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Canadian ATPL - SARON SAMRA INRAT MEP > INRAT > Flashcards

INRAT Flashcards

1
Q

Where is a clearance or an instruction valid?

A

Only in a controlled airspace

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2
Q

Which is the T° range in which an aircraft is most likely to be struck by a lightning?

A

Between -5°C and +5°C

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3
Q

How can you obtain better information from your on-board weather radar (for example when you’re flight in moderate rain)?

A

Use the tilt control to move the radar’s antenna angle on the vertical plan

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4
Q

How does a DME work?

A

The DME device in the aircraft measures the time interval between two signals :

  • an interrogating signal
  • a matching ground signal sent as a reply

These two signals have different frequencies.

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5
Q

What is the accuracy of the DME?

A

+/- 0,5NM or 3% of the displayed distance (whichever is greater)

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6
Q

Formula for time to NDB?

A

Time elapsed (in seconds) / relative bearing change (degrees)

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7
Q

Formula for distance to NDB?

A

( GS x Time to NDB in min ) / 60

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8
Q

What is the recommended procedure when flying into a TS?

A
  • Slow down to turbulence penetration speed
  • do not maintain rigid airspeed or altitude
  • keep your present heading (so you don’t stress the aircraft structure)
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9
Q

How long an altimeter setting can be considered usable/current?

A

Up to 90 minutes.

However, care should be exercised if AS is older than 60 minutes.

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10
Q

How can you calculate your rate of climb in function of the climb gradient you need and your groundspeed?

A

RoC = ( Climb gradient x GS ) / 60

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11
Q

What are the requirements for 1,000ft-on-top IFR flight?

A
  • Flight is conducted at least 1,000ft above all cloud, haze, smoke or other formation
  • Flight visibility above the formation is at least 3 SM
  • The top of the formation is well defined
  • Appropriate altitude regarding direction of the flight is maintained
  • The 1,000ft-on-top has been approved by ATC
  • Aircraft will operate in Class B, C, D or E
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12
Q

What is the range of an ILS localizer?

A

35° on each side of RWY CL, on 10NM.

Then 10° on each side of RWY CL, on another 8NM (18NM total)

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13
Q

What are the radius, in regard of the aircraft category, for a visual manoeuvring area (for circling approaches)?

A 
Cat. A = 1,3 NM
Cat. B = 1,5 NM
Cat. C = 1,7 NM
Cat. D = 2,3 NM
Cat. E = 4,5 NM

AIM RAC 9.23

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14
Q

How does frontal fog form?

A

Usually at a warm front, the precipitation coming from warm air saturates the cold air, creating frontal (or precipitation) fog.

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15
Q

How does a VOR work?

A

By measuring the phase difference between two transmitted signals.

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16
Q

What is the max deflection of a CDI when used with GNSS?

A

Enroute mode : +/- 2 NM with WAAS, +/- 5 NM without WAAS
Terminal mode : +/- 1 NM
Approach mode : +/- 0,3 NM

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17
Q

Definition of a touchdown zone

A

First 3,000ft or first 1/3 of a RWY, measured from the threshold, whichever is shorter.

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18
Q

What is governing T/O decision in IFR?

A
  1. RVR
  2. Ground visibility provided by ATC (or when RVR is fluctuating above and below minima)
  3. Visibility determined by the pilot
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19
Q

What is governing approach minima in Canada?

A

Approaches are governed by RVR.

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20
Q

What is governing landing decision in Canada?

A

DH for precision approaches (ILS)

MDA for non-precision approaches (all others)

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21
Q

What does BPOC mean?

A

Before Proceeding On Course

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22
Q

What are the SPEC VIS regarding the category of aircraft?

A

Category A : 1 SM
Category B : 1 1/2 SM
Category C and D : 2 SM

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23
Q

Which conditions do you have to comply with to be able to follow a departure procedure?

A

35ft above opposite threshold (departure end of the RWY)
Maintain RWY HDG to 400ft AAE before turning
Maintain a min climb gradient of 200ft/NM

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24
Q

What will be the visual illusion when turning from tailwind to headwind?

A

Illusion of decrease in speed and skid

On the contrary, when turning from headwind to tailwind, you will have an illusion of increase in speed and slip.

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25
Q

When choosing an alternate, if there is no IFR approach available, what are the weather minima?

A

Ceiling at least 500ft above the minimum IFR altitude, that will permit a VFR approach and landing.

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26
Q

What are the weather minima for an alternate where only a GFA is available?

A
  • 1,000ft above lowest HAT/HAA
  • No CB
  • Visibility 3 SM
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27
Q

In a TAF, how do you use BECMG/TEMPO/PROB when choosing an alternate?

A

Taking the worse conditions of BECMG or TEMPO for the approach minima.

The PROB has to be above the landing minima requirements.

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28
Q

What are the conditions to conduct a contact approach?

A

Clear of clouds
1 NM flight visibility (NM !!!)
Reasonable expectancy of keeping these conditions to the destination airport

Only on pilot request
Pilot is responsible for noise abatment procedures and restrictions induced by Class F airspaces
Instrument, GNSS or GNSS overlay approach is available

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29
Q

What are the weather minima to conduct a visual approach?

A

Reported ceiling 500ft above minimum IFR altitude

3 SM visibility

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30
Q

In which cases can you pursue an approach even if RVR is below minima?

A
  • In case of flight training, with the intent to conduct a missed approach
  • In CATIII approaches
  • RVR is received after the FAF
  • RVR is fluctuating above and below minima, and ground visibility is above 1/4 SM.
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31
Q

What is the accuracy of the ADF?

A

En route : +/- 10°

On approach : +/- 5°

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32
Q

What is the suitable delay before the flight to file an IFR flight plan?

A

30 minutes, or 60 minutes for a flight to a foreign country

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33
Q

What determines the weather associated with a front?

A

Stability and moisture of the warm air mass

Speed of the cold air mass

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34
Q

Types of ice related to rate of catch and droplets size?

A

Rime ice = small droplets, low rate of catch (mainly stratiform clouds)
Clear ice = large droplets, high rate of catch (mainly cumuliform clouds)

Thin airfoil will also catch more ice than thick ones. Horizontal stabilizers will catch ice at a higher rate than wings. Speed of the aircraft is also a factor.

In any case, droplets are formed close to the freezing point, in the lower levels of the cloud (however, you can find supercooled droplets as cold as -40°C)

Small droplets freeze/solidify at lower T° than large ones.

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35
Q

What is the tolerance for an assigned speed during radar vectoring?

A

+/- 10 KIAS

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36
Q

How long is an instrument rating valid? What are the recency requirements?

A

24 months

RR :

  • the original flight test within the last 12 months
  • 6h of instrument flying, with 6 approaches to the minima, within last 6 months
  • Same as above as a flight instructor
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37
Q

What is involved when a TAF includes the code VRB?

A

Wind is variable AND less than 3 kts

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38
Q

What is NOT mandatory when conducting a GNSS overlay approach?

A

It is not mandatory to monitor the ground-based navaids (VOR, etc.) (although it’s good airmanship)

Ground-based navaids and aircraft equipment are not to be installed and/or functioning when conducting an overlay approach (unless AFM requires it)

GNSS overlay approaches don’t exist over LOC-based approaches.

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39
Q

What is always provided by ATC in IFR? (included in the IFR clearance)

A

Traffic separation.

Obstacle clearance is the responsibility of the PIC (except during radar vectors, or when following a SID)

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40
Q

Outside minimum IFR altitude zones (airways/air routes) in mountainous areas, what is the minimum height above the highest obstacle you should respect?

A

1,500ft within 5 NM in zones 2, 3 and 4

2,000ft within 5 NM in zones 1 and 5

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41
Q

Tell me more about de-icing/anti-icing fluids types

A

Type I : 80% glycol, low viscosity, most for de-icing

Type II : 50% min glycol, higher viscosity, to be used on aircrafts with Vr > 100 KIAS

Type III : freezing point depressant, with a viscosity between Type I and Type II

Type IV : evolution of Type II, with a longer holdover time, dyed in green

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42
Q

What is the main error that can affect VOR?

A

At high altitude, the station coverage area may overlap, which causes Omni reading to be erroneous

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43
Q

What is the common frequency of a VOT?

A

There is none, each station has its frequency and there is no common one.

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44
Q

What does NOT ASSESSED mean on a departure procedure?

A

It means that the IFR departure hasn’t been assessed for obstacle clearance.

PIC is therefore responsible for determining climb gradients and routings for obstacle clearance and terrain avoidance.

ATC terms (« on departure », « right turn », « climb on course » etc.) are not to be considered specific departure instructions

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45
Q

What are the max airspeed for an hold?

A

At or below 6,000ft ASL : 200 KIAS
6,001ft to 14,000ft ASL : 230 KIAS
14,001ft ASL and above : 265 KIAS

Military aerodromes : 310 KIAS
Helicopters : 90 KIAS

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46
Q

What is the obstacle clearance provided by a circling approach procedure?

