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NCLE Test Review > Instruction and Delivery Procedures > Flashcards

Instruction and Delivery Procedures Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The tolerance for the overall lens diameter according to the ANSI standards is:

A. +/- 0.005 mm
B. +/- 0.05 mm
C. +/- 0.01 mm
D. +/- 0.1 mm

A

+/- 0.05 mm

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2
Q
  1. All of the following will enable the practitioner to verify the overall gas permeable lens diameter except:

A. Slot gauge
B. Shadowgraph
C. Measuring magnifier
D. Radiuscope

A

Radiuscope

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3
Q
  1. Placing the concave side of a gas permeable lens against the lens stop of the lensometer will provide you with which of the following:

A. Back vertex power
B. Front vertex power
C. Best vertex power
D. Closest vertex power

A

Back vertex power

(HINT: concave = back)

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4
Q
  1. An instrument that allows simulations verification of lens diameter, optic zone width, and peripheral curve width is:

A. Measuring magnifier
B. Opthalmometer
C. Profile analyzer
D. Radiuscope

A

Measuring magnifier

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5
Q
  1. When using the thickness gauge on a rigid contact lens, the gauge measures 0.73 mm. The lens is most likely which type of lens?

A. Toric
B. High plus power
C. Bifocal
D. High minus power

A

High plus power

(HINT: thicker in the middle)

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6
Q
  1. The instrument used for magnification of the edge of a rigid contact lens is:

A. Keratometer
B. Shadowgraph
C. Profile analyzer
D. V-groove gauge

A

Shadowgraph

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7
Q
  1. The tolerance for a rigid lens power under +/- 5.00D is:

A. 0.12 D
B. 0.25 D
C. 0.37 D
D. 0.50 D

A

0.12 D

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8
Q
  1. A warper lens will show ___________ base curve(s) on the radiuscope and a ___________ power on the lensometer.

A. One / spherical
B. Two / sphero-cylindrical
C. One / sphero-cylindrical
D. Two / spherical

A

Two / spherical

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9
Q
  1. How does the front vertex power of a high plus lens compare to the back vertex power?

A. Less plus
B. More plus
C. Same
D. It depends on the thickness

A

Less plus

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10
Q
  1. Prolonged periods of reading in contact lenses may lead to lens discomfort due to:

A. Decreased blinking
B. Corneal temperature changes
C. Accommodative repsonse
D. Neovascualrization

A

Decreased blinking

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11
Q
  1. When using the LARS principle for lens rotation correction and comparing the degrees to clock minutes, a toric lens that rotates exactly half-way between 5 o’clock and 6 o’clock must be compensated for by an adjustment of:

A. 15°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 45°

A

15°

(HINT: 1 hour = 30°, 1/2 hour = 15°)

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12
Q
  1. Which type if lens would best satisfy this patient’s visual needs given the following information?
    K’s: 43.00 @ 160 / 44.00 @ 075 3+ distortion
    Rx: -2.00 +1.00 x 075

A. Spherical soft lens
B. Soft toric lens
C. Soft bifocal lens
D. Spherical GP lens

A

Spherical GP lens

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13
Q
  1. A rigid contact lens measures +15.00 D BVP. The FVP will measure:

A. A lesser dioptric reading
B. A greater dioptric reading
C. An identical dioptric reading
D. An astigmatic reading

A

A lesser dioptric reading

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14
Q
  1. The LARS principle provides us with a means of:

A. Calculating the base curve of a rigid lens
B. Compensating for axis rotation of a soft lens
C. Quantifying the degree of corneal warpage
D. Evaluating the progression of kertoconus

A

Compensating for axis rotation of a soft lens

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15
Q
  1. Patients who are fit with lenses that will be worn overnight on a flexible or extended wear basis:

A. Should be seen as early as possible in the morning for a follow-up of overnight wear
B. Should have their follow-up visits late in the day to evaluate their lenses and identify problems related to overnight wear
C. Should be scheduled for a follow-up visit two weeks after the initial fitting
D. Will need minimal follow-up if they have worn daily wear lenses successfully

A

Should be seen as early as possible in the morning for a follow-up of overnight wear

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16
Q
  1. The base curve of a rigid lens was ordered 7.84 mm and was received measuring 7.94 mm. This lens is ___________ than ordered.

