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Instrument Rating > Instrument Rating > Flashcards

Instrument Rating Flashcards

1
Q

GRABCARDD

A

Generator/alternator, Radio, Altimeter, Ball, Clock, Attitude indicator, Rate of turn, Directional gyro, DME above 24k’

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2
Q

FLAPS

A

Fuses (spare set), Landing light (if for hire), Anticollision lights, Position/NAV lights, source of power (battery)

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3
Q

ATOMATOFLAMES

A

A - Altimeter
T - Tachometer for each engine.
O - Oil temperature indicator for each engine.
M - Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.
A - Airspeed indicator.
T - Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine.
O - Oil pressure gauge for each engine.
F - Fuel quantity gauge for each tank.
L - Landing gear position lights (if retractable gear).
A - Anticollision lights (for aircraft certified after March
11, 1996).
M - Magnetic compass
E - ELT, if required by §91.207.
S - Safety belt / shoulder harness.

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4
Q

When is an instrument rating required? (5)

A

In class A airspace, Operations under IFR conditions, Less than vfr conditions, Special VFR between sunrise and sunset, carrying pax for hire aver 50 nm or at night

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5
Q

PIC instrument currency requirements

A

6 approaches in 6 calendar months, holds, tracking and intercepting

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6
Q

Safety pilot requirements

A

PPL, Vision, dual controls

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7
Q

Instrument currency expired. WYD?

A

You need a safety pilot now. After 6 months, you need proficiency check.

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8
Q

Instrument rating experience requirements

A

■ 50 hours X-Country PIC time
▷ Of which ,10 hours in airplanes.
■ 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
▷ Of which, 15 hours with CFII.
□ Including one X-Country flight
□ 3 Hours instrument flight training in last 2 Calendar months prior to practical test

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9
Q

Overall flight currency requirements (4)

A

Flight review within 24 calendar months, or a proficiency check or practical test, or completion of WINGS phase, or Flight instructor Renewal

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10
Q

You can use a simulator as long as…

A

■ It is used in an approved course by a training center
under part 142
■ Represent an aircraft for which the pilot is rated

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11
Q

DECIDE model

A

■ D - Detect that a change has occurred.
■ E - Estimate the need to counter the change.
■ C - Choose a desirable outcome.
■ I - Identify solutions.
■ D - Do the necessary actions.
■ E - Evaluate the effects of the actions

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12
Q

Which tool for Risk Management?

A

PAVE

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13
Q

Which tool for decision making?

A

DECIDE

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14
Q

When must you have an alternate?

A

A destination alternate is always required, unless:
■ An instrument approach is published and
available for the destination, AND,
■ For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:
▷ Ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport
elevation; and
▷ Visibility will be at least 3 SM.

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15
Q

Minimums to list an airport as an alternate

A

The alternate airport minima published in the
procedure charts, or, if none:
■ Precision approach:
600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
■ Non-precision approach:
800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
■ No instrument approach available at the
alternate:
Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA,
approach and landing under VFR.

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16
Q

How do you flight plan with a Non WAAS GPS?

A

You can flight plan based on GPS approaches at either the destination or the alternate, but not at both

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17
Q

How do you flight plan with WAAS with baro-nav?

A

May base the flight plan

on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at both the destination and the alternate.

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18
Q

How do you flight plan with WAAS without baro-nav?

A

May base the flight

plan on use of LNAV approaches at both the destination and alternate

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19
Q

Flight levels above FL290, non RVSM, uncontrolled airspace

A

0º-179º Flight Levels at 4,000’ increments starting at
FL290 (e.g., FL 290, 330, 370)
180º-359º Flight Levels at 4,000’ increments starting at
FL310 (e.g., FL 310, 350, 390)

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20
Q

Takeoff minimums

A

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations.
Part 121, 125, 129, 135:
■ Prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none:
■ 1-2 engines airplanes: 1 SM visibility
■ More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility

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21
Q

Types of VOR check

A 
Ground
VOT
Dual
Airway
Airborne
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22
Q

Principles of the gyro

A

Precession

Rigidity in space

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23
Q

Explain pendulous vanes

A

Attitude indicator has. Prevent effects of precession. Doors open and close by gravity to keep gyro in upright position

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24
Q

Which instrument operates in horizontal plane? Vertical?

A

Attitude indicator. Heading indicator

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25
Q

Which instrument operates on precession? Which plane?

A

Turn coordinator. Electric gyro. Vertical plane.

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26
Q

Whats an HSI?

A

Combo of heading indicator and VOR (CDI?)

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27
Q

VOR deviation. 1 dot? Half scale deflection?

A

1 dot is 2 degrees. Half scale deflection 5

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28
Q

When VOR broken but not DME

A

You’ll hear one coded identification every 30 seconds

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29
Q

VOR limitations

A

Cone of confusion, line of sight, pilot error (failure to ID, reverse sensing)

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30
Q

How many GPs satellites? How many in view at all times? How many needed for RAIM?

A
    1. 5 or 4 with baro vnav
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31
Q

Whats FDE?

A

Fault detection and exclusion. Requires six satellites. Raim just gives you a warning

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32
Q

Whats waas? How does it work?