A

300ft above all obstacles in the visual manoeuvring area

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47
Q

Within how many minutes from planned engine start time an early request for an IFR clearance can be made by the pilot?

A

5 minutes

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48
Q

What is the formula to calculate the rate of descent? (for a standard 3° glide slope)

A

RoD (ft/min) = 5 x GS (kts)

49
Q

How is defined an air mass?

A

By its moisture (Maritime, Continental)
By its temperature (Arctic, Polaire, Tropical)

In Canada, from north to south : cA, mA, mP, mT

50
Q

How is called a loss of weather radar strength?

A

Attenuation

It may be caused by accumulation of ice on the radome.

51
Q

Which weather phenomena will give the greatest echo on airborne weather radar?

A

Wet hail > rain > wet snow > dry hail > dry snow

52
Q

When will ADF night error will be the greatest?

A

With high frequency stations
When the aircraft is far from the station

ADF night error is caused by the increase of sky waves, the ionosphere sending back more waves than during the day. These sky waves interfere with ground waves.

53
Q

On a GNSS approach, what should you do if your RAIM is not available before FAWP?

A

Conduct the missed approach procedure

54
Q

What is the correct sequence for an IFR position report?

A 
Identification
Position
Time
Altitude
IFR
Next reporting point + ETA
Next reporting point (after the other)
Remarks

This sequence is published in the CFS

55
Q

A few things to know about the DME arcs…

A
  • They provide 1,000ft obstacle clearance
  • They can be joined at any point of the arc
  • It provides transition to IF
56
Q

What correction to ceiling and visibility minima do you apply if you can’t set the altimeter setting in your altimeter? (above 31,00inHg)

A

For each 0,1inHg :

  • Add 1/4 SM to min visibility
  • Add 100ft to min ceiling
57
Q

Where is an AWOS located? What is the max reported visibility of an AWOS (i.e. in a METAR AUTO)?

A

On the aerodrome.

If AWOS or human observer is located further than 3km (1,6 NM) from the geometric centre of runway complex, the Wx report will come from CWxx instead of CYxx.

AWOS can report visibility up to 9 SM.

58
Q

Explain the black hole effect

A

It occurs at night when the terrain before the RWY threshold is not lighted (water, dark ground, etc.)

It gives the illusion of being too high, resulting in a too low approach and to possible ground contact short of RWY.

59
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation between aircrafts when departure is radar vectored?

A
  • Light behind Medium : 4 NM
  • Light behind Heavy : 6 NM
  • Medium behind Heavy : 5 NM
  • Heavy behind Heavy : 4 NM

+ 2 NM to « behind Heavy » if Super Heavy

Super Heavy behind Super Heavy : 4 NM

60
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation applied by ATC when departure is non-radar?

A

Two minutes behind a heavy aircraft if

  • TO takes place at the threshold
  • TO takes place on a parallel RWY located less than 2,500ft away

Behind medium aircrafts, light aircrafts will be issued wake turbulence advisory, but not the 2-minute separation.

Three minutes behind a heavy aircraft, or for a light aircraft taking off behind a medium one if :

  • TO takes place at an intersection
  • TO takes place further than the TO point of the preceding aircraft
  • Controller thinks that the following aircraft will need more RWY length than the preceding one.
61
Q

What are the variations from your flight plan that you should advise to ATC?

A
  • Speed (TAS) : 5% or more
  • Mach number : 0,01 Mach
  • Time of report : 3 min or more
62
Q

In an active TS, where are located the greatest turbulences?

A

Inside the mid-level of the TS (between 12,000 and 20,000ft)

63
Q

Which distance should you keep between your aircraft and an active TS?

A

20 NM

64
Q

What is the accuracy for published VOR radials?

A

+/- 3°

65
Q

What should you know about the coastal error of an ADF?

A

The error is greater when the angle between your track and the shoreline is small (less than 30°).

There is almost no error when you fly 90° from the shoreline.

66
Q

What is the lowest FL available when the altimeter setting is less than 29,92inHg?

A

Between 28,92 and 29,91 : FL190
Between 27,92 and 28,91 : FL200

AIM RAC 6.4.3

67
Q

Over navigation aids, when will additional protected airspace be provided?

A

Above FL180, when track changes by 15° or more

AIM RAC 6.4.6

68
Q

Around an airport with radar, which separation can a controller provide to IFR aircraft?

A

Within 40 miles of the airport, 3 miles separation.

Beyond 40 miles of the airport, 5 miles separation.

69
Q

When you’re flying off-airways tracks, which protected airspace is provided?

A

45 NM on each side of your track (beyond navigational and signal coverage range)

70
Q

On an airport with more than one RWY, what is the max XW component for an active RWY?