A. 0.50 D steeper
B. 1.00 D steeper
C. 0.50 D flatter
D. 1.00 D flatter

A

0.50 D flatter

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17
Q
  1. To steepen the lens to cornea relationship of a gas permeable lens you could:

A. Increase overall diameter and decrease optic zone diameter
B. Increase overall diameter and increase optic zone diameter
C. Increase optic zone diameter and decrease overall diameter
D. Increase optic zone diameter and flatten base curve

A

Increase overall diameter and increase optic zone diameter

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18
Q
  1. Given the following information:
    K’s: 42.50 @ 180 / 44.50 @ 090
    Rx: -3.50 -2.50 x 090
    Select the power if the lens is ordered on half diopter steeper than K:

A. -3.50 D
B. -4.00 D
C. -4.75 D
D. -6.00

A

-4.00 D

(HINT: SAM/FAP)

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19
Q
  1. Jill is wearing a rigid lens with the base curve of 44.00 D and a power of +3.00 D sphere. She requires an over-refraction of -0.50 D and the lens needs to be steepened by 0.50 D. What parameters should be ordered for the new lens?

A. 44.00 +2.50
B. 44.50 +2.00
C. 44.50 +4.00
D. 44.50 +3.00

A

44.50 +2.00

(HINT: Rx + Over-refraction, then apply SAM/FAP)

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20
Q
  1. Corneal edema, a sensation of soreness, injection, foggy vision and ghost images usually indicate:

A. A tight fitting lens
B. Excessive lens movement
C. Decentration and corneal exposure
D. A lens that is too small and too flat

A

A tight fitting lens

21
Q
  1. Carol’s GP contact lenses are fit on flat K. Her refraction is -5.00 +2.00 x 090. What is the power of her contact lens?

A. -3.00 D
B. -4.00 D
C. -5.00 D
D. -7.00

A

-3.00 D

22
Q
  1. During a follow-up exam, a patient wearing soft lenses, reports that their vision is clearer immediately after the blink and then blurs. The most likely cause is:

A. A flat fitting lens
B. A steep fitting lens
C. Residual astigmatism
D. A thick lens

A

A steep fitting lens

23
Q
  1. The best technique to evaluate the movement of a thin hydrogel lens is:

A. Push up test
B. Observing post-blink movement
C. Watch movement with the patient lookin up
D. Watch movement with the patient looking down

A

Push up test

24
Q
  1. Which of the following hobbies and activities should be discussed with the patient?

A. Long periods of computer work
B. Long periods of reading
C. Long periods of driving
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

25
Q
  1. What is the definition of “disinfection” as it relates to the care of contact lenses?

A. A procedure that reduces the level of microbial contamination on lens surfaces
B. A physical of chemical procedure that destroys all microbial life
C. A procedure in which the result is more lethal to microbes than sterilization
D. None of the above

A

A procedure that reduces the level of microbial contamination on lens surfaces

26
Q
  1. The measuring magnifier may be used to measure which of the following GP parameters?

A. Diameter, thickness and posterior optic zone diameter
B. Base curve and diameter
C. Posterior optic zone diameter and overall diameter
D. Secondary curve radii

A

Posterior optic zone diameter and overall diameter

27
Q
  1. What does it mean when we say the soft lens must equilibrate on the eye?

A. The lens must center
B. The polymer of the lens must reach the same temperature as the tear film
C. The lens must firmly adhere to the cornea
D. None of the above

A

The polymer of the lens must reach the same temperature as the tear film

28
Q
  1. If a soft contact lens becomes adherent to the cornea, the patient should:

A. Irrigate the eye profusely with warm water until the lens becomes loose
B. Pinch the lens off the eye by placing the thumb and forefinger at 3 and 9 o’clock
C. Irrigate the eye with saline or rewetting drops until the lens begins to move freely again
D. Use a DMV suction cup to remove lens

A

Irrigate the eye with saline or rewetting drops until the lens begins to move freely again

29
Q
  1. Poor GP insertion or recentering techniques may result in:

A. 3 and 9 o’clock staining
B. The lack of a fulcrum at 3 and 9 o’clock
C. Arcuate staining
D. Coalesced SPK centrally

A

Arcuate staining

30
Q
  1. What is an essential characteristic of an ideal wetting solution?

A. The solution must be non-preserved
B. They should be formulated so that they can be instilled directly into the eye without causing irritation or sensitization
C. They should form a film that will be washed away during the period in which the lens is worn
D. They must be acidic

A

They should be formulated so that they can be instilled directly into the eye without causing irritation or sensitization

31
Q
  1. Which soft lens care system is most effective in the removal of deposits?

A. Hydrogen peroxide systems
B. Multi-purpose solutions
C. Heat systems
D. They are equally effective

A

Hydrogen peroxide systems

32
Q
  1. Which of the following preservatives produces the least toxic response of the eye?

A. Sorbate or sorbic acid
B. Polyquad
C. Chlorhexidine
D. Thimerosal

A

Polyquad

33
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about eye make-up is correct?