A

Wide area augmentation system. Uses ground reference stations to monitor GPS signal, sends out correction from master station via a satellite

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33
Q

ILS components

A

Visual:
Approach lighting system, Precision approach runway, Papi/vasi

Distance:
Marker beacons, Compass locator, DME

Lateral, vertical guidance:
Localizer, glideslope

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34
Q

Distance from outer middle and inner marker to threshold

A

Outer 4-7 mi, glideslope intercept

middle 3500’, represents DA at 200’

inner -DH for cat II ILS appch

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35
Q

ILS Outer marker substitutes

A

Compass locator, DME, VOR, GPS, Precision approach radar, airport Surveillance radar

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36
Q

Localizer service area?

Course width?

A

35°, 10 miles out. 10° 18 miles out (and up to 4500’)

course width 3 to 6°. 700 feet at threshold

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37
Q

Localizer full scale deflection Is how many degrees?

A

2.5

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38
Q

Usable range of glideslope

A

10nm

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39
Q

Where is the localizer located? Glideslope?

A

Localizer is that departure end of the runway.

Glideslope 750-1250 From approach and the runway, 400-600 to side of centerline

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40
Q

Glideslope full deflection is how many degrees?

A

0.7, course is 1.4 Deg wide

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41
Q

ILs errors

A

Reflection

False courses

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42
Q

What’s an SDF?

A

Simplified Directional facility. Localizer but 6-12 degrees wide. Maybe up to 3° off the runway centerline. No vertical guidance

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43
Q

Whats an LDA

A

Localizer Directional aid. Course is 3 to 6° like a localizer, but not aligned with runway. May be an APV If vertical guidance is provided

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44
Q

What’s an ODP? Where does it take you? How do they decide if an ODP should be created? How do you know if the airport has one?

A

Obstacle departure procedure. Takes you from airport to en route structure. Imaginary plane called the 40:1 obstacle identification surface. You’ll see the black triangle with a T in the procedures

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45
Q

Whats a SID

A

Standard instrument departure

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46
Q

How do you fly an ODP?

A

Turn no sooner than 400 AGL. Maintain 200 feet per (min?mile?)

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47
Q

Is an ODP mandatory?

A

No but you should fly it in IMC or at night

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48
Q

Where do you find ODP‘s?

A

In the Terminal procedures publication

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49
Q

What are low close in obstacles? Where can you find out about them?

A

Obstacles within 1NM that penetrate 40:1 Obstacle identification surface. Found in notes section of takeoff minimum

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50
Q

What’s a VCOA

A

Visual climb over airport.Climb while circling over airport. This is if there are obstacles over 3 miles from airport that require more than 200 foot climb. Must be conducted in VMC

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51
Q

Why are SIDs used?

A

Simplify clearances, Increased workload, increase capacity

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52
Q

How wide are Victor airways?

A

8

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53
Q

Does MOCA guarantee NAV reception?

A

Only within 22 miles of navaid

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54
Q

What’s an MAA?

A

Maximum authorized altitude. This is the max altitude that guarantees navaid treception

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55
Q

What’s an MTA?

A

Minimum turning altitude. Min altitude that you can safely turn from one leg of an airway to another

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56
Q

What information do you need to Include in position report to ATC

A 
Tail number 
position 
time
Altitude 
ETA and next reporting point 
name only of reporting point after that
Pertinent remarks
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57
Q

Comms failure - route

A 
In order:
Assigned
Vectored (fly to fix/route/airway last vectored to)
Expected
Filed
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58
Q

Lost comms - Altitude

A

Highest of expected, assigned, or minimum

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59
Q

Maximum holding speeds

A

0-6k msl: 200
6-14k msl: 230
14k msl: 265

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60
Q

What if the alternate you want to use doesn’t have an instrument Approach procedure?

A

must be able to descend From the MEA and land in VFR

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61
Q

What do you do if there are non-standard alternate minimum‘s?

A

Go to the terminal procedures to see what mins must be to use that airport as an alternate

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62
Q

Why are some airports not authorized as an alternate?

A

Unmonitored, absence of weather reporting, Inadequate NAV signal

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63
Q

Can you use an airport with only GPS approach as an alternate?

A

Yes, if you have WAAS.

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64
Q

What’s a TEC route?

A

Tower en route control. Allows pilots to travel without leaving approach-controlled airspace. Expedites traffic and reduces ATC communication

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65
Q

Where can you find preferred routes?

A

Chart supplement

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66
Q

Where does En route environment change to terminal? When does terminal change to approach?

A

30nm out from airport

2nm out from final approach waypoint

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67
Q

What’s a STAR?

A

Standard terminal arrival procedure. Brings you from enroute to a fix or Navaid to start approach.

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68
Q

What can be included in an initial approach segment?

A

Arcs, holds, course reversals. Ends in the intermediate or final approach fix

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69
Q

What’s an intermediate segment?

A

Get you lined up for final within 30° of the final approach course

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70
Q

What’s the last approach segment?

A

Missed

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71
Q

What is a Precision approach?

A

Meets standards in ICAO index 10. Lateral and vertical guidance.

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72
Q

What is a non-Precision approach?

A

Lateral guidance only

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73
Q

Whats an APV?

What are the types?

A

“Approach with vertical guidance” (and course guidance).Doesn’t meet ICAO annex 10
▷ RNAV / GNSS (i.e, LNAV/VNAV and
LPV minima)
▷ LDA with Glide Slope

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74
Q

Visual approach requires what visual reference? Visibility and ceiling? Is radar service continued?