A

25 knots

While TWR determines an active RWY, the RWY choice remains, ultimately, the PIC responsability.

71
Q

When will ATC provide radar vectors during a SID?

A

Only when NAP have been complied with.

72
Q

Which type of aircrafts can operate in RVSM airspace without being RVSM compliant?

A
  • State aircraft
  • Photography survey aircraft
  • Humanitarian/mercy aircraft
  • Aircraft conducting Navaid checks or certification/development flight
  • Aircraft on delivery
73
Q

EWH regarding PAPI categories?

A

AP-P1 : 0 to 9,9ft
P2 : 10 to 24,9ft
P3 : 25 to 45ft

74
Q

How can a civilian aircraft use a TACAN or VORTAC facility?

A

Civilian aircrafts have access to the DME part of the TACAN.

They can use a VORTAC in the same way as a VOR/DME (using civil VOR and DME component of the TACAN).

75
Q

Give the spatial coverage indicated by the following abbreviations :
LCL, PTCHY, XTNSV, ISOLD, OCNL, FRQ

A

For convective clouds and showers, spatial coverage is :

  • ISOLD : 25% or less
  • OCNL : 26 to 50%
  • FRQ : greater than 50%

For non-convective clouds and precipitations, spatial coverage is :

  • LCL : 25% or less
  • PTCHY : 26 to 50%
  • XTNSV : greater than 50%
76
Q

When choosing an alternate, what is the max visibility that can be taken into account?

A

3 SM

77
Q

What does the abbreviation DNS mean?

A

Dense

78
Q

What minimum IFR altitude can you use if you’re flying along airways using your GNSS?

A

You can file or request an altitude below MEA, but at or above MOCA.

However, if you receive an RAIM alert and you’re out of range of the navaids, you should advise ATS and climb, so you can use the navaids instead of GPS.

AIM COM 5.4.1

79
Q

When will a NOTAM be issued regarding WAAS inavailability?

A

When the WAAS service is expected not to be available for more than 15 minutes

80
Q

When making an altitude report, what increment should a pilot under IFR use?

A

100-feet increment (especially in climbs and descents)

AIM RAC 8.3

81
Q

You’re cleared to descent below 10,000ft ASL, but your speed is too high to comply with the 250 KIAS speed limit (CAR 602.32). What should you do?

A

You must level off at 10,000ft ASL to reduce your speed and immediately advise ATC of the descent interruption.

82
Q

What would happen if you had to use the alternate static source?

A
  • Altimeter may indicate higher altitude
  • VSI will show a climb, then come back to initial indication
  • ASI will show a greater airspeed
83
Q

Where can you find the landing minima of a PAR approach?

A

In the General Section of CAP or on the approach plate of the intended RWY.

84
Q

What does TCH mean?

A

Threshold Crossing Height

Usually used for ILS glide paths

85
Q

What are the 4 types of hypoxia and what are their causes?

A

Hypoxic hypoxia : you don’t get enough oxygen from outside (mainly caused by altitude, hypobaric hypoxia)

Anaemic hypoxia : your blood can’t carry oxygen to your body cells. Caused by low haemoglobin, or you haemoglobin being used by carbon monoxide.

Ischaemic hypoxia : your blood can’t reach your body cells. Caused by medical condition, blood vessels constriction or hard accelerations (high G’s).

Histotoxic hypoxia : your body cells can’t use the oxygen provided. Caused by poisoning, tobacco, alcohol, etc.

86
Q

What are the different types of NOTAMs?

A 
NOTAMN : New NOTAM
NOTAMR : Replacing NOTAM
NOTAMC : Cancelling NOTAM
NOTAMJ : RSC/CRFI NOTAM
NOTAMQ : Query/Response NOTAM
87
Q

What is the procedure in the event of a communication failure while in VMC?

A

IFR flights shall be continued under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

88
Q

What is the procedure in the event of a communication failure while in IMC?

A

Route and altitude assigned in last ATC clearance received and acknowledged

Route and altitude advised by ATC that may be expected in a further clearance (wait for EFCT to climb)

If no assigned or expected route, flight plan route

If radar-vectored, by direct route between point of comm failure and fix, route or airway specified in vector clearance + minimum IFR altitude (climb immediately and maintain if radar-vectored at a lower altitude)

89
Q

What is the procedure in the event of a communication failure while in descent for approach?

A
  • Maintain en-route altitude to the IAF, then start a descent procedure at last ETA or EAT (calculated or received and acknowledged)
  • If failure occurs after a holding instruction, hold as directed and start approach at EAT of EFCT.
  • If flying a STAR, do the procedure above and go to the FAF by published routing.
90
Q

What does happen if you can’t depart from an uncontrolled aerodrome within 60 minutes of the proposed departure time?

