Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General Army Aviation Knowledge > Instrument Flight (.5) > Flashcards

Instrument Flight (.5) Flashcards

1
Q

How many types of altitude are there?

A

Indicated: what is being read
Absolute: how far you are above the ground or AGL
True: altitude above sea level
Pressure: height measured above 29.92
Density: altitude for which a given air density exists in the standard atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the allowable difference allowed with altitude instruments?

A

75’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens if you do not change your altimeter setting when flying to a new location?

A

Your true alitude will differ from your indicated altitude. If the alitmeter is lower than 29.92, you will be at a lower altitude than indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does an airspeed indicator work?

A

It’s a pressure gauge that measures the dynamic pressure of the air through with the aircraft is flying. This is the difference between ambient static air pressure and ram pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does ATC know your altitude?

A

Your altimeter setting is Mode C capable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you convert from TH to MH?

A

If you’re going west, add the variation

If you’re going east, subtract the variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What errors are associated with a compass?

A

Variation, deviation, dip error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the RMI?

A

The radio magnetic indicator which receives frequencies from omnidirectional range (VOR) or automatic direction finder (ADF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What instruments are used to determine pitch?

A

Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What instruments are used to determine bank?

A

Attitude indicator, heading indicator, megnetic compass, turn & slip indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What instruments are used to determine power?

A

Airspeed indicator, torque indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary instrument for pitch?

A

Altimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary instrument for bank?

A

Heading indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary instrument for power?

A

Airspeed indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 fundamentals for aircraft control during instrument flight?

A

Cross check, instrument interpretation, aircraft control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a cross check?

A

Continuous and logical observation of instruments for attitude and performance. Smooth control inputs reduce lag in instruments which make scanning technique more reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should you conduct your climb level off?

A

Use 10% of your rate of climb. So if you’re climbing 500fpm, 50 feet prior you should begin level off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the standard rate turn?

A

3* per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How should you roll out of a turn?

A

Use have the degree of bank, so if it’s 12* roll out at 6*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

On in instrument chart, what does a brown, green, and blue airport mean?

A

Green and blue: a published instrument approach

Brown: there is not instrument approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do asterisk mean on airports?

A

Part time services, part time open, or can only file an approach part time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the MEA?

A

Minimum En Route Altitude. It is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle avoidance requirements.

MEAs are bidirectional and arrows will indicate what direction it applies to

Obstacle clearance is typically 1000’ in nonmountainous and 2000’ in mountainous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MOCA?

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude. Lowest altitude that guarantees obstacle clearance and nav coverage within 22NM of a VOR. Indicated with an * then altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is MRA?

A

Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude for an airway intersection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is MCA?

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at a certain fix that an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. At this point, a pilot needs to initiate a climb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is MAA?

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude. The maximum usable altitude on that route segment, without receiving conflicting navigation signals from NAVAIDS operating on same frequency.

A side ways T will indicate when there is a change with MEA, MAA, or MOCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is OROCA?

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude. Provides obstacle clearance within that quadrant, plus 4NM.

This is used for emergency. Does not guarantee or provide signal coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does an open vs closed triangle mean on an airway?

A

Open: ATC reporting point
Closed: compulsory reporting point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does the crosshatched arrowhead indicate?

A

Localizer with BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does it mean when a NAVAID is shown as a shadowed box?

A

It means an Automated Flight Service Station with the same name is located with it

If the box is smaller, it means an AFSS is available with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the H and T inside NAVAID boxes mean?

A

H: HIWAS (Hazardous In Flight Wx Advisory System)
T: TWEB (Transcribed Weather Broadcasting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a departure procedure (DP)?

A

ATC coded departure procedures established to simplify clearance procedures. They provide obstacle clearance protection while IMC and reduce communications and departure delays.

They provide obstacle clearance given that the aircraft crosses the end of the runway at least 35’ AGL, climbs to 400’ above airport elevation before turning, and climbs at least 200’ per NM, unless a higher climb is assigned by ATC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route chart. Established for certain airports to certify delivery instructions. Pilots can make a transition from en route structure to a fix in the terminal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an IAP?

