Instrument Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

A
Cumulus Stage (Updraft’s)
Mature Stage (Precipitation)
Dissipating Stage (Downdraft’s)
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2
Q

Why do airports have alternate missed approaches?

A

In case a VOR goes down or can expedite a missed approach.

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3
Q

Can you fly with inoperative equipment or instruments?

A

If the equipment is include in 91.205, you may not fly. If it is not, you may but you must:

  • Place inoperative placard over the equipment.
  • Disable the equipment.
  • Log in maintenance records.
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4
Q

How should you time your holding pattern?

A

Outbound Leg

  • 14,000 or below (1 minute)
  • 14,000 and above (1.5 minutes)
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5
Q

What is hypoxia and how do you prevent it?

A

Lack of oxygen in the body.

  • Decent to lower altitude.
  • Open a window.
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6
Q

What is the approach lighting system (ALS)?

A
  • Helps transition from radio guided flights to visual approach.
  • Helps determine flight visibility.
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7
Q

What is the necessary equipment for IFR?

A
Generator or Alternator
Radio
Attitude Indicator
Ball of Turn Coordinator
Clock
Altimeter 
Rate of Turn Indicator
Directional Gyro
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8
Q

How can you tell when you have crossed a VOR?

A

When the to/from indicator switches and positive needle movement back towards the center.

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9
Q

What is the minimum aeronautical experience for the instrument rating?

A

50 hours XC PIC
- 10 in Airplanes
40 hours of Actual or Simulated Instrument Time
- 15 hours with CFII
- Including one XC flight of
- 250 nautical miles along airways or directed by ATC
- Instrument Approach at each airport
- 3 different kinds of approaches using NAV system
- Filed on an IFR flight plan
3 hours of instrument flight training within the last 2 calendar months

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10
Q

How do outer markers/beacons read as you get closer or further away?

A

Stronger as you get closer. Softer as you get farther away.

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11
Q

How is DME measured?

A

Aircraft measures DME from a ground based location via radio frequencies or speed of flight. Aircrafts DME receiver calculates the position of the aircraft based from the DME station.

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12
Q

Where is DME measured on an ILS/LOC approach? What are the possible errors?

A

From the localizer.

Possible Errors:

  • Line of Sight
  • Slant Range Error
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13
Q

What are the personal documents required for flight? What are the aircraft documents required for flight?

A

Personal

  • Pilot Certificate
  • Medical Certificate
  • Government Issued Photo ID
Aircraft
Airworthiness Certificate
Registration Certificate
Operating Limitations
Weight and Balance
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14
Q

What is the pilots responsibility once a clearance has been issued?

A

To read back the clearance and follow the instructions.

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15
Q

What preflight information is required for IFR flight?

A

91.103

Notams
Weather
Known ATC Traffic Delays
Runway Lengths
Alternate Airport
Fuel Requirements
Takeoff and Landing Performance Data
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16
Q

Why do we file for alternate airports?

A

So ATC will know intentions in the event of a communications failure.

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17
Q

Out of the several ways to check a VOR, which is the best?

A

VOT Check

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18
Q

Describe the ground based augmentation system.

A

Previously known as LAAS.
Errors broadcasted via VHF to GBHS enabled GPS units.
Is more accurate than WAAS, but covers a smaller geographical area.

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19
Q

Can you file an IFR flight plan if your 6 calendar month currency has expired if you are with a safety pilot? What if the safety pilot is IFR current?

A

No. You can only file if YOU are current.

The current safety pilot would be required to file the IFR flight plan. You could not log PIC time.

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20
Q

When do you need to file for an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan?

A

1-2-3 Rule

1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA forecasted weather is:

  • 2,000 ft
  • 3 statue miles of visibility
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21
Q

Regarding circling approach minimums, what does the black filled in box with the C in the middle mean?

A

Updated/expanded approach circling area.

- Greater protected area.

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22
Q

How will ATC guide the IFR pilot in special use airspace?

A

If the airspace if active, they will guide the pilot around the airspace.

If the airspace is NOT active, they will send you through the airspace.

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23
Q

If you are flying a non-precision DME approach, how long should you be level prior to reaching the missed approach point? Non-precision timed approach?

A

DME

  • 1 Mile

Timed

  • 1 Minute
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24
Q

Do you need to enter an IFR flight plan before entering controlled airspace?

How long is an IFR flight plan stored in the system?

How do you cancel and IFR flight plan?

A

Yes.

It is stored for 90 minutes after the proposed departure time.

Towered airports automatically cancel. Non-towered airports contact ATC/FSS to cancel.

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25
Q

Describe VFR on Top.

A

Allows the pilot to choose a VFR altitude if:

  • they can fly the appropriate VFR altitude.
  • can maintain VFR weather minimum cloud distance.
  • comply with instrument flight rules
    • Minimum IFR altitudes.
    • Radio Coms
    • ATC clearance
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26
Q

If you are cleared as filed, does this guarantee route or altitude?

A

No. This only guarantees the route.

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27
Q

What are military training routes and how can you identify them?

A

Three letter: above 1,500 to 10,000 and flown IFR

Four letter: below 1,500 and flown VFR

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28
Q

What are the speed categories based on when flying a non-precision approach?

A

Ground speed.

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29
Q

You are flying an aircraft equipped with DME. The controller issues you an authorization for 10 mile legs. Where is the 10 mile point located in the holding pattern?

A

On the far end of the outbound leg.

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30
Q

Define the different types of airspeeds.

  • Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
  • Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)
  • True Airspeed (TAS)
  • Ground Speed (GS)
A

Indicated- airspeed read off of the airspeed indicator
Calibrated- IAS corrected for instrument errors
True- actual airspeed through the air
Ground- actual speed over the ground

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31
Q

Is IFR separation given to all aircraft under an IFR flight plan in controlled airspace?

A

Yes.

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32
Q

Does tracking a localizer count as tracking a course for a recency check?

A

Yes.

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33
Q

How close does a non-precision approach get you to the airport? Circling?

A

1 mile of the airport.

Circling gets you to a runway with visibility.

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34
Q

What are the definitions for the different types of altitudes?

  • Indicated Altitude
  • Pressure Altitude
  • Density Altitude
  • True Altitude
  • Absolute Altitude
A

Indicated- altitude read from the altimeter
Pressure- altitude at 29.92hg
Density- pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature
True- altitude above MSL
Absolute- height above the ground

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35
Q

What are the IFR minimum fuels requirements?

A

Fuel to destination plus the fuel to your alternate plus 45 minutes of extra fuel at normal cruise.

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36
Q

What actions should be taken if you find yourself in a thunderstorm?

Is it legal to fly into a thunderstorm?

A

Slow to maneuvering speed. (VA)
Maintain constant altitude.
Turn interior lights to their highest intensity.

Legally? Yes. Is it a good idea? No.

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37
Q

What is the purpose of a transponder?

A

To let ATC match you identification to your altitude.

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38
Q

What is the difference between MEA and MOCA?

A

MEA- provides obstruction clearance and radio/navigation signal.
MOCA- only provides obstruction clearance.

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39
Q

What are the 6 ways to check a VOR?

A
  • Approved Test Signal (+/- 4)
  • Radio Repair Station (+/- 4)
  • Surface Airport Designated VOR Checkpoint (+/- 4)
  • Airborne Checkpoint (+/- 6)
  • Prominent Ground Point Along a Victor Airway at least 20 NM from VOR (+/- 6)
  • Dual VOR Cross Check (+/- 4)
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40
Q

What do the following IFR acronyms represent? DA/H, MHA, MCA, MDA/H, MEA, MOCA, MORA, MRA, MVA, and OROCA

A
DA/H- Decent Altitude/Height
MHA- Maximum Authorized Altitude
MCA- Minimum Crossing Altitude
MDA- Minimum Decent Altitude
MEA- Minimum Enroute Altitude
MOCA- Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
MORA- Minimum Off Route Altitude
MRA- Minimum Reception Altitude
MVA- Minimum Vectoring Altitude
OROCA- Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
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41
Q

What GPS considerations should be considered when filing an alternate?

A

Non-WAAS GPS- Can flight plan based on GPS approaches at either the destination or alternate but NOT both.

WAAS without Baro-NAV- Can base flight plan on LNAV approaches at both destination and alternate.

WAAS with Baro-NAV- May base the flight plan on use of LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 at the destination and alternate.

