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Physiology - 1st midterm > Inner compartment + blood + Immunphysiology > Flashcards

Inner compartment + blood + Immunphysiology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the major 3 subcompartments of the EC space ?

A
  1. intravascular
  2. interstitial
  3. transcellular
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2
Q

what is the concentration for plasma water within the intravascular compartment ?

A

45 ml/bwkg

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3
Q

what is the concentration of blood cells within the intravascular compartment ?

A

35 ml/bwkg

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4
Q

what is the concentration of soft tissues within the interstitium compartment ?

A

120-150 ml/bwkg

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5
Q

what is the concentration of fibrous connective tissues within the interstitium compartment ?

A

45 ml/bwkg

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6
Q

what is the concentration of transcellular compartment ?

A

15ml/bwkg

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7
Q

how do you quantify volume ?

A

by steward dilution principle

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8
Q

How can we assess density by TBW?

A

weigh the mass (m)

quantify volume (V)

calculate density (m/V)

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9
Q

LBM has a constant water content of

A

73 %

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10
Q

fat has a constant water content of

A

10 %

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11
Q

what the TOBEC measures ?

A

the fat content of the body with high precision.

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12
Q

what fast distribution of the EC space using Stewart-principle can show us ?

A

volume of the soft tissues

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13
Q

what the slow distribution of the EC space using Stewart-principle can show us ?

A

volume of the soft and fibrous tissues

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14
Q

what the late distribution of the EC space using Stewart-principle can show us ?

A

volume of the bone tissue.

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15
Q

what forces move water ?

A

osmotic and hydrostatic

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16
Q

How long does it take to equalize the osmolality of the EC and IC compratments ?

A

few minutes

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17
Q

What are the symptoms of isoosmotic hypovolemia ?

A

hemorrage, burn, vomiting, diarrhoea

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18
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperosmotic hypovolemia ?

A

hydropenia:
decreased intake,
increased loss
increased evaporation
diabetes insipidus

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19
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoosmotic hypovolemia ?

A

decreasing salt intake
primary salt loss
intensive sweating
salt loss through the kidneys
hypoadrenocorticalismus

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of isoosmotic hypervolemia ?

A

oedema
overdosed physiological saline (per os or parenterally)

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21
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperosmotic hypervolemia ?

A

hyperosmotic fliod intake (per os or parenterally)

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoosmotic hypervolemia ?

A

exaggerated water uptake.
Water retention in the kidney (ADH overproduction)

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23
Q

How long does it take to form isoosmosis between IC and EC ?

A

half an hour

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24
Q

How long does it take to restore isovolemia between IC and EC ?

A

couple of days

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25
Q

in P = r x C x R x T , what does the r mean ?

A

reflection coefficient

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26
Q

when membrane completely reflects a particle and it cannot get inside at all, what will be the value of reflection coefficient ?

A

1

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27
Q

what is the osmotic pressure for anelecctrolites of 1 mol dissolved substence in 1 liter ?

A

2.27 kPa

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28
Q

what is the unit which is used for measuring the body fluids ?

A

mmol/l

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29
Q

what is the unit which is used for measuring the osmotic pressure ?

A

kPa

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30
Q

what is the fpd of blood plasma?

A
  • 0.56° C
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31
Q

what is the osmolality of fpd ?

A

300 mosmol/kg

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32
Q

What is oncotic pressure?

A

The pressure exerted specifically by protein and colloid in a compartment.

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33
Q

give 3 examples of anelectrolites components of the blood plasma and their concentrations

A
  1. Glucose -
    mammals: 5 mmol/l
    Ru: 3 mmol/l
    Birds: 10 mmol/l
  2. Urea - 3-10 mmol/l
  3. NPN (non-protein nitrogen) - 15-25 mmol/l
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34
Q

How can we quantify plasma proteins ?

A

with kjeldahl method

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35
Q

what is the concentration of amino acid in the plasma ?

A

5 mmol/l

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36
Q

what is the concentration of createnin in the plasma ?

A

50-200 μmol/l

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37
Q

what 2 independent proteins can be separated by paper-electrophoresis ?

A

albumin and fibrinogen

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38
Q

what size of molecules can get separated by ultracentrifuging ?

A

macromolecules

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39
Q

how does Ion exchange chromatography work ?

A

separates proteins on the basis of their charge

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40
Q

how protein mixture gets separated in Gel-filtration ?

A

by means of polysaccharide beads (dextran).
The protein with small molecular weight can get into the granules.

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41
Q

how does affinity chromatography work ?

A

one covalently binds a specific antibody formerly produced against the protein to the granules of the solid phase.
This protein will be selected from mixture by “recognizing system”, while the other proteins are washed away in short time.

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42
Q

how does immune electrophoresis work ?

A

Antibody distributed in a gel poured on a sheet of glass develops precipitation arcs with the antigen in the electric field.

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43
Q

how does HPLC work ?

A

divides proteins in a solide phase column under high pressure perfusion.

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44
Q

what is the concentration of albumin in the blood plasma ?

A

45 g/l

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45
Q

what is the concentration of alpha-1 globulin in the blood plasma ?

A

4 g/l

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46
Q

what is the concentration of alpha-2 globulin in the blood plasma ?

A

6 g/l

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47
Q

what is the concentration of beta globulin in the blood plasma ?

A

8 g/l

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48
Q

what is the concentration of fibrinogen in the blood plasma ?

A

3-6 g/l

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49
Q

what is the concentration of gamma globulin in the blood plasma ?

A

15 g/l

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50
Q

what are the main functions of plasma proteins ?

A
  1. Maintaining the oncoting pressure.
  2. Transport funtions of albumins, globulins and lipoproteins.
  3. Blood sedimentation.
  4. Buffer action.
  5. Blood clotting.
  6. Immunity - immunoglobulins, complement proteins and signal proteins and peptides.
  7. Enzymes in the plasma.
  8. General protein metabolism - 25% plasmapheresis.
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51
Q

which protein in the plasma is responsible for most of the maintanace of oncotic pressure ?

A

albumin

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52
Q

what materials can albumin bind to and transport ?

A
  • fatty acids
  • bilirubin
  • hormones
  • vitamins
  • metal ions (calcium, weakly: copper and zinc)
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53
Q

what materials can globulin bind to and transport ?

A
  • transferrin: iron
  • haptoglobin: hem
  • transcortin: corticoids
  • TBG (thyroxin binding globulin): thyroxin
  • transcobalamin: B12-vitamin
  • lipoproteins: see later
  • wide variety of transport proteins
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54
Q

what VLDL stands for ?

A

Very Low Density Lipoprotein

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55
Q

what IDL stands for ?

A

Intermediate Density Lipoprotein

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56
Q

what LDL stands for ?

A

Low Density Lipoprotein

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57
Q

what HDL stands for ?

A

High Density Lipoprotein

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58
Q

what happens if erythrocyte sedimentation rate is high ?

A

there is more chance that inflammation present in the body.
Originally the cells have great negative charge because of the
albumin, so they repulse each other very much and sediment slowly. BUT After the globulins bind the total charge will decrease, there will be less repulse among the red blood cells so the sedimentation will get faster.

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59
Q

Plasma proteins are responsible for __% of buffer capacity of the blood.

A

7

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60
Q

Plasma proteins are responsible for __% of buffer capacity of the plasma.

A

15

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61
Q

hemoglobin is responsible for __% of buffer capacity of the blood.

A

35

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62
Q

All coagulation factors are plasma proteins execpt ________

A

calcium ion (coagulation factor IV)

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63
Q

plasma proteins are the precursors of

A

anticoagulation and fibrinolysis

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64
Q

Immunoglobulins are part of ________ immunity

A

specific

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65
Q

Complement proteins are part of _________ immunity

A

non-speacific

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66
Q

10 g/l decrease means ___ kg decrease on the total protein content of the body

A

1

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67
Q

All the proteins synthesized in the liver, except :

A
  1. gamma globulins: plasma cells.
  2. HDL and VLDL: intestinal epithelium.
  3. ic enzymes: from heart, liver, etc.
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68
Q

in which organ most of the proteins are synthesized ?

A

liver

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69
Q

what will hypo-and hyperproteinemia cause to the body ?

A

starving, kidney disease

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70
Q

what will dysproteinemia cause to the body ?

A

ratio changes,
e.g. :albumin/globulin

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71
Q

what will paraproteinemia cause to the body ?

A

pathological proteins appear, e.g. tumor Bence-Jones proteins

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72
Q

Define proteinemia

A

a lack of some of the fractions

(genetic, e.g. fibrinogen)

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73
Q

What two important factors determine the formation of the ISF ?

A

transport through the capillary wall and forces determining transport

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74
Q

what can pass through the capillary wall without restriction ?

A

Water, electrolites and anelectrolites with small molecular weight.