A

Instrument Approach Procedure. Chart that provides IFR descent from the enroute environment to a point where safe landing can be made.

6 sections: margin identification, pilot briefing information, plan view, profile view, landing minimums, airport diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the margin idenfitication?

A

Found at top and bottom of chart depicts airport location and procedure identification, like city, airport name, state, name of the apporach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the pilot briefing information?

A

3 rows of procedure specific information such as altitudes, frequencies, elevation values, final approach course, touchdown zones, notes, limitations, missed approach verbiage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the black triangle with an A mean in the pilot briefing area?

A

Nonstandard IFR alternate minimums

*standard is 600-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If NA appears after the black triangle with an A, what does that mean?

A

Alternate minimums are not allowed

Look at the roman numeral pages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the black triangle with a T mean?

A

Airport has nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the plan view?

A

It provides a graphical overhead view of the procedure and depicts the en route segments to the initial approach fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Are appraoch procedures drawn to scale in the plan view?

A

Only data in the reference circle (10NM) is always drawn to scale

42
Q

How are course reversals depicted on IAP?

A

45/180
Holding pattern
Tear drop pattern

43
Q

What is a procedure turn?

A

Indicated with a turn with a barbed arrow, which indicates the direction or side of the outbound course where the procedure is made.

44
Q

What is a holding in lieu of procedure turn?

A

Usually used for course reversals and will be established over IF and FAF.

45
Q

What is a tear drop procedure?

A

Depature from the IAF on the published outbound course, followed by a turn toward and intercepting the inbound course at or before the intermediate fix.

It’s purpose is to reserve direction while losing a considerable amount of altitude

46
Q

What is the profile view?

A

A side view drawing of the procedure illustrating the vertical approach path altitudes, headings, distances, and fixes.

47
Q

What is the TCH?

A

Threshold Crossing Height

the height of the straight line extension of the visual glide slope

48
Q

When can you begin descent for a nonprecision approach?

A

Final descent is initiated at the FAF or after completing the procedure turn and established on the inbound course

FAF is identified by the Maltese Cross

49
Q

What is the MAP?

A

Missed Approach Point.

For the ILS, the MAP is at the DA/DH.
Nonprecision: timing from the FAF, a fix, or NAVAID

50
Q

What does altitude numbers with a line under them depict?

A

Minimum altitude

51
Q

What does altitude numbers with a line above them depict?

A

Maximum altitude

52
Q

What do altitude numbers with lines above and below them depict?

A

Mandatory altitude

53
Q

What does the landing minimum section provide?

A

Lowest altitude and visibility requirements for the approach

Sometimes there are two sets of minimums depending on if a fix is identified and if a second altimeter is used

54
Q

What altitudes do precsion approaches use?

A

Decision altitude which is in MSL and measured from barometric altitude.

Decision Height is HAT( height above touchdown)

DA is used for CAT I precision IAP

55
Q

What altitudes do nonprecision approaches use?

A

MDA which is in MSL and measured in barometric altitude.

56
Q

What are the aircraft approach categories?

A

A: 0-90kts, 1.3 miles
B: 91-120kts, 1.5 miles
C: 121-140kts, 1.7 miles
D: 141-165kts, 2.3 miles
E: 166 and higher, 4.5 miles

57
Q

What is TDZE?

A

Touchdown zone elevation

first 3000’ of the landing surface

58
Q

What is heading vs track?

A

Heading is the direction in which the aircraft is flying, track is its actual path over the ground

59
Q

How do you correct for wind drift?

A

By turning the aircraft into the wind

60
Q

What do clouds with vertical development indicate?

A

Atmospheric instablility and possible turbulence

61
Q

What do lenticular clouds indicate?

A

Strong mountain wave turbulence

62
Q

How far should you circumnavigate a thunderstorm cell?

A

At least 20NM

63
Q

What types of ice are there?

A

Clear: 0 to -10C
Mixed clear and rime: -10 to -15C
Rime: -15 to -20*C

64
Q

What is rime ice?

A

Forms if droplets are small and freeze immediately when coming in contact with aircraft, usually forms on leading edges and struts. It is rough looking and has a milky color.

65
Q

What is clear ice?

