/Flag change

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40
Q

CH20 MAPt DA/MDA

A

ILS 293ft MAPt at 0.6DME

MDA 480ft 3DME

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41
Q

Definition of MEA

A

Minimum enroute altitude is the combination of the MRA and MSA

42
Q

Definition of MRA

A

Minimum reception altitude is the minimum at which ground based NAVAIDS are available for the route

43
Q

IR rating eligibility

A 
Class 2 medical with class 1 hearing
Night flying requirements for the licence held
Law,NAVAIDS,Nav,HF,Met
10hours dual in category of aircraft
Pass flight test
44
Q

IR privileges and limitations

A

Pass flight test in applicable aircraft (single vs non Centerline twin)
Have certified competency by examiner in logbook in types of approaches used

45
Q

Currency requirements

A

Within 12mths
- Passed flight test or competency check

Last 90days unless Competency check completed in this period

  • 3hrs instrument time (one of flight time)
  • 3 published approaches (one of sim)
  • carried out type of approach to be used (sim or flight)
46
Q

Support pilot requirements

A

Cannot be carried under part135 if not current with 3 approaches and 3hours in the last 90days

47
Q

Sid standard climb gradient and what it provides

A

3.3% to 400ft above dept end of rwy before commencing turn

Radar Sid’s provide obs clearance and airspace containment

48
Q

MAP procedure is based on what climb gradients

A

OBS clearance of 98ft and 2.5% gradient beginning from the MAPt

49
Q

What to do when established on the arc

A

Report to Approach established

Set HSI to the approach inbound

50
Q

Documents to be carried

A 
Tech log
Flight manual
Airworthiness cert
W&B data sheet
Radio equipment approval levels

Appropriate AIP charts and plates
GPS unit manual if equipped

51
Q

Where to find minimum equipment list

A

All equipment under Parts 91.509, 91.511, 91.517

52
Q

How is a visual approach advised by ATC

A

Specifically or via ATIS
Day only 16km vis and ceiling of 1000ft above minimum radar vectoring altitude or instrument approach procedure commencement altitude

Night only CH 29/11 16km vis no cloud below 5000ft

53
Q

Night visual requirements

A

Night approaches can be carried out anywhere but you Must have the runway lights in sight

54
Q

Can you do visual departures and arrival at night

A

No

55
Q

DME arc terrain and obstacle clearance

A

Not less than 1000ft above terrain and obstacles within 2.5nm each side of the arc

56
Q

How to determine aircraft category

A

1.3 x Vso = Vat

Vat (IAS at threshold)
Cat A less than 91kts Vat

Eg P68c Vso is 62kt
1.3 x 62 = 80.6

57
Q

Use of remote QNH rules

A

Add 5ft to MDA for every 1nm in excess of 5nm from the QNH source

58
Q

MAP required climb gradient

A

2.5% providing 98ft obstacle clearance

59
Q

Rules for operation below DA or MDA

A

Stable (normal ROD and normal manoeuvres to achieve landing at touchdown zone)
Maintained within circling area if circling
Visibility not less than prescribed minimum for approach to be used

One of the following visible and identified by the pilot
-Approach lighting system
-threshold markings/lights
-runway end identification lights
-visual approach slope indicator
-touchdown zone/markings/lights
-the runway/markings/lights
In summary anything related to the landing area
60
Q

Do you need a ground based navaid for an alternated

A

No you just need your primary means and alternate means of navigation (PMoN AMoN).
AMoN could mean visual but unless there is no chance of cloud at all it is good airmanship to have a ground based navaid available

61
Q

If I am current on VOR what approaches can I fly

A

Any other non precision approach

62
Q

What are requirements for reduced takeoff minima

A

Runway has centreline marks/lights
Vis is confirmed by using the centreline marks/lights
AD2 allows it for the runway to be used
Obstacles in flight path taken into account
In a multi engine have a auto coarse or feather system installed and operative

63
Q

Reduced takeoff minima

A

Zero ft ceiling 800m vis

64
Q

Standard takeoff minima

A

300ft ceiling 1500m visibility

65
Q

Standard SID requirements

A

3.3% gradient from 16ft above departure end of runway
MNM 400ft above dep end of runway for turns
Max speed in turns for category A is 120kts

66
Q

Front to back of equipment underneath the partenavia

A

Transponder
DME
ADF
ADF

67
Q

Front to back of equipment on top of the partenavia

A 
GPS (above cockpit roof)
VHF comm
ELT
VHF comm
VOR/ILS
68
Q

Radio failure procedure on arrival

A

If on STAR continue STAR and begin descent to the initial approach altitude with the last acknowledged atc clearance then commence approach

If no STAR clearance then track to the destination aid or fix specified by atc or if none then track to the aid or fix for the known or forecast runway

69
Q

Radio failure on arrival radar vectors

A

Continue last vector for 2mins climbing to MSA if required then then track to the fix for an approach
If on intermediate approach (eg Base leg vector) then intercept final approach track and carry out approach

70
Q

What to do if unable to make a landing with radio failure

A

Carry out missed approach

If you can make another approach within 30mins of ETA make another approach if appropriate, consider fuel as to whether divert is possible or if you need to make an emergency landing