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42
Q

Can you depart an airport in uncontrolled/class G airspace and enter the clouds without first getting your IFR clearance?

A

Yes. You do not need an IFR clearance in class G airspace.

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43
Q

You are being radar vectored for an approach. Do you need to make procedure turns?

A

No. Not if you are being vectored and are not instructed to do so.

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44
Q

What are the normal operating ranges for the oil temp, oil pressure, and suction gauges?

A

Temp- 100 degrees to 245 degrees

Pressure- 60-90 PSI

Suction- 4.5-5.5 PSI

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45
Q

How close can ATC keep planes separated from one another?

A

3 miles within 40 miles of antenna site

5 miles beyond 40 miles of antenna site

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46
Q

How do you keep the static port from icing over?

A

Yaw to the left to keep the airflow from contacting it.

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47
Q

What must you have to fly IFR operations in a class B airspace? Aside from the basic VFR requirements.

A

An operable VOR receiver or RNAV system.

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48
Q

What are METARS and TAFS?

A

METARS

  • Scheduled weather reports for a specific airport.
  • 1 hour intervals.

TAFS- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
- 5 SM radius issued 4 times daily.

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49
Q

Describe area navigation. (RNAV)

A
  • allows navigation on any desired course and does not require flying to or from any ground based facility.
  • GNSS, VOR/DME, DME/DME

RNAV/VNAV- provides vertical guidance.

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50
Q

What does maintenance look for on an ELT inspection?

A
  • battery corrosion
  • signal strength
  • operation of the crash sensor
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51
Q

What are the different types of structural ice?

A

Clear- formed at temperatures close to freezing. (Culiform)
Rime- formed at temperatures lower than freezing. (Stratiform)
Mixed- clear and rime formed together.

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52
Q

What is an obstacle departure procedure? (ODP)

A
  • only provides obstruction clearance

- may be flown without ATC clearance if no SID is already assigned

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53
Q

Describe the different types of fog.

  • Radiation
  • Advection
  • Ice
  • Upslope
  • Steam
A

Fog- surrounding air reaches the dew point near the ground.

Radiation- over the ground on cool, clear nights.
Advection- warm, moist air flows from the coast.
Ice- temperature below freezing and water vapor turns to ice crystals.
Upslope- moist air travels up terrain and is cooled to dew point.
Steam- Cool dry air moved over warm water.

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54
Q

What does it mean on an approach title when it has a letter with the runway number? VOR 18A

A

It is not a straight in approach course. Must be > than 30 degrees off the runway course.

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55
Q

What are the magnetic compass errors and limitations?

A

Deviation- installation errors
Variation- difference between true and magnetic north
Magnetic Dip- as you bank, the magnetic compass goes opposite the bank
Oscillation- turbulence/altitude changes make the compass go up and/or down
North/South- Undershoot North Overshoot South (UNOS)
Acceleration Errors- Accelerate North Decelerate South (ANDS)

56
Q

Describe the GPS.

A

Global Positioning System

  • Shows distance in miles.
  • 3 Satellites for 2D position.
  • 4 Satellites for 3D position.
57
Q

How does DME slant range error affect its reading?

A

6,000 feet over a VOR will read 1 mile.

1,000 feet over a VOR will read 0 miles.

58
Q

Explain market beacons for ILS landing systems.

A

Provide range information over specific points along the approach.

Outer Marker- 4-7 miles out. Shows where to intercept the glide slope. Blue in color.
Middle Marker- 3,500 feet out. Shows where glide slope meets decision height. Amber in color.
Inner Marker- Shows where the glide slope meets decision height on a CAT II approach. White in color.

59
Q

What are the conditions necessary for a thunderstorm?

A
  • Lifting Force
  • High Relative Humidity
  • Unstable Lapse Rate
60
Q

What are convective SIGMETS?

A

Advisories for:

  • Severe Thunderstorms
  • Tornados
  • Embedded Thunderstorms
  • Squall Lines
  • Heavy Precipitation with Thunderstorms
  • Hail > than 3/4 of an Inch in Diameter
61
Q

How should you fly if you have lost communications?

A

Fly the highest altitude:

  • Minimum altitude for IFR
  • Last altitude given by ATC

Fly the route:

  • assigned route
  • filed route

Try to land by going to the first approach fix.