A

Forms when larger droplets or freezing rain spreads over a surface. This is the most dangerous type because it’s hard to see and can change the shape of an airfoil.

66
Q

What leads to fog formation?

A

Air is cooled to saturation or sufficient moisture is added to the air until saturation occurs

Forms when temperature/dew point spread is greater than 5 degrees or lower

67
Q

What is wind shear?

A

Change in wind speed and or wind direction in a short distance.

Most hazardous during landing and takeoff

68
Q

What is an NDB?

A

Nondirectional Radio Beacon. This is the ground portion that transmits radio energy in all directions.

The ADF, automatic direction finder, is on the aircraft and receives the energy

69
Q

What frequency is associated with NDB?

A

Low, medium, or UHF

70
Q

What is a compass locator?

A

A radio beacon used with ILS markers. They are low powered NDBs

71
Q

What does the W on the NDB class designator mean?

A

Without voice

72
Q

How do you identify the ADF is receiving from the NDB?

A

Listening to the morse code identifier

73
Q

What is VOR?

A

Variable Omnidirectional Range
Uses VHF, subject to line of site

74
Q

What does it mean when the VOR frequency is underlined?

A

Without voice. Will also way “VORW”

75
Q

How do you indentify the VOR?

A

Morse vode or recoreded automated voice

76
Q

What are radials?

A

Courses oriented from the station

77
Q

What is the CDI?

A

Course Deviation Indicator

Where the CDI moves, follow by correcting to where the CDI is. Start by 20*

78
Q

What is the accuracy of the VOR course alignment?

A

Usually +/- 1, no more than 2.5

79
Q

How do you check the VOR receiver accuracy?

A

VOR test facility
Certified checkpoints on airport surface
Certified airborne checkpoints

For checkpoints, receivers within 4* should be reliable

80
Q

What is a TACAN?

A

Tactical Navigation. It provides continuous DME. Operates in the UHF band

81
Q

What is a VORTAC?

A

A facility consisting of VOR and TACAN, providing a VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN distance

82
Q

How to track to a station?

A

Push the head, pull the tail

Pushed the head when flying toward the NAVAID, pull the tail when flying away

83
Q

What is the initial wind correction?

A

30* at airspeeds < 90kts
20* at airspeeds =/>90kts

84
Q

What is the first trial correction?

A

Half the initial correction

85
Q

What is the lead used for intercepting an arc?

A

.5NM

86
Q

What is a lead radial?

A

The radial at which the trun from the arc to the inbound course is started

87
Q

How is Class A airspace classified?

A

18000’ MSL-FL600, including airspace overlying the waters within 12NM of the coast.

Must operate IFR

88
Q

How is Class B airspace classified?

A

Surface to 10000’ MSL
The configuration is individually tailored and designed to contain all instrument apporaches

ATC must clear you into the airspace

89
Q

How is Class C airspace classified?

A

Surface to 4000’ MSL, typically a 5 NM
10NM from 1200-4000’

Must establish two way radio communications with ATC

90
Q

How is Class D airspace classified?

A

Surface to 2,500’ MSL

Must establish two way radio communications with ATC

91
Q

How is Class E airspace classified?

A

Begins at 700 or 1200 AGL used to make the transition to and from the enroute environment. Begins at 14500’MSL

92
Q

What are the special use airspace?

A

Prohibited
Restricted
Warning
MOA
Alert
CFA

93
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

Flying in this airspace is prohibited, usually established over areas of national security

94
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

Areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft

If unactive, the owning unit will clear you into the airspace

95
Q

What is a warning area?

A

Warn nonparticipating aircraft of potential danger.

Extending 3NM outward from the coast of the US

96
Q

What is an MOA?

A

Military operation area. Meant to separate IFR traffic from military training activities

97
Q

What is an alert area?

A

To inform nonparticipating aircraft of areas with high volume or aviator or aerial training

98
Q

What is a CFA?

A

Controlled Firing Area

99
Q

What is other airspace?

A

Airspace that has not been designated special-use or given airspace classification

Military training routes and national security areas

100
Q

What does ICAO stand for?

A

Intertional Civil Aviaiton Organization

General Army Aviation Knowledge (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions