insomnia Flashcards

1
Q

What is the optimal sleep duration for most adults to maintain good health?

A

7–9 hours per 24-hour period

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2
Q

What adverse outcomes are associated with short sleep duration?

A

Increased mortality

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3
Q

What are the two categories of sleep?

A
  • Rapid eye movement (REM)
  • Non-REM
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4
Q

Which neurotransmitters promote wakefulness?

A
  • Norepinephrine
  • Acetylcholine
  • Histamine
  • Orexin
  • Serotonin
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5
Q

Which neurotransmitters promote sleep?

A
  • g-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)
  • Adenosine
  • Melatonin
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6
Q

What is the typical duration of a sleep cycle?

A

70–120 minutes

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7
Q

What is the incidence of insomnia in older adult patients?

A

As high as 40%

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8
Q

What are common sleep-wake disorders recognized by DSM-5?

A
  • Insomnia disorder
  • Hypersomnia disorder
  • Narcolepsy
  • Breathing-related sleep disorders
  • Parasomnias
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9
Q

What is insomnia characterized by?

A
  • Difficulty initiating sleep
  • Difficulty maintaining sleep
  • Early morning awakening
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10
Q

How often must sleep difficulty occur for a diagnosis of insomnia?

A

At least 3 nights of the week

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11
Q

What nonpharmacologic management can be used for insomnia?

A

Cognitive therapy with behavioral treatments (CBT)

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12
Q

What are the treatment goals for insomnia?

A
  • Improved sleep quality
  • Improved insomnia-related daytime impairments
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13
Q

What is the recommended duration for initial pharmacotherapy for insomnia?

A

2–4 weeks

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14
Q

What are the risks associated with long-term use of hypnotic medications?

A
  • Tolerance
  • Dependence
  • Residual daytime sedation
  • Rebound insomnia
  • Anterograde amnesia
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15
Q

Which class of medications is primarily used as sedatives for insomnia?

A

Benzodiazepines

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16
Q

What differentiates benzodiazepines from one another?

A
  • Onset of action
  • Metabolism
  • Half-life
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17
Q

What is the half-life classification of benzodiazepines?

A
  • Short acting (less than 6 hours)
  • Intermediate acting (6–24 hours)
  • Long acting (more than 24 hours)
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18
Q

What are Z-drugs used for?

A

Treatment of insomnia

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19
Q

Which Z-drug is indicated for chronic insomnia?

A

Eszopiclone

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20
Q

What is the role of orexin receptor antagonists in insomnia treatment?

A

Decrease sleep latency and promote sleep maintenance

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21
Q

What does the CAGE questionnaire screen for?

A

Alcohol use disorder

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22
Q

What are the four questions in the CAGE questionnaire?

A
  • Cut down on drinking
  • Annoyed by criticism of drinking
  • Felt bad or guilty about drinking
  • Eye-opener drink in the morning
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23
Q

What is the gold standard for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

A

Symptom-driven treatment using the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol scale (CIWA-Ar)

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24
Q

What is a key nutritional consideration for patients with alcohol use disorder?

A

Thiamine supplementation

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25
Q

What dosage of thiamine is recommended for severe cases?

A

100–250 mg intramuscularly/intravenously daily for 3–5 days

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26
Q

What should be administered before glucose to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Thiamine

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27
Q

What is Korsakoff syndrome?

A

A chronic neurocognitive disorder caused by thiamine deficiency

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28
Q

How is thiamine administered in severe cases of Korsakoff syndrome?

A

100–250 mg intramuscularly/intravenously daily for 3–5 days, followed by 100 mg by mouth three times daily for 1 week, then 100 mg daily thereafter

29
Q

Why should thiamine be given before glucose in Korsakoff syndrome treatment?

A

Thiamine is a cofactor for the metabolism of glucose

30
Q

List the nutritional considerations for patients with Korsakoff syndrome.

A
  • Magnesium
  • Electrolytes
  • Fluids
  • Vitamins
31
Q

What role do antiseizure medications play in alcohol withdrawal?

A

They are adjuncts to benzodiazepines in uncontrolled seizures

32
Q

What is Acamprosate (Campral) used for?

A

It reduces cravings in alcohol use disorder

33
Q

What are the dosing considerations for Acamprosate based on renal function?

A

Dose must be decreased for CrCl of 30–50 mL/min; not used if CrCl < 30 mL/min

34
Q

What precautions are associated with Naltrexone?

A

Precaution for hepatocellular injury; liver function tests should be monitored

35
Q

What are the adverse effects of Naltrexone?