62
Q

What report must be given to ATC when reaching a holding fix?

A

Identification
Time
Altitude

63
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds?

A

0 - 6,000 feet- 200 knots
6,001 - 14,000 feet- 230 knots
14,000 feet and above- 265 knots

64
Q

What are the mandatory reports required for IFR?

A
Missed approach
Airspeed +/- 10 knots
Reaching a holding fix
VFR on Top
ETA change +/- 3 minutes
Leaving a holding fix
Outer Marker
Unforecasted Weater
Safety of Flight
Vacating an altitude
Final approach fix
Radio/NAV failure
500- Unable to maintain +/- 500 feet per minute
Compulsory reporting points
65
Q

What are contact and visual approaches?

A

Contact

  • requested by the pilot
  • 1 statue mile and clear of clouds

Visual

  • ATC or pilot initiated
  • 1,000 foot ceiling 3 statue miles
  • Must have airport or traffic to follow in sight
66
Q

What is required to carry passengers as PIC? Act as PIC?

A
  • 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days
  • at night, 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days to a full stop
  • complete a biannual flight review every 24 calendar months
67
Q

If the static port is blocked, how would you fix the VSI?

A

Use the alternate static source or break the class of the VSI window. (Creates a reverse VSI)

68
Q

Give examples of a precision approach. A non-precision approach.

A

Precision Approaches

  • ILS- Instrument Landing System
  • PAR- Precision Approach Radar

Non-Precision Approaches

  • VOR
  • RNAV
  • LOC
69
Q

What are SIGMETS?

A

Advisories for:

  • Severe Icing
  • Severe Turbulence
  • Dust Storms
  • Volcanic Ash
70
Q

What are the gyroscopic instruments and how do they work?

A

Attitude Indicator- Rigidity in Space
Heading Indicator- Rigidity in Space
Turn Indicator- Precession

71
Q

What is CFIT? When does it occur?

A

Controlled Flight into Terrain

  • Poor situational awareness
  • Decent below published minimums
72
Q

What is a standard rate turn? Half standard rate?

A

Standard Rate- 3 degrees per second

Half Standard Rate- 1 1/2 degrees per second

73
Q

Why do some airway route intersections have a line across them?

A

The leg following has a change in the MEA.

74
Q

Do we have deicing equipment? Anti-ice equipment?

A

Deicing- No.

Anti-ice- Yes. Carb heat, pitot heat, defrosters

75
Q

Can you file an IFR flight plan to a non-IFR airport?

A

Yes, but you must also file an alternate.

76
Q

Why do some radials on a VOR have a degree mark and others do not?

A

Identifies radials that could easily be read backwards when the chart is turned around.

77
Q

What is a standard instrument departure? (SID)

A
  • Provides obstruction clearance and helps reduce radio congestion.
  • Used as a common instrument departure.
78
Q

Can an IFR flight plan be obtained enroute with a VFR flight plan active?

A

Yes. If the pilot is below IFR minimum altitudes it is their responsibility to get above.

79
Q

Describe how a pitot blockage affects the instruments.

A
  • If the air inlet is blocked, airspeed will drop to zero.

- If the air inlet and drain hole are BOTH blocked, airspeed will act as an altimeter.

80
Q

Where will you obtain weather forecasts for a flight under instrument flight rules?

A

Flight service station (FSS), Direct User Access Terminal (DUATS), or other services.

81
Q

When can you descend below MDA/DA?

A
  1. When you can descend to the runway at a standard rate.
  2. The flight visibility meets the requirements specified by the approach.
  3. You have an aspect of the runway in sight.
82
Q

If no IFR minimum altitudes are prescribed, what are your minimum altitudes?

A

Congested Area- 2,000ft above the highest obstacle and 4nm away.

Non-Congested Area- 1,000ft above the highest obstacle and 4nm away.

83
Q

What are three ways to identify the outer marker?

A
  1. Lights from beacon.
  2. GPS
  3. Ask ATC
84
Q

What minimum rate of climb is required for a normal departure in order to assure obstruction clearance if no ODP is issued?

A

200ft per nautical mile

85
Q

When can an authorized instructor log instrument time?

A

When conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument conditions.

86
Q

What is decompression sickness and how can it be prevented?

A

Inert gases released from body from low barometric pressures.