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75
Q

which material movement is restricted in the capillary wall ?

A

Protein.

(only a small amount of it can get through to the ISF mainly by pynocytosis and exocytosis)

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76
Q

If the protein transport into ISF is slow, why the protein concentration of the ISF is still high ?

A

while great part of the fluid moving out of the
capillary gets back to the capillary, so called Gibbs-Donnan effect, the proteins cannot get back.

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77
Q

what is the name of the capillary in the liver which is permeable for proteins ?

A

sinusoid

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78
Q

What is the only component which cannot pass the capillary wall BUT only by the help of specific carrier systems ?

A

colloids

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79
Q

What are fenestrated capillaries?

A

have pores that span the endothelial cells and allow larger molecules to pass

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80
Q

name different ways of transport through the membrane, from Intravascular space to the Intrerstitial space

A
  1. Through fenestration.
  2. Through interendothelial ways.
  3. In atrancellular way.
  4. By endocytosis, exocytosis, pynocytosis.
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81
Q

What determines the composition of the ISF ?

A

Diffusion, osmotic conditions, electric forces and hydrostatic forces.

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82
Q

What is the most important force to ensure transport of substances by which the most substances cross the capillary membrane without restriction ?

A

diffusion

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83
Q

what will happen if the movement of some component is restricted between two compartments

A

the concentration of the diffusible ions will be different in the two compartments.

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84
Q

what will happen if both, the freely diffusible electrolytes (KCl) and the non-diffusible proteinate anions are present in container which has dyalizing membrane ?

A

proteinate anions attract cations, thus the distribution of the diffusible ions will be unequal on the two sides of the membrane.

(after the balance developed)

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85
Q

what is electroneutrality ?

A

the total amount of anions and cations have to be equal in certain compartments.

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86
Q

what are the forces that control the capillary/ISF balance ?

A
  1. Osmotic pressure -continuously moves water into the plasma.
  2. Hydrostatic pressure continuously move water out of the plasma.
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87
Q

on the arterial end of the capillary hydrostatic pressure os higher than the oncotic one, what is the result ?

A

filtration

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88
Q

On the venous end of the capillary oncotic pressure is higher than the hydrostatic one, what is the result ?

A

resorption

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89
Q

what is the most well known kind of ISF overproduction (isoosmotic hypervolemia)

A

odema

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90
Q

in the capillary/ISF boarder the ________ end difference is higher than the ________ end.

A

arterial, venous

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91
Q

what are the main causes of edema ?

A
  1. Increased hydrostatic pressure = increased filtration.
  2. decreased plasma proteins within the capillaries = decreased reabsorption.
  3. increased capillary permeability.
  4. Blockage of lymphatic drainage.
  5. Increased blood pressure.
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92
Q

why protein is considered as the cells’ “main problem” in the intracellular fluid ?

A

cells needs the protein.
Proteins do not have a considerable osmotic effect, but they have got charge and therefore they attract a lot of ions from the EC compartment and in this way
osmolarity inside the cells increases very much.
If the cell does not protect itself from the high pressure, such a high amount of water may flow into the cell that it ruptures the cell.

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93
Q

how the protozoa cell protects itself from the high pressure water flow inside the cell ?

A

water pump

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94
Q

how the plant cell protects itself from the high pressure water flow inside the cell ?

A

thick cell wall

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95
Q

how the mammalian cell protects itself from the high pressure water flow inside the cell ?

A

ion pump

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96
Q

what is blood primary function ?

A

transportation

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97
Q

what have the red blood cells specialized for ?

A

transportation of gases

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98
Q

what have the white blood cells specialized for ?

A

defense

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99
Q

where is the bivalent iron located at the red blood cell ?

A

hem-base

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100
Q

what is the main duty of the neutrophil granulocytes ?

A

phagocytosis, as part of the natural defense

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101
Q

what is the main duty of the basophil granulocytes ?

A

bind the IgE antibodies with their receptors and in case they meet the adequate antigen (pathogenic agent), they empty proteolytic enzymes in the interstitium (degranulation). This loosens the tissues, immune cells can get into the interstitium.

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102
Q

what is the main duty of the eosinophil granulocytes ?

A

act against the over-reaction of the basophils and partly are responsive to parazitosis.

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103
Q

what is the main duty of the thrombocytes ?

A

play a role in the defense reaction and in hemostasis.

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104
Q

what is the main duty of the B-lymphocytes ?

A

main cells of the humoral immunity.

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105
Q

what is the main duty of the T-lymphocytes ?

A

main cells of the cellular immunity.

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106
Q

What are the transport functions examples of the blood ?

A
  • transport of blood gases
  • transport of nutrients
  • transport of metabolits
  • information transport
  • heat-transport
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107
Q

what is the total buffer capacity (%) of bicarbonate buffers in the blood ?

A

53

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108
Q

what is the total buffer capacity (%) of non-bicarbonate buffers in the blood ?

A

47

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109
Q

define haemostasis

A

coagulation, the body’s normal physiological response for the prevention and stopping of bleeding/haemorrhage

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110
Q

what are the conditions of homeostasis ?

A
  1. isovolemia (constant volume)
  2. isotonia (constant osmotic pressure)
  3. isoionia (constant ion-composition)
  4. isohydria (constant pH)
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111
Q

what is the water proportion in blood (%) ?

A

90

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112
Q

what are the corpuscular elements in the blood ?

A

red blood cells, white blood cells, thrombocytes.

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113
Q

what is serum ?

A

plasma fluid after the blood cells and the clotting proteins have been removed - no fibrinogen present, only fibrin.

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114
Q

what is plasma ?

A

liquid portion of blood; contains fibrinogen, water, proteins, salts, nutrients, lipids, hormones, and vitamins.

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115
Q

define hematocrit

A

the ratio of the volume of corpuscular elements to the total volume of blood.

(hematocrit shows us the velocity of the sedimentation of corpuscular elements)

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116
Q

Hematocrit avarage values (%)

A

40

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117
Q

dog Venous Ht-values

A

0.46

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118
Q

hen Venous Ht-value

A

0.32

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119
Q

What is sedimentation?

A

process of allowing particles in suspension in water to settle out of the suspension under the effect of gravity.

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120
Q

Blood cell sedimentation of horse

A

60-70 mm/hour

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121
Q

Blood cell sedimentation of dog

A

5-10 mm/hour

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122
Q

Blood cell sedimentation of swine

A

1-14 mm/hour

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123
Q

Blood cell sedimentation of hen

A

1-4 mm/hour

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124
Q

Blood cell sedimentation of cattle

A

0-2 mm/hour

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125
Q

Blood cell sedimentation of human

A

3-10 mm/hour

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126
Q

Blood pH range

A

7.35-7.45 (slightly alkaline)

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127
Q

what is the flexible range of blood pH for a short time period ?

A

pH 7.1 (minimum) - pH 7.6 (maximum)

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128
Q

the pH of the venous vessels is _______ than the pH of the arterial vessels.

A

lower

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129
Q

denisty of plasma

A

1020 g/l

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130
Q

total density of blood

A

1050 g/l

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131
Q

denisty of blood cells

A

1090 g/l

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132
Q

total osmotic pressure

A

700 kPa

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133
Q

colloidosmotic (oncotic) pressure

A

2.7-4 kPa

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134
Q

osmolality

A

300 mmol/kg

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135
Q

blood volume

A

80 ml/bwt

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136
Q

plasma volume

A

45 ml/ttkg

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137
Q

blood cell volume

A

35 ml/ttkg

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138
Q

what substances help to determine the plasme space ?

A
  • Evans blue
  • 125-I or131-I.
    -labeled: albumin,
    globulin, fibrinogen.
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139
Q

what substances help to determine the blood cell volume?

A
  • labeled red blood cells

(32-P, 55-or 59-Cr, 51-Fe)

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140
Q

1,4,7 - ?

A

Normocythaemia :

  1. Normocythaemic normovolaemia.
  2. Normocythaemic hypovolaemia (Oligaemia) - blood loss, blood cells and plasma loss together.
  3. Normocythaemic hypervolaemia - plethora, excess transfusion, permanent, exhausting physical work.
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141
Q

2,5,8 - ?

A

Polycythaemia:

  1. Polycythaemic normovoloaemia - haemoconcentration, viscosity increases, increased load on heart (turbulence).
  2. Polycythaemic hyopvoloaemia - anhydraemia: lack of water, thirst, end up with haemoconcentration.
  3. Polycythaemic hypervolaemia.
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142
Q

3,6,9 - ?

A

Olygocythaemia:

  1. Olygocythaemic normovoloaemia - haemodilution, blood gets diluted with concurrent normal volume.
  2. Olygocythaemic hypovoloaemia.
  3. Olygocythaemic hypervolaemia - hydraemia, intake of excess water, infusion(followed by haemodilution).
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143
Q

what are the factors that affect the blood volume ?