A

1000’ ceiling and 3sm. Pilot must have runway in sight. Radar service terminated. Pilot responsible for traffic and obstacle avoidance

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75
Q

Contact approach Visibility requirements. Visual reference to the runway required? IAP required? Radar service terminated?

A

Must be requested. Must have IAP. 1sm, clear of clouds. Pilot must see and avoid but retains IFR clearance

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76
Q

RVR stands for

A

Rwy visual range

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77
Q

Whats baro-VNAV

A

Uses barometric information to compute glide path

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78
Q

How do winds flow compared to isobars at the surface? Due to what?

A

Winds flow at an angle to isobars due to surface friction

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79
Q

How do winds flow compared to isobars away from the surface?

A

Whens flow parallel due to the Coriolis force

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80
Q

Rising air rotates in which direction?

A

Counterclockwise (low pressure)

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81
Q

What is windshear?

A

A dramatic change in wind direction or velocity. Causes turbulence and large changes in indicated airspeed

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82
Q

Explain precipitation fog

A

Warm rain falls through cool air. Evaporation from the rain saturates the cool air and condenses

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83
Q

What is induction icing

A

Icing that Impedes air from entering the intake manifold to mix with fuel

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84
Q

What causes carb ice?

A

Incomplete vaporization of fuel combined with low pressure in the Venturi

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85
Q

Whats EFAS

A

En route flight advisory service. Flight watch that provides up-to-date weather advisories for pilots while in route

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86
Q

How often is TAF issued?

A

Every six hours

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87
Q

In TAF:
FROM
BECMG
TEMPO

A

Rapid change taking place within an hour
Gradual change taking place over an hour
Weather occurring for less than one hour

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88
Q

Area forecast issued how often? What are the three components And how long are they valid

A

Every 6 hours

Synopsis 18hrs location and movement of pressure sys

VFR clouds and weather 12hrs general description of clouds and weather significant to VFR ops

Outlook 6hrs describes prevailing condition

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89
Q

Name and describe three AIRMETS. How long are they valid?

A

Sierra - mountain obscuration and widespread IFR
Tango - Moderate turbulence, surface winds over 30, LLWS
Zulu - mod icing
6 hrs

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90
Q

Whats a SIGMET and how long is it valid

A

Significant weather information such as Severe turbulence not associated with thunderstorms, Severe icing, or widespread dust storms or volcanic ash. 4hrs

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91
Q

What’s a convective SIGMET? How long is it valid?

A

Issued for convective thunderstorm activity. Hail greater than 3/4 inch, wind more than 50, 2 hours

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92
Q

How often are winds and temperature aloft forecast issued?

A

Every 6 hours

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93
Q

How often is the surface Analysis issued? What is it?

A

Generated from surface station
reports. Shows pressure systems, isobars, fronts, airmass boundaries (e.g,: dry lines and outflow boundaries) and station information (e.g,: wind, temperature/dew point, sky coverage, and precipitation). Issued every 3 hours

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94
Q

What is the Weather depiction chart? How often is it is it issued?

A

Graphical depiction of METARs. Every three hours

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95
Q

What is a Sigwx?
How often is it issued?
What does it show?
How long is it valid?

A

Significant weather prognostic chart. Hazards including Icing, freezing levels, turbulence. Released 4 times a day. 12 and 24 hour forecasts

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96
Q

What’s a radar summary chart? When is it issued?

A

Depicts precipitation type, intensity, coverage, movement, echoes, and maximum tops.
Issued 35 minutes past the hour

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97
Q

What causes sensation of motion we feel with our body? Which system is that?

A

Somatosensory. Nerves in our skin cells

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98
Q

What equalizes pressure in the inner ear?

A

Eustachian tube

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99
Q

What are the four types of hypoxia?

What are the symptoms? (5)

A

Hypoxic hypemic histotoxic stagnant.

Poor memory, judgment, alertness, vision, Coordination

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100
Q

Symptoms of hyperventilation

A

Lightheadedness, dizziness, drowsiness

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101
Q

Name 7 vestibular illusions

A 
The leans (abrupt recovery from roll)
Graveyard spin
Graveyard spiral
Elevator (up/downdraft)
Coriolis (abrupt head movement)
Somatogravic (acceleration/deceleration)
Inversion (climb to level)
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102
Q

Whats ADM

A

Aeronautical decision making. A systematic approach to risk assessment and stress Management

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103
Q

IMSAFE stands for

A

Illness medication stress alcohol fatigue emotions/eating

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104
Q

5 p’s

A

Pilot passengers plane programming plan

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105
Q

What is the decide model?

A

It’s used to detect risk in flight.

Detect estimate choose identify do evaluate

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106
Q

What makes the G5 work?

A

Accelerometers detect vibration and changes . Magnetometers Determine location compared to a magnetic north

107
Q

Do standard VOR service volumes apply to publish routes?

A

No

108
Q

DPs are categorized by

A

Required equipment:
Non-RNAV (VOR , DME, NDB)
RNAV (GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME)
Radar

109
Q

Hold for release means

Release time means

A

You cant take off until cleared

You cant take off until___

110
Q

EDCT

A

Expect departure clearance time. You must take off five minutes before or after this time

111
Q

What’s an MVA?

A

Minimum vectoring altitude. Maybe lower than MEA or MOCA

112
Q

An alt on the chart ending in G means

A

GPS MEA

113
Q

What are the 4 Airspeeds

A

■ Indicated airspeed (IAS) – indicated on the airspeed indicator
■ Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument & position errors.
■ Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for compressibility error.
■ True airspeed (TAS) – Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard
temperature and pressure

114
Q

Which instrument will show reverse indication when you break the VSI window?

A

The VSI

115
Q

When using an alternate static source, the other instruments will show

A

Altimeter - higher
Airspeed - faster
VSI - Momentary climb

116
Q

What happens to the airspeed indicator when both the Pitot tube and drain are blocked?

A

Acts as an altimeter

117
Q

Airspeeds for white, green, yellow arcs

A

White: Vso to Vfe
Green: Vs1 to Vno
Yellow: Vno to Vne

118
Q 
Vs1
Va
Vs
Vno
Vx
Vy
A 
Stall speed, specific config
Maneuvering speed (changes w weight)
Stall speed clean
Max structural cruise speed
Best angle of climb
Best rate of climb
119
Q

Explain AHRS and ADC

A

Attitude heading reference system . Attitude and heading data

Air data computer. Replaces Pitot static instruments. Receives info from pitot, static ports and OAT

120
Q

Flight Director

A

computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed.

121
Q

FMS

A

Flight management system. Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight
director throughout the flight. The FMS also automatically monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source for
accurate positioning. (GPS, VOR/DME, INS etc.)

122
Q

EFIS

A

Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (“glass cockpit”)

123
Q

PFD

MFD

A

Primary flight display - Instruments

Multi function display - gps, traffic, weather, maps, backup PFD

124
Q

Required equip for Flight at and above FL240: ___ when ___

A

When using VOR for navigation, DME or RNAV

125
Q

If operating for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore, you must have:

A

■ An approved floatation device for each occupant

■ At least one pyrotechnic signaling device

126
Q

Something is inop and you have no MEL. You should check:

A

Is the inoperative equipment required by:
■ VFR-day type certification requirements?
■ Equipment list or kind of operations equipment list?
■ §91.205 or other regulations for kind of operations?
■ An Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

127
Q

Something inop but flying is permitted. What do you need to do?

A

■ Inoperative equipment is removed (affecting weight &
balance), or
■ deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.”
■ Pilot/mechanic determines no hazard from inop. item.

128
Q

VOR service volumes

A 
Terminal (T): 1-12k 25nm
Low (VL): 1-18k 40nm
     New under MON: 5-17k 70nm
High (VH): 1-14.5k 40nm
     14.5-18k 100nm
     18-45k 130nm
     45-60k 100nm
     New 5-14.5k 70nm
129
Q

How does DME work?

A

The ground DME facility receives and replies to the
interrogation.
■ Airborne unit calculates the slant range distance to
the station based on the reply time

130
Q

DME error

A

■ Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM DME station
per every 1000ft height. For example, at 5000 ft, slant
range error is negligible when further than 5 NM of
the station

131
Q

NDB formula

A

MH + RB = MB

132
Q

Whats a Compass locator? At which markers may you find one?

A

A low powered NDB at OM or MM of some approaches

133
Q

ALS distance from Runway threshold into approach area

A

Precision 2400-3000

NonPrecision 1400-1500

134
Q

Two types of RNAV 1 routes

A

Q 18-45k’

T 1200-18k’

135
Q

MRB

A

Magnetic reference bearing. published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

136
Q

GNSS

A

Global navigation Satellite system (satellite based RNaV). GPS is a type of GNSS

137
Q

GPS CDI deflection shows angular distance or real distance?

A

Real distance

138
Q

Can GPS substitute ADF or DME?

A

Yes to both, except for ADF substitution on NDB approaches without a GPS overlay (“or
GPS” in title).

139
Q

Non WAAS receiver - What should you do before your flight?

What if you have a WAAS receiver?

A

Check RAIM prediction and NOTAMS

check NOTAMS

140
Q

What’s GBAS

A

Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)
□ Formerly named Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS) in the US
□ Errors are broadcasted via VHF to GBAS-enabled GPS receivers.
□ GBAS is more accurate than WAAS but covers a much smaller geographical area.
□ Allows for category I and above approaches to GLS DA minima.

141
Q

What’s RNP? What are the 4 categories?

A

REQUIRED NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE (RNP)
■ GLS - DA minimas using GBAS (formerly LAAS)
■ LP - MDA or LPV DA minimas require RNP achieved by WAAS.
■ LNAV / VNAV - DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or BARO-VNAV systems.
■ LNAV - MDA - achieved by a basic, unaugmented IFR-approved GPS.

142
Q

Whats RNAV

A

▷ RNAV is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground-based stations.

143
Q

Whats PBN

A

Performance Based Navigation
navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and
functionality for specific operation contexts (e.g., final approach, enroute, missed approach

144
Q

What are the four PBN categories and the RNP for each?

A

▷ En route – RNP 2.0 (2 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time)
▷ Terminal & Departure – RNP 1.0 (1 NM accuracy 95% of the flight time)
▷ Final Approach – RNP 0.3 (0.3 NM accuracy 95% of flight time)

145
Q

Basic attitude instrument flyingskills

A

Cross check, instrument interpretation, craft control

146
Q

Common errors in attitude instrument flying

A

Omission, fixation, emphasis

147
Q

Name the control instruments

A

□ Power - Tachometer, Manifold pressure, EPR, N1, etc.