  • 12 hours after scuba diving up to 8,000ft.
  • 24 hours after scuba diving above 8,000ft.
87
Q

How many feet are you off course for every dot of the VOR?

A

200ft per dot per nautical mile from VOR station.

88
Q

What are IFR takeoff minimums?

A

Part 91- no takeoff minimums.

Part 121, 125, 129, and 135- 1-2 engines; 1SM visibility

SGP- 600 AGL and 3SM visibility

89
Q

Who can give an instrument proficiency check?

A
  • CFII
  • DPE
  • FAA
90
Q

How does glide slope get to the aircraft and in what way should we intercept it?

A

It bounces off the ground to the aircraft.

Always intercept below the glide slope or you will get reverse sensing.

91
Q

If a VOR changeover point does not have a defined crossing radial depicted on the chart, how do we know when we are there?

A

Time it or ask ATC.

92
Q

What is the clearance void time?

A

Time which your clearance is void after which you may not take off. You must notify ATC within 30 minutes after the void time if you did not depart.

93
Q

What is the maximum amount of deviation for the VOR on the ground and air?

A

Ground- +/- 4 Degrees

Air- +/- 6 Degrees

94
Q

What are the oil temp, oil pressure, and suction gauge limits?

A

Oil Temp- 245 degrees

Oil Pressure- 115 PSI; Minimum 25 PSI

Suction- 4.5-5.5 PSI

95
Q

What is a TACAN? A VOR/TACAN?

A

TACAN- Military DME

VOR/TACAN- Used by both military and civilian aircraft.

96
Q

What are the oxygen requirements?

A

12,500-14,000- Crew needs oxygen if there for more than 30 minutes.

14,000-15,000- Required crew needs oxygen.

15,000+- All passengers must be provided with oxygen.

97
Q

What does the phrase “at pilots discretion” mean when coming from ATC?

A

The pilot may follow the commands of ATC at their leisure but cannot return to their previous position.

98
Q

Describe the glide slope on an ILS approach.

A

Automatically tuned in with localizer frequency.

Width- 1.4 Degree (.7 either side is a full deflection.)

Range- 10nm

Slope- 2.5-3.5 Degrees

99
Q

Describe how a static port blockage would affect the instruments.

A

Airspeed- Shows correct when you maintain altitude.

- Higher altitude indicates lower.
- Lower altitude indicates higher.

Altimeter- Freezes on altitude where block occurred.

VSI- Freezes on zero.

100
Q

What does baro-aid or barometric altimeter do?

A

Ties the altimeter to the GPS for corrections.

101
Q

What do the static discharge wicks do?

A

Help prevent static electricity from arcing between the airplane and the atmosphere.

102
Q

What are the three fundamental skills of instrument flight?

A
  • Instrument Cross Check
  • Instrument Interpretation
  • Aircraft Control
103
Q

What are NOTAMS and what are the three types?

A

Notices to Air Missions- they contain critical information that may affect your decision of flight.

NOTAM D- NAV facilities out of service.
NOTAM L- Taxi closures, inoperative VASI, etc.
FDC NOTAMS- Changes to instrument approach procedures, TFRs, and aeronautical charts.

104
Q

What do the blue lines represent on an IFR sectional?

A

Low altitude RNAV only routes.

105
Q

What are the 5 T’s at a holding fix at each turn point?

A
  • Turn
  • Time
  • Twist
  • Throttle
  • Talk
106
Q

How long does a GPS stay current?

A

28 Days

107
Q

When must you receive clearance from ATC at an airport?

A

Takeoff, Landing, Crossing Runways

108
Q

What are the three components of an ILS?

A
  • Localizer
  • Beacon
  • Glideslope
109
Q

What would you do if you lost a circuit breaker?

A
  • Ask if it is needed in the flight.

- If so, I would not want to risk an electrical fire and would leave it be.

110
Q

Do you need to have a Mode C transponder on an IFR flight plan in class E and G?

A

Yes.

111
Q

If you do need an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, what weather minimums must exist to consider it an alternate?

A

If it has a:

Precision Approach
- 600ft ceiling; 2SM Visibility

Non-Precision Approach
- 800ft ceiling; 2SM Visibility

No Instrument Approach
- Ceiling and visibility must allow decent from MEA and allows for a basic VFR approach.