A
  • amount of body fat.
  • position of the body.
  • muscle work.
  • climate.
  • nutrition.
  • lack of oxygen.
  • sympathetic activity.
  • pregnancy.
  • blood loss.
  • changes in the total water supply.
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144
Q

the blood volume of new born

A

100 ml/bwt

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145
Q

the blood volume of an adult

A

80 ml/bwt

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146
Q

Red blood cells have no _________

A

mitochondria

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147
Q

red blood cells can make energy only by __________

A

anaerobic respiration

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148
Q

what is the avarage lifetime of a red blood cell ?

A

120 days

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149
Q

what is the lifetime of cattle, swine red blood cell ?

A

60 days

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150
Q

what is the lifetime of bird red blood cell ?

A

30 days

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151
Q

what is the hemoglobin amount in the blood ?

A

120-180 g/l

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152
Q

how many grams Hb for 1g RBC ?

A

0.35 g Hb

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153
Q

?

A

MCHC (Hb/Ht)
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration.

  • Approximately: 5 mmol/l.
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154
Q

?

A

MCH (Hb/RBC)
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin.

  • Approximately: 0.45 pc/l.
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155
Q

?

A

MCV (Ht/RBC)

Mean Corpuscular Volume

  • Approximately: 80-100 pc/l.
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156
Q

what is Hemolysis?

A

leakage or disruption of the blood cells (mainly red blood cells).

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157
Q

how can RBC adapt to change easily ?

A

Their special membrane characteristics, which has spectrin-protein-molecules on the internal side that provides flexible feature.

These “molecular springs” are fixed forming a net on the internal side of the cell by ankyrine, actin and smaller connective molecules.
Red blood cells are resistant to the quite significant changes of the osmotic circumstances = osmotic resistance.
(Slight changes in the osmolality do not cause
permanent damage, only changing of the shape)

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158
Q

what slightly hyperosmotic environment will cause the red blood cell ?

A

change in shape - smaller size

(osmotic resistance)

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159
Q

what slightly hypoosmotic environment will cause the red blood cell ?

A

change in shape - larger size.

(osmotic resistance)

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160
Q

what is the minimal concentration for osmotic resistance ?

A

70-120 mmol/l NaCl.

(Haemolysis just starts)

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161
Q

what is the maximal concentration for osmotic resistance ?

A

50-90 mmol/l NaCl

(All the cells haemolyse)

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162
Q

how haemolysis of RBC can be caused ?

A

primary injury of the RBCs membrane

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163
Q

?

A

Spectrin

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164
Q

?

A

ankyrine

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165
Q

?

A

actin-bridge

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166
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

the pigment (protein) coloring the red blood cells that plays main role in the transport of the blood gases and the forming of the blood’s buffer capacity

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167
Q

How many sub units does hemoglobin have?

A

4

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168
Q

What is hemoglobin level in the blood ?

A

120-180 g/l blood

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169
Q

what is hem ?

A

non-protein part of the hemoglobin.
Consist of ferro-protoporphyrine.

In the porphyrine base iron has only four co-ordination sites.
The two other valences involved are bound to the imidazole ring of the protein (histidine) under and over the porphyrine base.
Only the bivalent iron (ferro) atom can bind the oxygen reversibly.

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170
Q

what is globin ?

A

protein part of hemoglobin, which its sterical structure of globin mainly determines the characteristics of the oxygen binding.
Allows allosteric stimulation, and it is able to bind a new oxygen even stronger after accepting the former one.

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171
Q

only the bivalent ____ atom can bind the oxygen reversibly

A

iron (ferro) Fe2+

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172
Q

What causes sickle cell anemia?

A

single amino acid change in the beta chain of hemoglobin - in the 6th position there is glutamine instead of alanine

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173
Q

why Hb-F has smaller affinity to the 2,3-DPG than the Hb-A ?

A

Amino acid sequence difference.

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174
Q

What are the chains of an adult animal Hb-A ?

A

2 alpha + 2 beta chain

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175
Q

What are the chains of a foetal periodl Hb-F ?

A

2 alpha + 2 gamma chain

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176
Q

hoy many oxygen molecules can 1 hem bind to ?

A

1

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177
Q

What is carbaminohemoglobin?

A

hemoglobin bound to carbon dioxide, which is responsible for about 20 % of the compete CO2 blood-transport.

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178
Q

Hemoglobin has affinty to

A
  • carbon monoxide reversibly (with about 200 times bigger affinity than to oxygen),
  • OH and Cl radicals.
  • Can go through methaemoglobin (hemiglobin) forming during nitrate or nitrite intoxication.
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179
Q

what are the 2 most important buffer-bases in the blood ?

A

The Hb- anion and HCO3-

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180
Q

what is the acid/base pair that ensures the buffer action in hemoglobin ?

A

HHb/Hb-

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181
Q

35% of the buffer capacity of the blood is provided by ___________

A

hemoglobin

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182
Q

What is the RBC lifespan in the blood circulation?

A

120 days

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183
Q

what happens to normal RBC, after 120 days in the circulation ?

A

become sphaerocytes

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184
Q

which organs filter the sphaerocytes?

A

spleen and liver

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185
Q

1,2,3,4,5 ?

A

1. Normal RBC-s age after 120 days in the

circulation - they become

sphaerocytes.

2. The spleen and the liver filter the sphaerocytes:

1% of the RBC-supply undergoes hemolysis daily.

3. released:

  • hemoglobin
  • RBC debris

4. The hemoglobin partly gets into the blood: haptoglobin binds it.
In case haptoglobin is saturated: hemoglobinaemia followed by hemoglobinuria.
The free plasma hem binds to hemopexin.

5. Large part of the hemoglobin is degraded inside the phagocytes.

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186
Q

when phagocyte eats hemoglobin, that transforms the globin and HEM to ___________

A

globin → amino acid.

HEM → Fe2+ and protoporfirin-IX which furthermore changes to bilirubin.

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187
Q

During the degradation of the hemoglobin phagocytes convert the HEM part to __________

A

bilirubin

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188
Q

Bilirubin 1 consists of

A

albumin and Bilirubin which bind in the circulation

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189
Q

1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14 ?

A

1. Br-I

(+80% glucoronic acid,

+20% sulphate)

2. Br-II “direct billirubin”

3. Bile

4. Br-II enters interstitial lumen (then changes)

5. Br-I

6. UBG - urobilinogen (15%)

7. stercobilinogen (gets oxidized)

8. stercobilin - as feaces (85%)

9. other products - as feaces

10. vena portae by vv. hemorrhoidales

11. hepatocyte (becomes after to Br-I again)

12. systemic circulation (1%)

13. kidney

14. UBG - as urin

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190
Q

Describe the degradation of the hemoglobin

A

Bilirubin dissociates from the albumin and it is taken up by the hepatocytes. A major proportion of bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid, while the rest with other molecules. This is called the conjugated bilirubin, or direct bilirubin, or bilirubin-II

  • Bilirubin is excreted to the bile and ends up in the gut where it is first deconjugated by bacteria, then further degradation products produced. The most important degradation products are stercobilinogen, stercobilin(which makes the feces brown), and urobilinogen (UBG). Most of the UBG is absorbed in the gut entering the portal circulation and finally ending up in the liver. The UBG is converted back to bilirubin. A small part of UBG is absorbed by the vv hemorriodhales, entering the systemic circulation and excreted by the kidney.
  • The whole degradation process has clinical relevance. The origin of the icterus can be diagnosed measuring degradation products.
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191
Q

what are the most important products in hemoglobin degradation ?

A
  • stercobilinogen,
  • stercobilin (makes the feces brown)
  • urobilinogen (UBG)
192
Q

1,2,3,4,5,6,7 ?

A

1. promyelocyte

2. normoblast

3. macroblast

4. haemocytoblast

5. acidophyl myelocyte

6. erythrocyte

7. giant cell

193
Q

what extra organ in mice produces blood cells ?

A

spleen

194
Q

what type of primordial cells during the embyonic life does not roam to the bone marrow ?

A

T-progenitor cell

(that settles in the thymus and is responsible for T-lymphocyte production during adult life)

195
Q

what are the factors affecting RBC Synthesis ?

A
  • Oxygen supply
  • Kidney status
  • Age
196
Q

What are WBC’s active in?

A

Phagocytosis (neutrophils and monocytes), and antibody formation (lymphcytes).

197
Q

where do white blood cells develop ?

A
  • bone marrow
  • thymus (only lymphocytes)
198
Q

Leukocytosis can be caused by _______

A

bacterial, viral and parasitic infections, and also by inflammatory processes.