Track to the ground station then the reciprocal of the Inbound
Enter the hold and descend as required then carry out another approach

71
Q

Radio failure VMC and Certain of remaining VMC

A

Continue under VFR and land at a suitable aerodrome and report arrival to appropriate ATS unit

72
Q

IFR communication failure general steps

A 
Maintain Terrain clearance 
7600
Try alternate and secondary ATS frequencies 
Check aircraft comms
ATIS if possible
Transmit blind
Turn on exterior lights
Attempt phone appropriate ATS unit
If destination is in MBZ then divert to suitable aerodrome
73
Q

Enroute track terrain clearance

A

1000ft vertical obstacle clearance
2000ft vertical mountainous terrain clearance
5nm each side of track

74
Q

IFR test flight experience requirements

A 
VFR XC PIC 50hrs
Total instrument time 40hrs
- Instrument flight time 20hrs
- IFR XC 10hrs
Night 5hrs PPL 10hrs CPL
75
Q

Part 135 IFR fuel requirements

A 
Taxi 
Departure 
A-B
10% A-B
Extra hold if required 
Instrument approach B
B-C
5% B-C
Instrument approach C
Reserve of 45 mins for non turbine at holding speed 1500ft above the aerodrome
Plus any extra fuel required to proceed to an alternate
76
Q

What is a Q route and a Y route

A

Q route is 2 way

Y route is one way

77
Q

What PBN specification is required for SIDS and STARs in the NZ FIR

A

RNAV 1

78
Q

What PBN specification is required for enroute in the NZ FIR

A

RNAV 2

79
Q

What is Fault detection and exclusion

A

FD detects the presence of an unacceptably large pseudo range error for a satellite and assumes a position error for a given stage of flight

FDE then excludes the source of the bad satellite allowing navigation to resume uninterrupted however 6 satellites are required for this as you need a minimum of 5 for raim positioning

80
Q

Category A max missed approach speed

A

110kt

81
Q

Category A Vat speed

A

Less than 91kts

82
Q

Range of Category A speeds for initial approach

A

90-150kts

83
Q

Category A range of final approach speeds

A

70-100kts

84
Q

Random flight routing rules

A

Random routing allowed
Within 20nm of Mt cook at or above FL160
Any other airspace above FL150
If in controlled airspace you must have ATC authorisation
Random routing allowed under GPS PMoN below FL150 if authorised by ATC and is under continuous radar terrain monitoring from ATC

85
Q

Where to find the TSO-C146a PBN specs

A

RNAV 1 and 2 in the flight manual supplements under the Garmin 430 section on the page after the contents sheet

86
Q

Where does a Sid climb gradient begin

A

16ft above departure end of the runway

87
Q

Visual departure requirements

A

Day only
Consideration of met conditions
Visual terrain clearance to MSA or VORSEC or specified upper limit or set heading point or limiting altitude
Set heading and minimum crossing altitudes are based off 3.3% gradient unless higher stated

88
Q

Unless otherwise stated what are the SID performance requirements

A

3.3% minimum climb gradient

Climb on rwy centreline to 400ft above departure end of the runway before commencing a turn

89
Q

Requirements for visual approach in controlled airspace

A
  • Request visual approach
  • Maintain visual terrain clearance
  • Ceiling is not below approved initial approach level
  • Pilot reports on initial approach level or on approach that met conditions are suitable for a visual approach and landing can be reasonably assured
90
Q

Visual approach in uncontrolled airspace requirements

A

Maintain visual terrain clearance
Ceiling is not below initial approach level
Pilot at the initial approach level or on approach has reasonable assurance the met conditions will permit a landing to be achieved

Visual approach at night rwy lights must be visible

91
Q

IFR arrival procedures for unattended aerodromes

A

Follow standard RTF procedures for unattended aerodromes
In visibility’s down to 1500m pilot must be sure that integration with VFR traffic is assured
If traffic conflict is likely then do not descend in IMC below 1200ft AAL

92
Q

RNAV gps modes

A

Terminal and Departure RNAV 1
Enroute RNAV 2
Arrival RNAV 1

93
Q

What to do if you have a current RAIM warning and for the preceding 10mins or DR for 1min

A

You cannot use gps derived distance information you must cross check with alternate means

94
Q

Radio failure on departure with a level restriction

A

Maintain last assigned level to the points specified then climb to maintain level in the flight plan

If no point specified then maintain last assigned altitude or MFA whichever is higher for 5 mins then climb to flight plan altitude

95
Q

Missed approach minimum bank angle for turns

A

15degress

96
Q

Holding turn requirements

A

25 deg or 3 deg per second whichever is lesser

97
Q

What must I have before entering imc and continuing on FPL from TU

A

Ifr traffic info

98
Q

Where to find IFR approval

A

2x forms of 2129 and the approval letter on the page after the W&B sheet

99
Q

Conventional routes

A

H 2way

V 1way

100
Q

Rnav2 routes

A

Q 2way

Y 2way

IFR Twin Engine (1 decks)

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