□ Attitude - Attitude Indicator

148
Q

Name the performance instruments

A

□ Pitch: altimeter, airspeed and VSI

□ Bank: Heading Indicator, Turn Coordinator, and magnetic compass

149
Q

Mandatory reports under IFR

A

■ Missed approach
■ Airspeed ±10 kts / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever is
greater)
■ Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude)
■ VFR on top when an altitude change will be made.
■ ETA changed ±2 min, or ±3 min in North Atlantic (NAT) *
■ Leaving a holding fix/point
■ Outer marker (or fix used in lieu of it) *
■ Un-forecasted weather
■ Safety of flight (any other information related to safety of
flight)
■ Vacating an altitude/FL
■ Final Approach fix *
■ Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure (§91.187)
■ Compulsory reporting points ▲ * (§91.183)
■ 500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm
* Required only in non-radar environments (including ATC
radar failure)

150
Q

Start speed reduction ___ minutes

before reaching the hold fix.

A

3

151
Q

Standard time for a holding pattern leg

A

▷ At or below 14,000’ MSL – 1 minute
▷ Above 14,000’ MSL – 1.5 minutes
▷

152
Q

Procedure turn max speed

A

200

153
Q

When teardrop published instead of PT, where is IF?

A

IF: 10 miles from FAF

154
Q

When teardrop published instead of PT, where is FAF if nav facility is located on the airport?

A 
FAF: Final approach starts at
completion of the teardrop turn.
However, the final approach
segment begins on the final
approach course 10 miles from
the facility
155
Q

Visibility and decision height for category I

A

2400 or 1800, 200’ DA

156
Q

When can you descend to the
next instrument approach
segment?

A

▷ When cleared for the approach
and established on a segment of
a published approach or route.

157
Q

Glide slope range

A

10nm

158
Q

What’s the IM

A

Inner marker. point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT II ILS approach. WHITE …..

159
Q

When can you descend below MDA or DA? (3)

A

1 Aircraft is in continuously in a position to land from a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
2 visibility > prescribed in the approach
3 at least one of the following visual references is distinctly visible:
A. the approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdowns on elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars for red side row bars are also visible
B. any of the runway lights or markings in that long list

160
Q

Requirements for long XC flight (4)

A

□ 250 NM along airways or by directed ATC
routing.
□ An instrument approach at each airport.
□ 3 different kinds of approaches using
navigation systems.
□ With a filed IFR flight plan.

161
Q

How much simulator time can be counted for your instrument rating?

A

■ Use of approved full flight simulator or FTD, if trained by
authorized instructor:
▷ Max 20 hours if not completed under 142
■ Use of FAA approved Aviation Training Device, if trained
by an authorized instructor:
▷ Max.10 hours of instrument time if Basic ATD
▷ Max. 20 hours of instrument time if Advanced ATD

162
Q

What’s the VDP

A

Visual descent point. A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent
from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established.
■ Identified by a ‘V’ symbol on the descent profile.
■ If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published.
■ Do not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP.

163
Q

Calculate VDP by distance and time

A

Distance
VDP (in NM from threshold) = MDH / 300
Example: VDP = 600 / 300 = 2 NM
Start the descent 2 NM from the threshold.

By time: MDH / 10 = seconds to subtract from time between FAF and MAP
Example: Given MDH is 500 ft, FAF to MAP is 4:00, when would you be over the VDP and start the descent from MDA/H?
500 / 10 = 50 seconds. 4:00 - 0:50 = 3:10
Start the descent at 3:10 (time from FAF)

164
Q

What’s a VDA?

When is it published?

A

VISUAL DESCENT ANGLE
■ A computed glide path from the FAF to the runway’s TCH, typically 3 degrees
■ on all non-precision approaches except those published in conjunction with vertically guided minimums (i.e., ILS or LOC RWY XX) or no FAF procedures without a stepdown fix (i.e., on-airport VOR or NDB).
A VDA does not guarantee obstacle protection below the MDA.
■ VDAs are advisory only

165
Q

TCH stands for

A

Threshold crossing height

166
Q

Formula for Rate of Descent for a 3º Glide Path

A

VS (fpm) = Ground Speed X 5

167
Q

How far does class A airspace extend over the water?

A

12nm

168
Q

Dimensions of class C air space

A

Bottom tier 5nm radius up to 1200 agl
top tier 10nm radius 1200’ to 4000 agl
20nm procedural area

169
Q

Is traffic separation provided and class c air space?

A

Yes. Also in procedural area 20 NM radius (for participating aircraft)

170
Q

Night vis and ceiling for class G

A

Night: 3152 * or 1SM Clear of Clouds if in a traffic pattern within ½ SM from a
runway.

171
Q

Minimum ceiling and vis for VFR in controlled airport

A

■ Except (SVFR), no person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the
lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000’ and vis less than 3sm

172
Q

What are MTRs

A

■Military training routes
IFR MTRs (IR) are typically above 1,500’ AGL, while VFR MTRs (VR) are below 1,500’ AGL.
■ Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 ft at speeds in excess of 250 knots. Segments may exist at higher altitudes.
▷ MTRs with no segments above 1,500’ AGL are identified by 4 digits; e.g., IR1206, VR1207.
▷ MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500’ AGL are identified by three digits; e.g., IR206,
VR207.