199
Q

Leukopenia can be caused by _________

A

radioactive radiation, mushroom-toxins or some medications

200
Q

White blood cell average absolute number

A

5-15 × 109 pcs/l

201
Q

what species have neutrophylic type of white blood cell ?

A

horses, carnivores, (human)

202
Q

what species have lymphocytic type of white blood cell ?

A

ruminants, swine, birds

203
Q

what is the size of neutrophyls ?

A

10-14 μm

204
Q

what is the size of eosinophyls ?

A

12-14 μm

205
Q

what is the size of basophyls ?

A

8-10 μm

206
Q

what is the size of lymphocytes ?

A

7-20 μm

207
Q

what is the size of monocytes ?

A

15-25 μm

208
Q

What are the granular leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils

209
Q

what are the granules of the neutrophil composed of, and what’s their function ?

A

lysosomes that contain the enzymes (lysosyme, myeloperoxidase, superoxide-dismutase, acidic and alkalic phosphatase, nuclease, protease, etc.)
• 80% of the granules is formed by small, neutrophil granules.
• 20% by bigger, asurophil granules.
• Thier role includes perishing and digesting the particles as bacteria, funghi, viruses phagocytated by the cell.

210
Q

which cells are the most important element in the cellular immunity ?

A

neutrophil granulocytes

211
Q

what is the function of neutrophils ?

A

phagocytosis.

• they don’t need a previous meeting with the foreign body for its recognition and elimination, display their effect immediately.

212
Q

what is the life time of neutrophil granulocyte ?

A
  • in circulation: 6-7 hours
  • in tissue: 2-3 days
213
Q

where are most of the neutrophil granulocyte found ?

A

mostly in the bone marrow, spleen.

When needed - leukocytosis.
Few can be found at the circulation
(part adhere to the inner wall of vessels)

214
Q

where adhesion of white blood cell can be found ?

A

wall of the capillaries.

(for instance, neutrophil granulocytes can be seen inside of a venule)

215
Q

what an increased number of stab (young) neutrophil granulocytes can indicate ?

A

infection

216
Q

what an increased number of the polysegmented (mature) neutrophil granulocytes can indicate ?

A

granulocytopenia

(a decrease of peripheral blood granulocytes below lower limit of normal range)

217
Q

what are the Developmental stages of neutrophil granulocytes ?

A
  • Stab form (small stick shaped nucleus)
  • Jugend form (bean shaped nucleus)
  • matured neutrophil (nucleus with 3-5 segments)
  • over-matured neutrophil (nucleus

with 5-10 segments)

218
Q

how is the movement of neutrophil granulocytes operated ?

A

based on the building up and dissociation of actin chains.
As a result of the actin polymerisation actin fibers are continuously formed in the cell.
Tightly united actin-bundles gives the bases for migration by the phylopodiums.
This bundle is constantly built on the end closer to the plasma membrane and constantly degraded on the end of the actin chain closer to the nucleus.

219
Q

describe diapedesis (emigration)

A

leukocytes squeeze between two capillary endothelial cells into tissue space.

There are 3 steps-

  • *1.** stretched phylopodium adheres in between two capillary endothelial cells (its selectin recognizes the receptors on this pole of the endothel)
  • *2.** motion with the actin-filament: the neutrophil granulocyte (gr.) intrudes in between the two endothelial cells.
  • *3.** Enter the interstitial space.
220
Q

which process is demonstrated in the picture ?

A

endocytosis

221
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

uptake of cells and cell-debris

222
Q

describe the endocytosis of the low density lipoprotein

A

The external part of the LDL-receptor binds an LDL, affected by this, the internal clathrin binding site activates and a clathrin coated pit is formed, that finally ends up with endocytosis and forming of a clathrin coated vesicule

223
Q

What is clathrin?

A

a complex consisting of three small and three bigger peptides, that is inherited conservatively during evolution

224
Q

1,2,3,4,5,6,7 - ?

A

1. ligand

2. lysosome

3. surface receptor

4. cellular membrane

5. nucleus

6. actin “cortex”

7. foreign body (e.g. bacterium)

225
Q

describe the steps of phagocytosis

A

actin directed border forming.

  • ligand binding and actin dependent forming of pseudopodia
  • internalisation by the help of actin and other fusogenic proteins
  • actin-binding and synthesisof fusogenic proteins
  • phagosomesynthesis
  • phago-lysosome synthesis
  • digestion and residual bodysynthesis
  • oxidative “burst” and digestion
226
Q

The last step of phagocytosis is the killing of the pathogenic agent with the help of ___________

A

“respiratory burst”

  • First enzymatic step: NADPH-oxidase.
  • Second enzymatic step:SOD.
  • Third enzymatic step:MPO (myeloperoxidase).
227
Q

What is opsonization?

A

complement factors “flag” the microorganism for phagocytosis.

They can bind foreign antigens similarly to immunglobulines, then they bind with the neutrophilgranulocytes and significantly stimulate phagocytosis.

228
Q
  • name of the process ?
  • 1,2,3,4 -?
A

opsonization

1. C3b receptor

2. C3b complement

3. Antigen (e.g. baterial membrane)

4. Neutrophil granulocyte

229
Q
  • name of the process ?
  • 1,2,3,4 -?
A

Immune adherence

1. Fc receptor

2. antibody (IgG)

  • *3.** Antigen
    (e. g. bacterial membrane)

4. Neutrophil granulocyte.

230
Q

describe the immune adherence process

A

the specific immunglobulin (e.g. IgG) binds the antigen (e.g. bacterium).
Because of this specific binding, the Fc part of the antibody binds this complex to the Fc receptor of the neutrophil cell. Results: increased phagocytosis.
The cell expresses the Fc receptors on the surface again, making additional phagocytosis possible.

231
Q

which white blood cell are the rarest ?

A

basophil granulocytes

232
Q

What to basophil granules contain?

A
  • histamine
  • serotonin
  • heparin besides
  • _some more enzyme_s: myeloperoxidase, protease, hyaluronidase - specific, etc.)
233
Q

what is the Basophil granulocyte’s main function ?

A

to loosen the tissues where the antigens are present so the other defense elements (cells and molecules) can more easily get to the place of the infection

234
Q

Describe the degranulation process

A

The basophil granulocytes bind the ready IgE type antibodies on their surface.

Then ,when an antigen binds to the IgE, the basophil cell quickly releases its enzyme-supply to the environment:

degranulation occurs.

The released enzymes loosen the environment and give space to additional immune processes.

235
Q

what extreme degranulation might cause ?

A

pathological damage in the organism’s own tissues like allergy.

236
Q
A
237
Q

how does the specific way of granulation work ?

A

There is a big amount of receptor proteins on surface of the basophil granulocytes that can bind the Fc part of the

IgE-type immunglobulins (Fc-receptor).

The IgE (that was produced earlier against another antigen) can still bind to the above mentioned receptor if the IgE did not bound the antigen yet (on the basis of this feature we call the IgE antibody cytophilic.

The basophil cell “equipped” with IgE roams in the interstice.
In case of meeting an antigen, it binds it. The binding itself evokes the vacation of the basophil cell granules (degranulation). The released materials loosen the tissues. The tissue infected by the antigens becomes accessible for the other cells of the immune apparatus. Extreme basophil activity (allergy) can cause pathological tissue destruction.

238
Q

what materials are released during degranulation ?

A
  • histamine
  • heparin
  • hyaluronidase
239
Q

how does the non-specific way of granulation work ?

A

right after the invasion of the antigen degranulation is stimulated by the C3a and C3b complement factors. The receptor specific for these factors is expressed to the surface of the cell again and again, so called natural immunity: these are the complement factors of the plasma.

  • Additional products of the degranulation are the heparin (prevents coagulation therefore accelerates the process of the antibodies getting into the interstitium) and the slow-reacting factor of anaphylaxis (SRS-A).
  • This latter causes long lasting inflammation
240
Q
A
241
Q

what is the role of heparin releasing from the basophil granolocyte in the nonspecific way of immune response ?

A

Heparin helps by preventing coagulation

242
Q

what is the function of the eosinophil granulocytes ?

A

Antiallergic cells.

The mast cells and the basophil granulocytes produce the substances responsible for allergic reactions (for example histamine), the eosinophil granulocytes play a main role in regulation of the inactivation and enzymatic break-down (histaminase) of these substances, their proportion in the blood increases during allergic processes (eosinophilia)

243
Q

What is eosinophilia?

A

higher than normal level of eosinophils. Eosinophils are a type of disease-fighting white blood cell. This condition most often indicates a parasitic infection, an allergic reaction or cancer.

244
Q

describe the eosinophil granulocyte granules

A

• Granules: all red

-(in horses cover also the nucleus)

• Enzymes

  • histaminase
  • aril-sulphatase
  • myeloperoxidase
  • acidic and alcalic phosphatase
  • nuclease
245
Q

what is the lifetime of eosinophil granulocyte ?

A
  • incirculation: 3-8 hours
  • in tissues: 3-5 days
246
Q

what are chemotaxis ?

A

White blood cells migrate towards higher concentration of specific signals (chemicals).

• Most important chemicals:

– products of tissue beakdown

– histamine

– complement factors

– broken polysaccharide capsule of bacteria

– chemotaxines produced by white blood cells:

• ECF-A (eosinophil chemotaxis factor for anaphylaxis)

– t-cells

– mast cells

– basophils

247
Q

The eosinophil cell takes

up and breaks down both the ___________ and _______________.

A

histamine, SRS-A (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis)

248
Q

what are the most effective substances against parasites

A

“alkalic” proteins

249
Q
A
250
Q

what is the biggest white blood cell ?

A

monocyte

251
Q

What is the role of monocytes during the antigen-eliminatory processes?

A

to “present” the antigen to the other cells of the immune system

252
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes Lifetime

A
  • in circulation: 10-40 hours
  • in tissues: 2-3 month
253
Q

what are the 2 constituents of the MS (macrophag system) of mononuclear phago ?

A

1. RES: reticulo endothelial system (Mecsnyikov)

2. RHS: reticulo histiocyticsystem

  • task: antigen presentation, secretion
254
Q

what do the mononuclear phagocytes granules contain ?

A

• Enzymes:
– proteases
– myeloperoxidase
– superoxid dismutase
– acidic and alcalic phosphatase

• Secreted enzymes:
– collagenase
– elastase
– angiotensine convertase

255
Q
A
256
Q

describe the antigen presentation

A 
APC cells (eg. macrophages, or B-lymphocytes) manage to express the digested pieces of the phagocytosed antigen together with their own surface proteins (MHC, Main Histocompatibility Complex, II,) to the cell surface.
The adequate receptor of the helper T-lymphocyte (Th) recognizes the piece of the antigen and the MHC-complex. This initiates the immune system and finally leads to antibody production. This occurrence is called the antigen-presentation
257
Q

If not only the MHC-I, but the MHC-I plus an antigen complex occurs on the surface of an infected somatic cell, what will happen ?

A

it will be recognized by the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte receptors and the infected cell will be destroyed

258
Q

what materials do MPS cells secrete ?

A

• loosening tissues with enzymes:
– collagenase
– elastase
– angiotensine convertase

• Stimulation of immune response:
– interleukin-1
– interferon
– prostaglandins

259
Q

what sizes of lymphocytes can be found in the blood circulation ?

A

only small (7-8 μm) and middle (10-12 μm)

260
Q

what are the two groups of lymphocytes ?

(divided by their origin and function)

A
  • The T-lymphocytes of a thymus origin are responsible for the cellular immunity.
  • The B-lymphocytes of the Bursa Fabricii (in mammals instead: it is produced in bone marrow, embryonic liver and spleen) for the humoral immunity.
261
Q

what is the lifetime of lymphocyte ?

A

from few hours to years

262
Q

what is found on the membrane surface of the lymphocyte ?

A
  • Immunoglobulin-like structures
  • receptors
263
Q

what happens to the number of lymphocytes at lymphopaenia ?

A

their number in the blood decreases

264
Q

what happens to the number of lymphocytes at Lymphocytosis ?

A

their number in the blood increases

265
Q

what is the type and function of lymphocyte when it has size of 7-8 μm ?

A

B-lymphocyte.

Its function is to turn to plasma cell and to produce immunoglobulins

266
Q

what is the type and function of lymphocyte when it has size of 10-12 μm ?

A

T-lymphocyte.

Its function includes take part as cells of the cellular immune response; stimulation of the humoral immune response.

267
Q

what is the type and function of lymphocyte when it has size of 15-20 μm ?

A

“0” cells

(NK cells)

It’s function as lymphocyte-like cells; to kill cells which got infected by tumor or virus.

268
Q

hematopoietic location

A

red bone marrow

269
Q

what are the multipotent pre-colony-forming-cells ?

A

developed during the embryonic life are able to reproduce and develop in any direction (red blood cell production, white blood cell production)

270
Q

what is the only one type of cells that during the embryonic life, does not migrate to the bone marrow ?

A

the T-progenitor cell, that settles in the thymus and is responsible for T-lymphocyte production during adult life

271
Q

What is the role of CSF ?

A

secreted glycoproteins that bind to receptor proteins on the surfaces of hematopoietic-multipotent-primordial cell- stem cells.

272
Q

Thrombocytes (platelets) size

A
  • mammals: 1.5 -3.5 μm.
  • birds: 8-10 μm, with nucleus, able to phagocyte
273
Q

what is the number of Thrombocytes (platelets) in blood ?

A

2-8×1011 pc/l

274
Q

what is the lifetime of Thrombocytes (platelets) ?

A

5-10 days

275
Q

Where thrombocytes are found?

A

mainly in the circulation

276
Q

what are the smallest blood cells ?

A

thrombocytes (platelets)

277
Q

where are thrombocytes originated from ?

A

the polycaryocyte giant cells of the red marrow

278
Q
A
279
Q

CP ?

P ?

A

CP. Cytoplasmatic Processes.

P. Platelets

280
Q

what are the blood groups ?

A

complex antigens (containing proteins, lipids and carbohydrates) appearing on the surface of the blood cells.

• Their appearance is ensured by a known genetic code.

281
Q

The blood-type system is a group of antigens encoded on ______ locus

A

the same

282
Q

how many groups are in human blood ?

A

15

283
Q

when are antibodies produced ?

A

postnatally

284
Q

why the blood transfusion means less trouble in animals than in humans ?

A

1. There are only few naturally produced antibodies against red blood cell antigens.

2. The antigens -against which antibodies can be found in other individuals -can be found not only on the red blood cells, but in the plasma too.

285
Q

what happens to the antibody in case of transfusion ?

A

neutralized in the plasma already and its RBC-dissolving capacity diminishes

286
Q

who was the American Physiologist that has found first the blood types (AB0) in 1930 ?

A

Karl Landsteiner

287
Q

what are hemagglutinogens ?

A

compounds on the surface of the RBC-s forming the antigens.

Their appearance is determined by genes located on different chromosomes.

288
Q
A
289
Q

what are hemagglutinins?

A

any of a group of antibodies that cause agglutination of the foreign red blood cells.

These substances are found in plants, invertebrates, and certain microorganisms.
The result of these processes is that in the blood plasma of an individual many antibodies may occur that are directed against blood group antigens in another individual.

290
Q

what are natural hemagglutinins ?

A
  • antibodies are present without pervious immunization
  • agglutinate the red blood cells of animals expressing the corresponding antigens
  • as an example, human anti-A and anti-B isohemagglutinin (previously alpha and beta) agglutinate red blood cells with A an B antigens, respectively.
291
Q

what are artificial hemagglutinins ?

A

– antibodies form only after previous immunization.

– immunization can be:

  • natural(e.g.: Rh or certain animal blood types)
  • artificial(e.g.: preparation of specific blood group reagents by immunization)
292
Q

what are the isohemagglutinins ?

A

antibodies that agglutinates RBC-s of the same species

293
Q

what are the 2 reactions between the RBCs and the plasma antibodies ?

A

1. Agglutination

2. Hemolysis (the disruption of RBC-s)

These reaction can occur together or alone.

294
Q

what reaction is more typical in human blood: Agglutination or Hemolysis ?

A

Agglutination

295
Q

what reaction is more typical in animal blood: Agglutination or Hemolysis ?

A

Hemolysis

296
Q
A
297
Q

exaplain biochemical polymorphism

A

many biochemical functions are carried out by structurally different, but functionally equivalent molecules.

Blood groups are one of these biochemical polymorphisms

298
Q

cattle transferrin polymorphism

A

six types of serums separated on agarose gel, belonging to cows of different genotypes transferrin.

299
Q

why the description of human blood group antigens is important ?

A

understanding the basic mechanisms and its importance in general orientation.

300
Q

what are the two most important system in human blood group ?

A

AB0 and Rh

301
Q

name some known human blood types

A
  • AB0(+)
  • Rh(+)
  • MNSsrarely
  • P no
  • Lutheran(+)
  • Kell(+)
  • Duffy(+)
  • Kidd(+)

(+: it can develop incompatibility)

302
Q

The H-antigen encoded by the H-gene forms the ___________________

A

AB0 blood system

303
Q

If there are no additional groups synthesized (A or B), which group is the default group ?

A

0 group

304
Q

why there are no antibodies that formed against all types of the AB0 blood system ?

A

it is present in all humans - the genotypes are HH, HA, AA, HB, BB, AB

305
Q

which blood group does the N-acetyl-galactose-amine transferase enzyme form ?