A. Eyeliner should be applied to the inner margin of the eyelids near the lashes
B. Eyeliner and mascara should be replaced every 3 to 6 months to avoid contamination
C. Mascara should be applied to the base of the lashes only
D. Eye make-up should be applied before inserting contact lenses

A

Eyeliner and mascara should be replaced every 3 to 6 months to avoid contamination

34
Q
  1. If a soft contact lens is not properly neutralized, how does residual hydrogen peroxide affect the cornea?

A. It is likely to cause epithelial damage
B. It causes dimple veil staining
C. It is the first step to developing GPC
D. It does not adversely affect the cornea

A

It is likely to cause epithelial damage

35
Q
  1. When handling contact lenses, what should patients be instructed to do to keep them from becoming deposited with materials from the patient’s environment?

A. The use of lotions and creams must be done before insertion
B. Eye make-up should be applied before the lenses are inserted
C. Aerosol sprays should be used while the lenses are in place
D. Handling spicy foods such as garlic, hot peppers, and onions should be avoided before handling contact lenses

A

Handling spicy foods such as garlic, hot peppers, and onions should be avoided before handling contact lenses

36
Q
  1. What are the requirements of a good contact lens case?

A. It should allow for total immersion of the lens
B. It should contain sponge rubber in the seal
C. It should have an attached mirror
D. It should no be made of plastic

A

It should allow for total immersion of the lens

37
Q
  1. Which of the following cold disinfection chemicals is least likely to cause a reaction when the product is used according to direcctions?

A. Polyquad
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Thimerosal
D. Polyhexadine

A

Hydrogen peroxide

38
Q
  1. If 3% generic hydrogen peroxide is substituted for the solution in one of the FDA-approved hydrogen peroxide care systems:

A. The solution will not neutralize properly
B. The solution may discolor the lens
C. The lenses may disintegrate
D. The patient may develop GPC

A

The solution may discolor the lens

39
Q
  1. Use of a Wratten #12 or Tiffen yellow filter is important in evaluating the fluorescein pattern of patients with GP lenses because:

A. Many patients are wearing lenses containing UV inhibitors that block fluorescein
B. There will be too much fluorescein if a filter is not used
C. 3 and 9 o’clock staining will not show up if the filter is not used
D. The filter will help identify patients with corneal warpage

A

Many patients are wearing lenses containing UV inhibitors that block fluorescein

40
Q
  1. The main purpose of a rigid lens wetting solution is to:

A. Serve as an antimicrobial storage medium
B. Prevent dehydration and warpage of lenses
C. Remove accumulated secretions form the lens surface
D. Convert the hydrophobic surface of a rigid lens to one that is temporarily hydrophilic

A

Convert the hydrophobic surface of a rigid lens to one that is temporarily hydrophilic

41
Q
  1. Newly fitted extended wear patients should have their first recheck in:

A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. 2 weeks
D. 3 weeks

A

24 hours

42
Q
  1. If an adapted contact lens wearer complains of a sudden onset of discomfort, the technician should suspect:

A. A change in corneal curvature
B. Giant pupillary conjunctivitis
C. A damaged contact lens
D. Tight lens syndrome

A

A damaged contact lens

43
Q
  1. If a GP lens fails to provide acceptable visual acuity, the fitter should first:

A. Flatten the lens to cornea relationship
B. Have a sphero-cylindrical over-refraction performed to see if the reduced acuity is due o residual astigmatism
C. Refit the patient with a soft lens
D. Use a lens with a higher Dk/t value

A

Have a sphero-cylindrical over-refraction performed to see if the reduced acuity is due o residual astigmatism

44
Q
  1. Cleaners that contain isopropyl alcohol should not be used on rigid lenses because they:

A. Tend to leave a gummy residue on the lens surface
B. May cloud the lens surface
C. May bleach out the color from the lens
D. May cause parameter changed, brittleness, cracking

A

May cause parameter changed, brittleness, cracking

45
Q
  1. 3 and 9 o’clock staining in GP lens wearers ca best be eliminated by:

A. Reducing center and edge thickness and teaching the patient to blink completely
B. Adding a minus carrier to the lens
C. Using preservative-free saline instead of SP wetting/soaking solution
D. Using a single-cut rather than a multicurve lens design

A

Reducing center and edge thickness and teaching the patient to blink completely

46
Q
  1. The slot gauge is used to measure:

A. The diameter of a rigid lens
B. The posterior optic zone diameter of a rigid lens
C. The thickness of a rigid lens
D. The convex curve of a rigid lens

A

The diameter of a rigid lens

47
Q
  1. A technician can perform a preliminary evaluation of soft contact lens movement by:

A. Observing the movement of the lens edge in relation to the position of a conjunctival vessel
B. Having the patient look up and blink
C. Observing movement and lens lag in upward and lateral gaze with a penlight
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

48
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning lens movement is not correct?

A. A tight lens may cause blanching of the limbal vessels
B. A tight lens may cause scleral indentation
C. A loose lens may cause blurred vision immediately following the blink
D. A loose lens will be considerably more comfortable than a tight lens

A

A loose lens will be considerably more comfortable than a tight lens

NCLE Test Review (4 decks)

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