173
Q

Requirements to operate within an ADIZ (4)

A

▷ An operable Transponder with altitude encoding.
▷ Two-way radio communication with the appropriate
aeronautical facility.
▷ File an IFR or Defense VFR (DVFR) Flight Plan.
▷ Depart within 5 minutes of flight plan’s estimated
departure time

174
Q

What’s a SFRA

A

Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)

An airspace where special air traffic rules (SATR) have been established

175
Q

Speed limit at or below 2,500’ within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace

A

200kts

176
Q

What’s FIS-B

A

Flight Information Services-Broadcast
ground information data link service, provided through the ADS-B service network. Provides
aviation weather and aeronautical information on cockpit displays. Some information available on FIS-B:
▷ METAR, TAF, NEXRAD, AIRMET, SIGMETs and
convective SIGMETs
▷ TFR, Special Use Airspace updates and NOTAMs (FDC and distant)
▷ PIREPs

177
Q

What are ASOS and AWOS? How often do ASOS and AWOS update?

A

■ Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS) – Typically update hourly
■ Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS) – Update every minute

178
Q

TYPES OF WEATHER BRIEFINGS

A

Standard – A full briefing. Includes: adverse conditions, VFR not recommended, synopsis, current conditions, en route forecast, destination forecast, winds aloft, NOTAMs and ATC delays.
■ Abbreviated – Updates previously received information from mass disseminated sources or a previous briefing.
■ Outlook – For departures 6 or more hours away.
■ Inflight – any of the above

179
Q

Which sigmets are scheduled? How long are they valid?

A

Convective are released hourly at 55 past, valid for 2 hours

180
Q

When are convective sigmets issued?

What does a convective sigmet imply?

A

□ Severe thunderstorms due to:
◦ Surface winds greater or equal to 50 knots
◦ Hail at the surface greater than 3/4 inch in
diameter
□ Tornadoes
□ Embedded thunderstorms of any intensity
□ A line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long
with thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of its
length
□ Thunderstorms producing heavy or greater
precipitation (VIP level 4) affecting at least 40% of
an area of at least 3000 square miles.
▷ Any Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater
turbulence, severe icing, and low level wind shear.

181
Q

How often are the winds aloft issued?

Which information is not shown?

A

Every 6 hours
Winds at altitude up to 1500’ AGL and temperatures at up to 2500’ AGL are not shown.
Above FL240 temperatures are negative and the minus
sign (-) is omitted.

182
Q

Code for light and variable winds?

A

9900

183
Q

Decode this wind aloft: 7525-02:

A

winds 250 @ 125 kt, -2° C.

184
Q

Which weather product has both 12 and 24 hour forecast?
What altitude is it valid up to?
How often is it issued?
What is depicted?

A

■ Low level significant weather (sigwx)chart – Forecasts significant weather conditions for a 12 and 24 hour period
from the surface to 400 mb level (24,000 ft).
Issued 4 times a day.
Depicts weather categories (IFR, MVFR and VFR, turbulence and freezing winds

185
Q

Mid-level significant weather chart – which altitudes?
Depicts what?
Issued?

A

various 10,000’ MSL to FL450

Forecasted thunderstorms, jet streams, tropopause height, tropical cyclones, moderate and severe icing conditions, moderate or severe turbulence, cloud coverage and type, volcanic ash and areas of released radioactive materials.

Ever 6 hours

186
Q

High-level significant weather charts
Altitudes?
Depicts what?
Issued?

A

forecasts of significant weather phenomena for FL250 to FL630.
Shows: coverage bases and tops of thunderstorms and CB clouds, moderate and severe turbulence, jet streams,
tropopause heights, tropical cyclones, severe squall lines, volcanic eruption sites, widespread sand and dust storms.
Issued 4 times a day.

187
Q

What do you call the 3-day forecast of convective activity?

Issuance?

A 
Convective outlook (AC)
Convective areas are classified as marginal, slight, enhanced, moderate, and high
risk for severe weather. 
Issuance: 
day 1 – 5 times a day
day 2 – twice a day
day 3 – once a day.
188
Q

Name three types of Weather satellite images

A 
▷ Visible
□ Helps in identifying cloud coverage.
▷ Infrared (Color or B/W)
□ Measure cloud top temperature
□ Highest clouds=white.
□ Low clouds and fog=dark gray,
▷ Water vapor
□ Shows areas of moist and dry air in shades of gray
from white to black.
□ Moist=white
189
Q

Three stages of a thunderstorm, Heights, and what is happening?

A
  1. Cumulus (3-5 mile height) – The lifting action of the air begins, growth rate may exceed 3000 fpm.
  2. Mature (5-10 miles height) – Begins when precipitation starts falling from the cloud base. Updraft at this stage may exceed 6000 fpm. Downdrafts may exceed 2500 fpm. All thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensit
  3. Dissipating (5-7 miles height) – Characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell dying rapidly.
190
Q

Fog occurs when: (2)

A

■ The air temperature reaches its dew point,

■ dew point is raised to the existing temperature by saturating the air with added moisture

191
Q

Two conditions for structural ice formation:

A
  1. Visible moisture (i.e., rain, cloud droplets), and 2. Aircraft
    surface temperature below freezing.
192
Q

Name 4 types of icing

A

■ Structural Ice.
■ Instrument ice – Structural ice forming over aircraft instruments and sensors, such as pitot and static.
■ Induction/intake ice – ice reducing the amount of air for the engine intake.
■ Carburetor ice – May form due to the steep temperature drop in the carburetor Venturi. Typical conditions are outside air temperatures of -7° to 21° C and a high relative humidity (above 80%).