A

If you fail to notify ATC of the delay, the SAR will be activated.

91
Q

In an aircraft equipped with two altimeters, what is the tolerance for the difference between the two?

A

+/- 50ft

92
Q

What are the pressure levels used for Sig Wx charts?

A 
850mb = 5,000ft
700mb = 10,000ft
500mb = 18,000ft
400mb = 24,000ft
250mb = 34,000ft
93
Q

In an IFR flight, who files your arrival report?

A

Tower or FSS

94
Q

A front is named after?

A

The name and/or direction of the coldest air mass

95
Q

What is the radius of the weather forecast provided by a TAF?

A

5 NM.

AIM MET 7.2

96
Q

What is the minimum gust speed for the gust to be forecasted in a TAF?

A

Gust strength is forecast to be 10 kts more than the mean wind speed.

In a METAR it’s 5 kts.

97
Q

Where does the greatest slant range of a DME occur?

A

At high altitude and close to the station.

98
Q

Does every LOC installation provide a back-course signal?

A

No.

99
Q

What is the extent of RVSM airspace?

A

FL290 to FL410 inclusively.

100
Q

When should you descend below circling MDA during circling approach?

A

When you have acquired sufficient visual references that will allow you to make a normal descent and landing.

101
Q

What are the main effects of rain on the windshield?

A

You will have the illusion of being higher and further from the RWY.

Therefore resulting in a too low approach, or even CFIT,

RWY might also appear shorter.

A hilltop half a mile away can appear 260ft lower

102
Q

When can ATC clear an IFR flight through a Class F airspace? (i.e. in CYA)

A
  • The pilot states that permission has been obtained from the user agency
  • the aircraft is operating on an altitude reservation approval
  • the aircraft has been cleared for a contact or visual approach
103
Q

How does a 3-bar VASIS work?

A

Wide-body aircraft use UPPER bars (one line with 1 light)

Normal-body aircraft use LOWER bars (both lines have 2 lights)

104
Q

What are the effects of the ADF thunderstorm error?

A

TS error causes excessive fluctuation of the bearing pointer, and the pointer to point towards the thunderstorm.

105
Q

When does a lead radial (LR) is provided on an approach plate?

A

When a turn of 90° or more is required.

106
Q

Flying along an air route, how should you do your position report?

A
  • On 126,7
  • Over every navaid along the route
  • It should include position, track, altitude, altimeter setting, next report and ETA.
107
Q

Which factors may be useful to determine the position of a surface front?

A

T°, dew point, winds, pressure

108
Q

Which indication can a rainfall gradient on an airborne weather radar give?

A

It is a way to observe areas of turbulence

109
Q

What is the normal validity of a SIGMET?

A

4h validity, and it may be issued 4h prior to the commencement of the phenomenon.

In the case of a volcanic ash or tropical storm SIGMET, it is valid for 6h and may be issued up to 12h before.

In all cases, the Wx phenomenon must be severe.

110
Q

What does occur with VFR restriction?

A

Pilot must provide separation and wake turbulence separation with all traffic (VFR and IFR).

111
Q

In you level off after a long descent, what will you likely feel?

A

That the aircraft is still descending. (Hmmm…)

112
Q

Which type of front may produce the greatest turbulence?

A

Summer cold front.

113
Q

What is a steady-state TS and how is it caused?

A

It’s a frontal TS, caused by frontal lift (often associated with rapidly moving cold fronts, but can also happen with warm fronts).

They can last for hours!

114
Q

On what is based the IFR Outlook of a GFA?

A
  • VFR : ceiling above 3,000ft AGL, 5SM visibility
  • MVFR : ceiling between 1,000ft and 3,000ft, 3 to 5SM visibility
  • IFR : ceiling below 1,000ft AGL, less than 3SM visibility
115
Q

What are the checks requirements for the aircraft?

A

Transponder must be checked every 12 months (battery changed every 24 months).

All other (pitot-static system, altimeter, compass, etc.) must be checked every 24 months.

116
Q

What is the advantage of SSR upon PSR?

A

It eliminates ground and precipitation clutter.

117
Q

What should you do with an IFR clearance?

A

Read it back entirely.

118
Q

Clouds above freezing level = ?

A

Icing!

119
Q

Pilot’s seat in low position can lead to?

A

An undetected undershoot (hmm…)

Canadian ATPL - SARON SAMRA INRAT MEP (7 decks)

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