112
Q

What are AIRMETs?

A

Advisories for:

Tango- Turbulence

Sierra- IFR

Zulu- Icing

113
Q

Can you operate an instrument flight without RAIM or WAAS?

A

Yes, if you can back up the GPS with VHF frequencies.

114
Q

What does the visual decent point mean?

A

The point at which you may descend to the runway IF you have it in sight.

115
Q

What is a side-step maneuver?

A

Used for parallel runways with only one approach.

116
Q

You are on an IFR cross country and realize you are lower on fuel than you had planned. Should you report this to ATC even if you believe you can make it to the airport, but only if there are no unforeseen delays?

A

Yes. You should declare “minimum fuel”.

117
Q

When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment?

A

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment for the approach.

118
Q

Can and IFR recency (first 6 months) be completed in a simulator?

A

Yes, as long as it is the same category aircraft and is in simulated instrument conditions.
- A flight instructor is not needed.

For training toward the rating

  • An authorized instructor is present to verify.
  • Logs the time, content, and training device.
119
Q

Can you continue an ILS or precision approach if you lose vertical guidance?

A

Yes, but only if you started your time at the final approach fix.

120
Q

What special preflight checks would you perform for instrument flight versus VFR flight?

A
  • Pitot Heat
  • Magnetic Compass
  • Master Switch
  • Attitude Indicator Stable in 5 minutes or less
  • VOR
  • Check Turn Coordinator while Taxiing
121
Q

What are the large and small numbers within a specific latitude/longitude grid on the IFR sectional?

A

The OROCA numbers. They tell you the minimum altitude you can fly within that grid.

122
Q

How large is the protected area of a VOR? The non-protected area?

A

Protected- 4 miles

Non-Protected- 1 mile

123
Q

What is the required equipment for flying for hire and beyond power off gliding distance from the shore?

A

Approved flotation device and at least one pyrotechnic signaling device.

124
Q

Looking at an IFR sectional, what is the quickest way to tell it and airport has an instrument approach?

A

Blue and green airports have approaches. Brown airports do not.

125
Q

What does “CRAFT” stand for?

A
Clearance Limit
Route
Altitude
Frequency
Transponder
126
Q

List some enroute weather information sources.

A

HIWAS- Hazardous inflight weather advisory service; hazardous and urgent weather.

Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS)

Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS)

Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS)

ARTCC- Advises anticipated adverse weather conditions and SIGMETs.

127
Q

What does EFC mean? You determine you will reach the holding fix in 4 minutes. ATC has not given you an EFC. What should you do?

A

EFC- Expect Further Clearance

Query ATC.

128
Q

What is a standard terminal arrival? (STAR)

A
  • Serves as a transition from enroute structure to a point from which an approach can begin.
  • Puts you in the general vicinity of the airport.
129
Q

Instrument PIC recency of experience for 6 months? More than 6 months? More than 12 months?

A

Within 6 months in actual or simulated IFR in the same category aircraft, log:

  • 6 Instrument Approaches
  • Holding Procedures and Tasks
  • Intercept and Track Courses through Navigation System

More than 6 Months:
- Log flights with a safety pilot or instructor.

More than 12 Months:
- Requires instrument proficiency check.

130
Q

May we fly into an area where icing is forecasted?

A

Absolutely not. It is illegal.

131
Q

What are the required aircraft maintenance inspections for IFR?

A
Annual (12 Calendar Months)
VOR (30 Days)
I (100 Hour)
Altimeter/Pitot Static System (24 Calendar Months)
Transponder (24 Calendar Months)
ELT (12 Calendar Months)
132
Q

How does the automatic direction finder differ from a VOR?

A

Does not show radicals. Just shows position relative to the ADF.

133
Q

Does a VFR on Top clearance mean the IFR flight plan is cancelled?

A

No. It does not.

134
Q

What are the ways a VOR may be certified for use on an instrument flight? What information must be recorded? Does the information have to be in an aircraft logbook?

A
  • VOT, Ground, or Airborne Check
  • Name, Date, Place, and Error
  • No. It just has to be written down.
135
Q

What is the difference between an isobar and an isotherm?

A

Isobar- Connects lines of equal pressure.

Isotherm- Connects lines of equal temperature.