A
  • Nausea
  • Diarrhea
  • Injection site reactions
  • Headache
  • Insomnia
  • Nervousness
36
Q

What is Disulfiram (Antabuse) used for?

A

It blocks acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, causing adverse effects if alcohol is consumed

37
Q

What symptoms may occur if alcohol is consumed while on Disulfiram?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Flushing
  • Headache
38
Q

What is the Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale (COWS) used for?

A

To monitor the severity of opioid withdrawal symptoms

39
Q

What is considered a severe score on the COWS?

A

A score greater than 36

40
Q

What are the first-line treatments for severe opioid withdrawal?

A
  • Buprenorphine
  • Methadone
41
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Methadone?

A

Full agonist with an affinity for the opioid mu-opioid receptor

42
Q

What is the black-box warning associated with Methadone?

A

Fatal respiratory depression and prolonged QTc interval

43
Q

What is unique about Buprenorphine’s action at the mu-opioid receptor?

A

It is a partial agonist and an antagonist of the kappa receptor

44
Q

What is the ceiling effect in Buprenorphine?

A

It displaces other opioids but provides a limited effect with increasing doses

45
Q

What are the phases of Buprenorphine treatment?

A
  • Induction
  • Stabilization
  • Maintenance
46
Q

What must occur before administering Naltrexone?

A

The patient must be completely off opioids for 7–10 days

47
Q

What is Lofexidine (Lucemyra) approved for?

A

Treatment of opioid withdrawal

48
Q

What is the primary benefit of smoking cessation?

A

Reduces risk of adverse health effects including cardiovascular diseases and cancer

49
Q

What are the five A’s in assessing willingness to quit smoking?

A
  • Ask about tobacco use
  • Advise to quit
  • Assess willingness to quit
  • Assist in quit attempt
  • Arrange for follow-up
50
Q

List the seven pharmacologic agents available for smoking cessation.

A
  • Nicotine replacement therapy (5 types)
  • Bupropion
  • Varenicline
51
Q

What is the recommended starting dose for the nicotine patch for heavy smokers?

A

21 mg/day for 6 weeks

52
Q

What should patients avoid when using nicotine gum?

A

Acidic beverages at least 15 minutes before use

53
Q

What is the recommended duration of therapy for nasal spray nicotine replacement?

A

3–6 months, with tapering

54
Q

What is the primary concern with nicotine nasal spray?

A

Higher risk of dependency compared to other forms

55
Q

What is Varenicline’s mechanism of action?

A

It is a nicotine receptor partial agonist

56
Q

When should Varenicline be started in relation to the quit date?

A

1 week before the quit date

57
Q

What is the recommended duration for pharmacologic treatment to increase the chances of quitting smoking?

A

At least 8 weeks, up to 6 months

Longer treatment duration can enhance the likelihood of successful cessation.

58
Q

What is Varenicline classified as?

A

A nicotine receptor partial agonist

It blocks the effects of nicotine from smoking.

59
Q

When should Varenicline be started in relation to the quit date?

A

1 week before the quit day

Patients can choose to quit up to 35 days after starting Varenicline.

60
Q

What is the total duration for which Varenicline should be continued?

A

12 weeks

If successful, it can be extended for another 12 weeks.

61
Q

What significant warning regarding Varenicline was removed in 2016?

A

The black boxed warning about neuropsychiatric symptoms

This change reflected updated safety information.

62
Q

Name two other agents used in smoking cessation treatment.

A
  • Clonidine
  • Nortriptyline

These can be alternatives if initial pharmacologic therapy is unsuccessful.

63
Q

What should be done for patients who were unsuccessful with one form of pharmacologic therapy?

A

Try a different method

This approach increases the chances of successful smoking cessation.

64
Q

What organization released guidelines for initiating pharmacologic treatment in tobacco-dependent adults?

A

The American Thoracic Society

Their guidelines include strong and conditional recommendations.

65
Q

List three strong recommendations made by the ATS for tobacco-dependent adults starting treatment.

A
  • Varenicline over a nicotine patch
  • Varenicline over bupropion
  • Varenicline plus a nicotine patch over varenicline alone

These recommendations are based on effectiveness.

66
Q

What is recommended for patients who are not ready to quit smoking?

A

Start varenicline treatment rather than wait

Early intervention can facilitate eventual cessation.

67
Q

What is a conditional recommendation made by the ATS for tobacco-dependent adults with comorbid psychiatric conditions?

A

Varenicline over a nicotine patch

This is specific to patients with additional psychiatric concerns.

68
Q

What is the recommendation regarding the duration of therapy with Varenicline?

A

Extended-duration (more than 12 weeks) therapy over standard-duration (6–12 weeks)

Longer treatment may provide better outcomes.