A

A blood group antigen

306
Q

which blood group does the 0-(zero)-gene form, if it is responsible to suppress the production of N-acetyl-galactose-amine transferase and of the N-acetyl-galactosyl transferase enzymes ?

A

0-group appears.

Accordingly no A or B blood group is formed.

307
Q

which blood group does the galactosyl-transferase enzyme form ?

A

B blood type antigen

308
Q
A
309
Q

how can we determine the type of a red blood cell belonging to an unknown blood group ?

A

by agglutination reaction.
In case of incompatibility agglutination is seen, that can be used for determination of the blood cells’ antigen-type.

310
Q
A
311
Q

how is the first fetus able to survive the delivery if an Rh negative mother can be immunized by the blood cells of her own Rh positive foetus ?

A

because (No antibody can be found naturally in the serum against this RBC-antigen)
And yet no damage occurs because the foetal RBC usually gets into the mother’s body only via micro-injuries during the delivery - which means it had no exposure to the mother’s blood.

312
Q

why at 2nd pregnancy erythroblastosis foetalis occurs followed by last stage of death ?

A

During second pregnancy the small amount of RBC entering the mother’s sensitized immune system, stimulates the production of anti-Rh (IgG!!!) antibodies that (by getting back to the foetus after penetrating the placenta) dissolve the foetal red blood cells and a clinical pattern called erythroblastosis foetalis occurs causing yellow jaundice and in its last stage the death of the foetus (morbus hemolyticus neonatorum).

313
Q
A
314
Q

how does Rh-incompatibility happen ?

A

when an Rh negative recipient gets red blood cells from a Rh positive donor.

The Rh-negative recipient is immunized and the forming IgG antibody dissolves the red blood cells of the recipient.

315
Q

which inappropriate blood transfusion can cause significant damage: the first or the second ?

A

second.
That time there is a significant anti-Rh antibody production

316
Q

what human blood type is the most common for europids ?

A

type 0

317
Q

what human blood type is the most common for negrid ?

A

type 0

318
Q

what human blood type is the most common for mongoloid ?

A

type A

319
Q

Which human blood type is the rarest on the planet ?

A

type AB

320
Q

how the animal blood group systems significantly differ from those of the human ones ?

A

1. In most cases there are no naturally formed antibodies against the RBC-antigens of other individuals.

2. In many cases the blood type antigens appear in the plasma, too.

3. Most of the time the artificially formed antibody has an hemolysing and not an agglutinating character.

321
Q

how to produce an antibody that only reacts with the C-blood type antigen when we have no specific antigen against the single C-group ?

A
  • we immunize the animal no.2 with the no.1’s washed red blood cells (A, B, C antigens)
  • in animal no. 2 only anti-B and C is produced (polyvalent serum)
  • washing it with B RBC-s: we remove anti-B
  • The remaining is the monovalent anti-C serum
322
Q
A
323
Q

describe the twin hood in cattle

A

the monozygotic twins having the same sex (MZ, one sperm -one ovum). They are the most suitable for comparative examinations.
Unfortunately, twin births are quite rare (3%)

324
Q

what is chimeras ?

A

organisms with a mixture of genetically different cells.

Dizygotes that the hemopoietic progenitor cell migrates from one fetus to the other before an immune response could occur against it and starts producing the red blood cells with the antigen structure similar to the original individual. This way, there would be red (and white) blood cells present in both twins with their own and the other one’s antigen structure too. These individuals are called chimeras

325
Q

What is freemartinism?

A

male and female co-twins develop; antimullerian hormone from male is shared to female and causes mullerian ducts to regress in female leading to sterility.

Besides the typical XX female chromosome, white blood cells in those females of freemartin chimer, XY type chromosomes can be detected as a sure proof of later sterility

326
Q

explain the The pleiotropic effect

A

one quality affects more different qualities, they are inherited together.

327
Q

what is the goal of the blood-transfusion ?

A

substitution of the lost RBC-s and assuring normal gas-transport.

328
Q

how can Blood transfusion be applied in large animals?

A

because of the lack of naturally occurring antibodies -theoretically blood can be transfused without consideration.
In clinical practice (for example in a horse) we previously transfuse a small proportion (2-300 ml) of the total blood amount to be transfused (2-3 l). If there is no sign of incompatibility reaction, the whole amount will be transfused.

329
Q

how can Blood transfusion be applied in small animals?

A

because some antibodies may occur in case of certain blood types –
the three-drop-test must always be completed: the mixture of 1 drop of donor blood cells, 1 drop of recipient’s plasma, 1 drop of physiological sodium-chloride solution.

If there is no hemolysis or agglutination, the transfusion can be completed without the complete knowledge about the blood groups.

330
Q

can cat recieve blood donation from a dog donor ?

A

yes, as a life-saving act –blood of a donor dog can be transfused.

This is however not anymore used, since blood typing kits are available for small animals.

331
Q

Dog blood can be given to dogs only by

A

completing cross reaction tests

332
Q

Dog blood can be given to cats only in

A

case of emergency without testing

333
Q

Cat blood can be given to cats only by

A

completing cross reaction tests

334
Q

describe the hemolytic illnesses of the newborn in horses

A

– Rh-like antigens
– problem formed only postnatally
– epitheliochorial placenta
– immunglobulins absorbed from the colostrum
(first 36 hours)

– symptoms:
• hemolysis
• neonatal jaundice

– solution:
• giving the newborn into nursing

335
Q

describe the hemolytic illnesses of the newborn in swines

A

– Rh-like antigens, postnatal problem

– Su antigen might cause incompatibility

– epitheliochorial placenta

– immunglobulins absorbed from the colostrum

symptoms:
• hemolysis
• neonatal jaundice

solution:
• giving the newborn into nursing

336
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

Hemostasis is a complex defense reaction that prevents the loss of blood in case of internal (intrinsic) or external (extrinsic) vessel injury.

337
Q

how does hemostasis work ?

A

The hemostasis starts with a vascular reaction later the aggregation of platelets (thrombocytes) forms the first mechanical barrier preventing any further blood loss (white thrombus). In the meantime the other hemostatic processes start (coagulation). During this the stronger, red blood cells containing red thrombus -kept together by the fibrin fibres -is forming. Together with the regeneration process of the endothelial tissue, the thrombus is eliminated. This is followed by complete healing.

338
Q

how often do capillary injuries occur in a physiological environment ?

A

everyday, due to everyday mechanical activities.

339
Q

how does the hemostasic system maintain balance between lack of coagulation and over-reaction ?

A

the intrinsic way of the hemostasis is constantly working together with a self-inhibiting mechanism.
This balance makes sure that the aggressive coagulation mechanism does not lead to pathological clot-formation. The lack of coagulation (hemophylia) or its over-reaction (thrombus/clot-formation) are frequent pathological processes.

340
Q

what are the most common bleeding that the veterenarian meets ?

A

external bleedings or internal bleedings caused by injuries.

341
Q

where do the physiological micro-injuries occur ?

A

in all tissues, constantly.

342
Q

what is the importance of hemostasis ?

A

capability of immediate reparation of physiological bleedings.

343
Q
A
344
Q

what are the symptoms of hemostasis imbalance caused by decreased local healing ?

A

hemophilia, bleeding sickness

345
Q

what are the symptoms of hemostasis imbalance caused by mechanistic pathologically increased clot forming ?

A

thrombosis, pathological clot forming

346
Q

what are the symptoms of hemostasis imbalance caused by pathologically decreased clot removal ?

A

thrombosis, pathological clot forming

347
Q

what are the symptoms of hemostasis imbalance caused by damaged local healing ?

A

haemophilia, bleeding sickness (rare form, infection)

348
Q

what happens in the vascular reaction ?

(hemostasis)

A

vessel contraction.

The vascular reaction occurs right after the injury of the vessel. It is an automatic process

– The direct consequence of the injury of the smooth muscle cells is that the membrane potentials of the injured cells will be different from that of the surrounding cells.
The potential-differences arising this way cause the contraction of the surrounding smooth muscle cells.

– The reflex contraction, caused by CNS-activation also occurs.

– These can be completed with the effects of the humoral vasoconstrictor substances released from the injured cells.

349
Q

what is the function of the vascular reaction ?

(hemostasis)

A

Mechanical defense as the first line of defense, and decrease the perfusion - so that thrombocytes can stick to the injured surface more easily.

Provides an optimal condition for the accumulation (aggregation) of platelet for several minutes

(the basis of further reactions)

350
Q

how long does the vascular reaction last ?

(hemostasis)

A

6-10 minutes

351
Q

Platelets (thrombocytes) do not attract to intact endothelial surfaces.

So how can they bind to the injured endothelial areas ?

A

they bind with their specialized surface receptors to the negative charges of the injured endothelial areas (so called adhesive glycoproteins).

We call this primary aggregation.