193
Q

How do you avoid decompression sickness?

A

wait at least 12 hours after diving that does not require a controlled ascent (non-decompression stop diving) for flights up to 8000 ft
MSL
wait 24 hours for flights above 8000 ft or after any diving that required a controlled ascent (decompression stop
diving).

194
Q

Oxygen requirements for unpressurized cabins

A

Cabin pressure altitudes 12,500 to 14,000’ MSL (including) – The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 for periods of flight over 30 minutes.
▷ >14,000’ – The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use
supplemental O2 the entire flight time at these altitudes.
▷ >15,000’ MSL – Each occupant must be provided with supplemental O2.

195
Q

Oxygen requirements for pressurized cabins

A

▷ Above FL250 - an addition of at least 10 minutes of supplemental O2 for each occupant is required.
▷ Above FL350 - one pilot at the controls must wear and use an O2 mask unless two pilots are at the control with quick-
donning masks and the aircraft is at or below FL410.
▷ If one pilot leaves the controls above FL350, the other pilot must wear and use his O2 mask regardless if it’s a quick
donning type

196
Q

Which system consists of organs in the inner ear? Which organs are there?

A

Vestibular system
◦ 3 semicircular canals filled with fluid, which moves against tiny sensory hairs as the head is moved. The brain gets these signals and interprets a sensation of movement.
◦ 2 otolith organs, the utricle and saccule, sense acceleration in the horizontal and vertical planes.

197
Q

The leans

A

After leveling the wings following a prolonged turn, pilot may feel that the aircraft is banked in the opposite direction of the turn.

198
Q

Name 2 visual illusions

A

false horizon

Autokinesis (lights appear to move)

199
Q

Explain coriolis illusion

A

After a prolonged turn, the fluid in the ear canal moves at same speed as the canal. A head movement on a different plane will cause the fluid to start moving and result in a false sensation of acceleration or turning on a different axis.

200
Q

Graveyard spiral

A

“the leans” causes the pilot to turn
back in the original direction. Since a higher angle of attack is required during a turn to remain level, the pilot may notice a loss of altitude and apply back force on the elevator. This may tighten the spiral and increase the loss of altitude.

201
Q

Somatogravic illusion

A

Rapid acceleration stimulates the inner ear otolith organs in the same way as tilting the head backwards. This may create the illusion of a higher pitch angle. Deceleration causes the opposite illusion

202
Q

Elevator illusion

A

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration may create the illusion a climb, due to fluid movement in the otolith organs.

203
Q

Name 7 optical illusions

A 
Runway Width Illusion
Runway and Terrain Slope Illusion
Featureless Terrain Illusion
Water Refraction
Haze
Fog
Ground Lighting Illusion
204
Q

Featureless Terrain Illusion

A

Flying over featureless or dark areas, such as in an overwater approach, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is

205
Q

Water Refraction

A

Rain on the windscreen can create an illusion of being at a higher altitude due to the horizon appearing lower than it is.

206
Q

Flying into fog may create an illusion of:

A

a nose-up motion.

207
Q

Ground Lighting Illusion

A

Lights along a straight path, such as a road or lights on moving trains, can be mistaken for runway and approach lights.
Bright runway and approach lighting systems, especially where few lights illuminate the surrounding terrain, may create the illusion that the runway is closer than it actually is.

208
Q

For an LP or LPV minima you need what?

A

WAAS

209
Q

GPS + baroVNAV can do which minima?

A

LNAV/VNAV or LNAV

210
Q

Which are APVs?

LNAV/VNAV
LNAV
LPV
LP

A

LNAV/VNAV

LPV

211
Q

VOR distance formula

A

1nm per degree at 60 miles

212
Q

Time and distance to station formulas

A

Distance to station = TAS X min between bearings / degrees of BRG change

Time (minutes) to station = Seconds of BRG change / degrees of BRG change

213
Q

Standard Rate Turn - Angle of Bank Calculation

A

(KTAS / 10) X 1.5
Example: 120 KTAS
(120 / 10) x 1.5 = 12 x 1.5 = 18º of bank

214
Q

Cat B speeds

Cat C speeds

A

91-120

121-140

215
Q

What’s sVFR?
Where is it available?
Visibility and cloud clearance
Night

A

An ATC clearance allowing operation under VFR with weather conditions lower than the standard VFR minimums.
SVFR is available below 10,000 MSL within the lateral
boundaries of the controlled airspace designated to the
surface of an airport.
1 SM and clear of clouds.
For night SVFR (sunset to sunrise), an Instrument rating
and instrument-equipped aircraft are required.

216
Q

What info must PIC be familiar w before flight?

What are required tests and inspections for aircraft?

A

NWKRAFT

AVIATE AD

217
Q

Before conducting an IFR flight using GPS, what checks should we made? (7)

A 
GPS approved for IFR
Database not expired 
GPS/WAAS NOTAMs
RAIM availability (non-WAAS receivers)
Operational status of ground-based navaids and 30-day VOR check
Approaches at dest, alternate
Manual onboard
218
Q

When is RAIM check required? (2) .

3 ways to do it?

A

If Non-WAAS GPS or WAAS not available along entire route
FSs
Service availability prediction tool on FAA website
Receiver’s installed RAIM prediction capability

219
Q

Does underlined frequency have voice capability?