• Also, the protein produced by the endothelial cells and present in the plasma (the so called von Willebrand factor) is activated by the exposed sub-endothelial proteins (especially collagen). The activated von Willebrand factor connects the injured surface with the thrombocytes, so their aggregation increases.

352
Q

main characters of secondary activation in thrombocyte reaction

A
  • the earlier introduced actin and microtubule system of the thrombocytes as well as their secrations activate the reaction.
  • A huge number of filopodia are formed, with their help the platelets bind to each other and to the exposed collagen fibres: the white thrombus is formed.
  • From the numerous factors responsible for secondary activation, the vascular endothel produces prostacyclines (PGI2) and nitrogen monoxyde (NO), which prevent the production of the factors responsible for aggregation (e.g. thromboxane A2

(TXA2).

353
Q

In the presence of intima injury this inhibition is automatically turned off,
what stimulating factors can thrombocytes produce on their own then?

A

TXA2, serotonine, adenosine-diphosphates

(will stimulate other thrombocytes increasing the aggregation and the secretion of coagulation factors)

354
Q

what happens in Primary activation of thrombocyte reaction ?

A

the platelet binds to the exposed collagen

355
Q

what factor increases the primary activation ?

A

von Willebrand

356
Q

when the thrombocytes bind together, what do they secrete ?

A

coagulation factors

357
Q

what 2 compounds production stops during Thrombocyte reaction?

A

PGI2 and NO

358
Q

what does Thrombocyte release ?

A
  • 5-HT (serotonin)
  • ADP
  • PF-3
  • TXA
  • coagulation factors
359
Q

Thrombocyte accumulation and aggregation lead to secreating _____________

A

white thrombus

360
Q
A
361
Q
A
362
Q

what is the most important enzyme of the cuagulation but at the same time of the anticoagulation too ?

A

thrombin

363
Q
A
364
Q

what are the factors which are found in extrisnic way of coagulation only ?

A
  • factor III, thromboplastin, or thromokinase)
  • VII (proconvertin)
  • VIIa (convertin)
365
Q
A
366
Q

what causes hemophilia A ?

A

Factor VIII deficiency

367
Q

what causes hemophilia B ?

A

Factor IX deficiency

368
Q

what are the 3 mechanisms that stop the blood coagulation ?

A

1. Anticoagulation: the untouched endothelial cells bind the thrombin. The thrombin activates a plasma protein, the protein-C with the help of calcium. The active protein-C directly prevents the activation of the key enzymes of both the intrinsic and extrinsic activation complex (factors V and VIII)

2. Fibrinolysis: the thrombin stimulates the activation of an inactive plasma protease, the plasminogen. The forming plasmin is one of the most effective proteolytic enzyme that dissolves the fibrin-net. (The plasmin is so effective that its over-reaction could cause damage also to the surrounding tissues. The activating antiplasmin has an opposite effect.)

3. Thrombolysis: together with the loosening of the clot, the phagocytosis starting from the inside also decreases the size of the thrombus. The increasing perfusion plays a role in the demolition of the thrombus, too.

369
Q
A
370
Q

Coagulation factor I

A

fibrinogen

elementary substance of the stable fibrin net

371
Q

Coagulation factor II

A

Prothrombin

central enzyme: clot forming and elimination

372
Q

Coagulation factor III

A

tissue factor (thromboplastin)

initiator of the extrinsic way

373
Q

Coagulation factor IV

A

Calcium ion

fixes and activated the member of the cascade

374
Q

Coagulation factor V

A

Proaccelerin

a member of the central activator complex

375
Q

Coagulation factor VII

A

Proconvertin

initiator of the extrinsic way

376
Q

Coagulation factor VIII

A

Antihaemophilic factor-A

a member of the intrinsic activator complex

377
Q

Coagulation factor IX

A

Christmas factor (antih.-B)

member of the intrinsic way

378
Q

Coagulation factor X

A

Stuart-Prower factor

integrator of the intrinsic and extrinsic ways

379
Q

Coagulation factor XI

A

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

secondary initiator of the intrinsic way

380
Q

Coagulation factor XII

A

Hageman factor (contact factor)

primary activator of the intrinsic way

381
Q

Coagulation factor XIII

A

Lóránd-Laki, fibrin stabilizing factor

forms a fibrin-polymer from monomers

382
Q

Kininogen

A

activator of factor XII and kallikrein

383
Q

Kallikrein

A

activator of factor XII

384
Q

Vitamin K function

A

The reduced vitamin K in the liver forms a coenzyme of the carboxylation of the glutamic acid.
Needed for proper function of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and proteins C and S (K is for Koagulation).

385
Q

Dicumarol

A

competitive inhibitor of Vitamin K epoxide reductase used as an anticoagulant

386
Q

what is antigen ?

A

a substance that evokes an immune response or tolerance. They are identified as non-self entities.

387
Q

What is a hapten?

A

small molecular weight antigen , which can not induce immune reaction itself, but specifically recognized by immunoglobulins

388
Q

What is the epitope?

A

The part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself.
Antigen determinant, well circumscribed region of the antigen molecule that evokes immune response

389
Q

What is a xenoantigen?

A

antigen that is found in more than one species

390
Q

What is a alloantigen?

A

antigen, present in only some individuals of a species

391
Q

What is an autoantigen?

A

Any of an organism’s own antigens (self-antigens)

392
Q

MHC

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex.

alloantigens on the cell surfaces, glucoproteins.

Function: binds peptide fragments and display them on the cell surface for recognition by the appropriate T cells.

393
Q

PRR

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors.

these receptors are found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and they recognize the Pathogen-Associated Molecular Pattern (PAMP)

394
Q

PAMP

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Pattern.

(bacterial LPS, viral capsid, viral RNA, etc.),

induces activation of innate immunity.

395
Q
A
396
Q
A
397
Q

where the blood cells are produced in embryo ?

A

yolk sac, later in the foetal liver and spleen

398
Q

where the blood cells are produced at 4-5 months of gestation?

A

bone marrow gradually, becomes the principle site of all blood cells production

399
Q

where the blood cells are produced after birth?

A

all blood cells are produced in the bone marrow

400
Q

what is the progenitor cell of all blood cells which produced in the bone marrow ?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

401
Q
A
402
Q

what cell type mature in the thymus ?

A

T cells

(which will go back into circulation when mature)

403
Q

A lymph node consists of

A

• outer connective tissue capsule.

• trabeculae.
meshwork of reticular fibres.

  • cortex
  • medulla

• paracortex
(deep cortex)

404
Q

what does the cortex of lymph nodes contain mostly ?

A

B-lymphocytes

405
Q

what does the paracortex of lymph nodes contain mostly ?

A
  • T-lymphoctyes
  • dendritic cells
• HEV = High
Endothelial Venules (special post capillary venules)
406
Q

what is the function of HEVs ?

A

enables lymphocytes to directly enter a lymph node from the blood by crossing through the HEV

407
Q

what does the medulla of lymph nodes contain mostly ?

A

immunglobulin secreting plasma cells

408
Q

where is the spleen located ?

A

left side of the abdomen

(left upper quadrant)

409
Q

what is the function of red pulp ?

A

destroy old red blood cells

410
Q

what 2 main tissues does the spleen contain ?

A

white pulp and red pulp.

411
Q

what is the function of white pulp ?

A

Immune function of the spleen.
composed of lymphocytes and lymphoid nodules.

412
Q

what does MALT stand for ?

A

Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue

413
Q

what is MALT main function ?

A

protect mucosal surfaces: IgA production

414
Q

what are the components of Components of MALT ?

A

• GALT
Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue

• BALT
Bronchus-Associated Lymphoid Tissue

• NALT
Nasal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue

• CALT
Conjunctival-Associated Lymphoid Tissue

415
Q

Where are the Peyer’s patches located?

A

mainly in the mucous membrane of jejunum and ileum.

• a component of GALT.

416
Q

Waldeyer’s ring

A
  • composed of the pharyngeal, tubal, palatine, and lingual tonsils.
  • first line defense in the respiratory infections.
417
Q

vermiform appendix

A

worm-like projection of lymphatic tissue hanging off the cecum with no digestive function; may help to resist infection

418
Q

what are the 2 components/types of the immune system ?

A

Natural (inborn, innate) and Acquired (specific, adaptive)

419
Q

describe the natural (inborn, innate) immune system

A
  • older evolutionary defense
  • recognizes microbial components
  • can react immediately
  • it mediates the initial protection against invaders (first line of defense)
  • has no memory
420
Q

describe the acquired (specific, adaptive) immune system

A
  • it requires innate immunity
  • it is antigen specific response
  • it reacts later, after the innate immune response (there is a latency period)
  • it has immunological memory
421
Q

which immune system acts as the first line of defense ?