If frequency has R by it, should you call or listen on it?

A

No voice

You should call because they are receiving

220
Q

What can substitute for OM only?

What can substitute for OM and MM?

A

DME

compass locator, PAR/ASR, VOR, GPS

221
Q

Speed limit for procedure turn

A

200

222
Q

Headwind turns to tailwind. Do you go above or below glide slope?

A

Airspeed, pitch attitude decrease and you go below glideslope

223
Q

UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA -04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR

A

64m on R063 from OKC, 1522 UTC, 8000’, -4 degrees C, wind 245 at 40, light turbulence, remarks in the clear

224
Q

To operate IFR in class B you must have

A

VOR or RNAV

225
Q

Two-way radio failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR. You should continue…

A

Under VFR and land as soon as practicable

226
Q

Does MOCA give you nag signal coverage?

A

Only within 22nm of VOR

227
Q

When using non-WAAS, when must ground based navaids be operational?

A

Along entire route, although you don’t have to actively monitor unless there’s a RAIM outage

228
Q

Does MEA assure 2-way radio coverage and radar coverage?

A

No. Obstacle clearance and navaid reception only

229
Q

What are compulsory reporting points when you are on a non-airway route between VORs?

A

Fixes used to define the route

230
Q

GPS NOTAM for “unreliable” or “may not be available”. WYD?

A

Proceed using GPS with a backup nav system. Unreliable doesn’t mean signal lacks integrity

231
Q

Ice-contaminated tailplane stall recovery

A

Retract wing flaps immediately, apply nose up pressure

232
Q

Icing on ailerons leads to a roll upset. Recover by

A

ROLL WINGS LEVEL. Reducing AOA through increase in airspeed or extending wing flaps to first setting if below VFE

233
Q

What’s this in the METAR? RAESNB42M

A

Rain ended and snow began at 42 past the hour

234
Q

On ILS, red glideslope flag

On RNAV, LNAV/VNAV anunciation

A

Continue to LOC MDA

Go missed

235
Q

Sidestep minima

A

MDA of the approach (circling minima)

236
Q

what do airport colors mean on IFR low chart?

A

Green has instrument approach
Brown has none
Blue has military or high altitude approach

237
Q

IFR low chart - what’s the distance in the white box?
The black box?
The D?

A

VOR to VOR
Fix to fix
distance to DME navaid (arrow points FROM navaid)

238
Q

IFR low chart - thick and thin route lines.

Fat brown line

A

Thick - Airway 5nm from centerline on each side (10 total)
Thin - 4nm
Brown - brave route (NDBs)

239
Q

IFR low chart - castle box?
Donut airport?
Box w speech bubble?
…… line

A

RCO for ARTCC (center)
Military airport
DME frequency
Time zone change

240
Q

MON

A

Minimum operational Netwerk

241
Q

VOR bypass

A

Can’t join airway there

242
Q

Which satellites are geostationary?

A

WAAS

243
Q

“Integ” warning

A

RAIM lost - go missed

244
Q

When do you not need to do a procedure turn?

A

SHARPTT

Straighten, hold in lieu, Arc, radar vectors, no PT, timed, teardrop

245
Q

Fpnm to FPM

A

Groundspeed/60 x Fpnm = FPM

246
Q

Clearance needed for sid? Odp? Star?

A

Yes, no, yes

247
Q

RNAV 1 means

RNP1 means

A

1nm error or less 95% of the time. RNP has self monitoring

248
Q

Approach with a letter instead of number…

A

ABC: Only circling mins due to rate of descent or more than 30 deg off runway alignment
XYZ: different fix, mins, RNP

249
Q

Class 1 medical

A

Before 40: 1 year

After 40: 6 months

250
Q

Class 2 medical

A

12 months

251
Q

Class 3 medical

A

Before 40: 60 months

After 40: 24 months

252
Q

Are all ADs mandatory? State 3 types

A

Yes, service bulletins from manufacturer are not.

1 time, recurring, emergency

253
Q

Does MRA have obstacle clearance?

A

Not necessarily if MEA changes

254
Q

How much obstacle clearance do circling minimums give you?

A

300’

255
Q

When can you descend while circling

A

1 visual reference
2 required vis
3 safe rate of decent w normal maneuvers

256
Q

How does inop MM affect approach minimums?

A

It doesnt

257
Q

What to include in position report

A

PTATEN

258
Q

30FT DUC

A 
30 days after death
Foreign (sold to another country)
Transfer of ownership
Destroyed
US citizenship revoked
Cancelled
259
Q

Standard IFR separations mins

A

3 miles within 40 miles of radar, 5 miles outside

260
Q

3 components of ILS

A

Guidance (lateral, vertical), range (DME, marker becons), Visual (lights)

261
Q

When must I go missed? (7)

A 
Visibility less than mins
Rwy not in sight at DA or MAP
Full CDI deflection
Unable to make safe descent/landing
Circling visual contact lost
RAIM integrity lost
Instructed by ATC
262
Q

What if LPV fails up during approach?

A

You can continue to LNAV mins but if there’s an Abort of loss of navigation or RAIM, you need to go missed

263
Q

Instructions for circling

A

Once on final descent, switch to main nav display
1.3 from airport - start circle and report
Stay within 1.3
Keep runway within sight
Stay at/above MDA until safe to land

Instrument Rating (1 decks)

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