A

Natural (inborn, innate) immune system

422
Q
A
423
Q

the machrophages in the liver are called

A

Kupffer cells

424
Q

the machrophages in the connective tissu are called

A

histiocytes

425
Q

the machrophages in the bone are called

A

osteoclasts

426
Q

the machrophages in the brain are called

A

mikroglia

427
Q

what are the functions of macrophages in the innate immune system?

A
  • *A.** **Phagocytosis: internalisation and elimination (ingestion)
    1. ** recognition of pathogen by receptor - PAMP+PRR or opsonisation of an antigen: binding of an antibody/complement factor to an antigen.
  • *2.** endocytosis.
  • *3.** phagolysosome.
  • *4.** intracellular destruction of the structure.

B. antigen presentation.

C. recognition of tumor cells, inflammation.

428
Q

How can the innate immune system recognizes the PAMP structures?

A

through receptors: Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs),

for instance: Toll Like Receptors (TLR)

429
Q

what is the role of neutrophil granulocytes in the innate immune system ?

A

important in the defense against bacteria

430
Q

what is the role of eosinophil granulocytes in the innate immune system ?

A

important in the defense against parasites play a role in allergic reactions

431
Q

what is the role of basophil granulocytes in the innate immune system ?

A

inflammation

432
Q

what content do mast cell release during degranulation in innate immune system ?

A
  • histamine - local vascular dilatation, Permeability of vascular wall is increased.
  • chemotactic factors - migration of granulocytes to the inflammatory site.
  • heparin - bloodcoagulation.
  • TNFα (Tumour Necrosis Factor alpha) - an inflammatory cytokine produced by macrophages/monocytes during acute inflammation.
433
Q

what is the importance of dentritic cell in the immune system ?

A

Dendritic cells build a bridge between the adaptive and innate immune system.

These cells are APCs.

434
Q

What are natural killer cells?

A

Lymphocytes, part of the innate immune system, that attack foreign cells, cancer cells, and normal cells infected with viruses, by exocytosis of granules that causes target cell lysis.

435
Q

how can Natural Killer (NK) cells differentiate between an healthy cell and a tumor cell ?

A

healthy cell has a normal amount of MHC I, while tumor cell has a reduced number of MHC I

436
Q

what are the main molecular components of the innate immune system ?

A

• proteins in the blood and tissue fluids, mainly inactive enzymes - 1 activated enzyme is able to activate more than 1 inactive enzyme (mainly produced by the liver)

437
Q

What are the 3 pathways of the complement system?

A

• alternative pathway: previously unknown antigen appears in the body as a trigger (pathogens with fewer amount of sialic acid in their membrane).

  • most of the Gram negative bacteria.
  • a few Gram positive bacteria.
  • Ig-antigen complexes.
  • viruses, parasites, etc.
  • classic pathway: an immuncomplex activate this pathway.
  • MBL (Mannose Binding Lectin)-activated pathway.
438
Q

what is an immuncomplex ?

A

a molecule formed from the binding of 1 antigen to multiple antibodies or 1 antibody to multiple antigens

439
Q
A
440
Q

what are the functions of the complement system ?

A

• membrane attack complex
transmembrane channel:
disrupts the cell membrane of target cells.

  • opsonization: C3b fragments coat the pathogen → enhance phagocytosis.
  • facilitate inflammation
  • activation of mast cells and basophil granulocytes.
  • chemotaxis (neutrophil granulocytes).
441
Q

what is the the primary organ for B-lymphocyte development in mammals ?

A

bone marrow

(and foetal liver)

442
Q

what is the the primary organ for B-lymphocyte development in birds?

A

Bursa Fabricii

443
Q

during maturation, the B-cells are transformed into

A

plasma cells

(which takes part in the humoral immune response)

444
Q

during B cells maturation, what happens at antigen-independent development phase ?

A

immunocompetent B cells expressing antigen-specific membrane IgM (and IgD) are generated in the bone marrow

445
Q

during B cells maturation, what happens at antigen-dependent development phase ?

A

Antigen-induced activation of B cells leads to plasma cells or memory cells in the secondary lymphoid organs

446
Q

when do T cell get matured ?

A

only after the cells react against antigens but they do not react against self antigens.

447
Q

T cells recognize only

A

antigens that are displayed on cell surfaces with MHC

448
Q

describe the T-lymphocytes maturation

A

in Bone marrow: as hematopoietic
stem cells → T-cell precursors → in thymus: T-cell precursors → mature Tlympocytes

449
Q

what are the positive and negative selections in the thymus ?

A

selection in which T cells must go through both:
positive and negative selection in the thymus.

Positive selection: all cells surviving this step are able to recognize at least one of our own MHC molecules.

Negative selection: cells that have very strong and continuous binding, will be eliminated.

450
Q

What types of T lymphocytes are there?

A

• Cytotoxic T cells.
detect antigens when they are presented on a cell surface together with MHC I → kill virally infected cells / kill tumor cells → similar to NK cells, however they are not antigen specific (!)

• T helper cells.
cytokine production → activation, maturation of other immune cells

• Regulatory T cells.
suppression of both the adaptive and innate immune response.

451
Q

MHC genes („Major Histocompatibility Complex”) code proteins, which behave as antigens only during _______________________

A

incompatible organ transplantation

452
Q

what is MHC main function ?

A

bind and present peptides derived from an exogenous/endogenous.

453
Q

what are the types of MHC - name, localiztion and main function ?

A

• MHC I

localization:
present on the surface of each nucleated cells.

main function:
present peptides derived from endogenous protein antigens.

• MHC II

localization:
present on the surface of Antigen Presenting Cells
(macrophages, dendritic cells)

main function:
present peptides derived from exogenous protein antigens.

454
Q

what is immunglobulin ?

A 
An antibody (AB), also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig),
is a large Y-shape protein produced by plasma cells that is used by the immune system to identify and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. The antibody recognizes a unique molecule of the harmful agent, called an antigen
455
Q

what are the two functions of Immunglobulins?

A
  • membrane-bound immunglobulins → antigen recognition.
  • Immunglobulins secreted by plasma cells → humoral immunity.
456
Q
A
457
Q
A
458
Q

Fab stands for

A

Fragment Antigen Binding site

459
Q

Fc

A

responsible for effector function

(part of the antibody which can bind to the Fc receptor of Neutrophil granulocyte)

460
Q

how many amino acids there are in the domains, that both heavy and light chains are consist of ?

A

110 amino acids

461
Q

describe the isotypes of the Ig classes

A
  • found in all individuals of a given species.
  • Determined by constant regions.
  • IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE
462
Q

describe allotypes

A

an immunoglobulin variation that can be found among antibody classes.

• Determined Y hypervariable regions

463
Q

describe idiotypes

A

changes within the same antibody class, in the same individual, dertermined at the variable region.

464
Q

IgA

A

mucosal immunity.

[in tears, saliva, etc.]

  • dimer
  • a secretory component protect against enzimes.
465
Q

IgM

A

the first antibodies to be produced in a humoral immune response are always IgM.

  • remain in the circulation
  • pentamer (5 monomers)

• in case of ABO incompatibility - the huge size of the molecules blocks the transplacental transfer of
IgM → IgG can transfer → Rh incompatibility

466
Q

IgG

A
  • In blood mainly this class
  • Antibacterial, antiviral effect, Rh blood group system.
  • Produced during the secondary immune response
  • Opsonization (enhance phagocytosis)
  • monomer transfer through the placenta (Rh incompatibility)
467
Q

IgE

A
  • allergy
  • defense against parasites
468
Q

how many different immunglobulins are produced in the body ?~ 10^9

A

~ 10^9

469
Q

The body produces antibodies against ____________

A

all possible antigens

470
Q

gene encodine for each and every possible Ig in the genom is impossible in terms of space, what is the solution ?

A

gene rearrangament → the immunglobulin repertoire
uses only a limited number of genes

471
Q

describe the gene rearrangament

A

Gene segments, which encode the variable domins, are located far away from each other.

  • *1.** Double strand breaks in the DNA.
  • *2.** addition/deletion of nucleotids at the ends.
  • *3.** rearrangement (Genes locating far away from each other will be close to each other during recombination)

• The gene segments join each other randomly resulting in almost unlimited number of variable regions capable for recognizing millons of different possible antigens produced.

472
Q

describe the mechanism of Cytotoxic T cells Cellulare immune response

A

Th (helper) cells → cytokine → Tc activation, proliferation → Tc recognize the antigen → exocytosis of Tc granules → apoptosis of the target cell

473
Q

describe the humoral immune response

A

Mature B lymphocytes are developed: each of them are specific for 1 given epitope → contact with antigen → Activation, proliferation and differentation of B lymphocytes → Developing of plasma cells/memory cells → immunglobulins

474
Q
A
475
Q
A

Physiology - 1st midterm (1 decks)

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