Innate and Acquired Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What are defensins?

A
  • An array of antimicrobial peptides that protect almost every part of our bodies from a wide range of pathogens; ubiquitous, and produced by many cell types
  • At a minimum, their production increases the minimum infectious dose of microorganisms
    1. The higher inoculum that is needed to cause a disease, the less likely an organism is to cause symptomatic infection
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2
Q

Describe the shape of the defensins. How does this shape determine their MOA?

A
  • Amphipathic, alpha-helical structure (hydrophobic AA
    side chains on one side and hydrophilic AA side chains on other side): rich in + charged AA (ARG and LYS)
  • Multiple copies can multimerize via hydrophobic interaction, and overall + charge causes them to insert across (-) charged outer bacterial envelope (more effective in G- bugs)
  • Once inserted, the hydrophobic faces of each peptide monomer interact w/the hydrophobic lipids of the outer
    envelope, while the hydrophilic faces come together to form a pore in the surface of the pathogen (bactericidal)
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3
Q

What is the primary source of defensins in the gut?

A

Paneth cells

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4
Q

What are cathelicidins?

A
  • A type of antimicrobial peptide (distinct from defensins) that is produced in lysosomes of macrophages, neutrophils, and epithelial cells
  • Secondary structure of alpha helical and beta sheet motifs
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5
Q

Is the MAC more effective against G- or G+ bacteria?

A
  • Much more effective as a defense against G- (compared with G+) bacteria because of the differences in their outer envelop construction
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6
Q

Explain macrophage-mediated initiation of inflammation.

A
  1. Injury to the skin w/bacterial pathogen in tissue
  2. Resident macrophage recognizes the bacterium via
    PRRs and produces inflammatory cytokines to activate vascular endothelium, resulting in movement of fluid/inflammatory cells into tissue
  3. Newly recruited phagocytes take up bacteria they encounter and produce more inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha)
  4. Mvmt of fluid into tissues results in flow of fluid via the lymphatics toward the draining lymph nodes where APCs can present antigen to naïve T cells
  5. In many cases, innate phagocyte-mediated response can completely clear bacterial infection before symptoms
  6. If not, an amplified innate response will be produced to hold infection down until acquired response primed
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7
Q

What is NETosis?

A
  • A type of cell death that neutrophils can undergo that results in what is essentially the opposite of apoptosis
  • Instead of the genome being digested (like in apoptosis), it is expelled from the cell in undigested form, allowing it to create a web or net of chromatin material that can entrap pathogens, preventing their dissemination
  • Also results in expulsion of cytoplasmic contents, including digestive enzymes, anti-microbial peptides, etc.
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8
Q

What are endocytic PRRs?

A
  • Promote phagocytosis of microorganisms by phagocytes without relaying an IC signal
    1. Primarily recognize carbohydrates, i.e., mannose, glucan, and scavenger receptors
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9
Q

What are signaling receptors? Briefly describe the two types.

A
  • Toll-like receptors (TLRs): recognize microbial constituents (LPS, flagellin, peptidoglycans, etc.), and mediate signaling that initiates cytokine production
  • NOD-like receptors: cytoplasmic proteins that have affinity for microbial products; initiate signaling that results in production of inflammatory cytokines
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10
Q

Identify four specific TLRs, and their primary functions.

A
  • TLR2/6: heterodimers that recognize lipoteichoic acid (G+ bacteria) and zymosan (fungi)
  • TLR3: bind to double-stranded viral RNA
  • TLR4: heterodimers serve as receptor for LPS (G- bacteria)
  • TLR7/8: recognize single-stranded viral RNA
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11
Q

What are secreted PRRs? Provide at least 2 examples.

A
  • PRRs secreted from host cells (e.g., complement receptors, serum amyloid, c-reactive protein, mannose-binding protein)
    1. MBL: secreted PRR and acute phase reactant involved in initiation of the Lectin Complement Pathway
    2. C-reactive protein: binds to phosphocholine residues to initiate the Classical Complement Pathway (also an acute phase reactant)
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12
Q

List 5 of the cytokines released by macrophages in the innate response, and briefly describe their functions.

A
  1. IL-6: fever, acute-phase reactant production by liver
  2. TNF-alpha: activates vascular endothelium and increases vascular permeability locally, and also induces fever, mobilization of metabolites, and shock systemically
  3. IL-1beta: activates vascular endothelium and lymphocytes locally, and induces fever and produces IL-6 systemically
  4. CXCL8: chemotactic factor for neutro/basophils
  5. IL-12: activates NK cells
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13
Q

How do IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha released by macrophages work synergistically to initiate the innate immune response?

A
  1. Initiation of the acute phase response: stimulate the production of C-reactive protein and MBL
  2. Initiate neutrophil mobilization by acting on bone marrow endothelium, resulting in increased phagocytosis and killing of the pathogen.
  3. Act on both the hypothalamus and on fat and muscle to increase body temperature
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14
Q

What is fibrinogen?

A

A critical acute phase protein important for the clotting cascade

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15
Q

How does TNF-alpha localize inflammation and help limit the infection?

A
  • Activates vascular endothelium, causing leakage of fluids into the tissues, increasing diapedesis of phagocytes from the circulation into the tissues and platelet
    adhesion to the walls of small blood vessels
  • This results in occlusion of the blood vessels and prevents the bacteria form disseminating via the
    blood, allowing time for local phagocytes to engulf and kill the organisms
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16
Q

How can macrophage-derived TNF-alpha provoke septicemia?

A
  • Once a bacterial infection becomes septic, macros in the liver and spleen make TNF-alpha that is secreted directly into the bloodstream
  • TNF-alpha now acts systemically on the vasculature, inducing systemic leakage of fluids from the vasculature and adherence of platelets to the walls of small vessels
  • Small vessels become occluded due to a combination of reduced blood volume and platelet adhesion, and many of them collapse
  • This is particularly problematic in organs and can result in multiple organ failure, septic shock, and ultimately, death
17
Q

How do type 1 interferons mediate the innate response to viral infection?

A
  • Virus-infected cells release IFN-alpha and IFN-beta, provoking the interferon response
    1. Induce upregulation of MHC I/inhibitory ligand expression on surrounding cells
    2. Activate NK cells to kill virally infected cells (MIC proteins expressed by stressed cells)
    3. Increase expression of ligands for receptors on NK cells (NK cells are programmed to kill MHC I-deficient cells; do not need to express activation ligand)
18
Q

Describe the concept of antigen threshold, and its purpose.

A
  • Immune system is designed to respond to a wide range of antigens, but very low levels of antigen (because not indicative of infective process that would involve pathogen replication) -> a minimum threshold of antigen must be met before immune system will respond
  • Once that threshold is met, innate response initiates inflammatory responses that control pathogen replication and promote antigen presentation to develop acquired response
19
Q

How do dendritic cells sample antigen in the gut lumen?

A

They can extend from underlying mucosal surfaces into the lumen

20
Q

What percentage of our body’s lymphocytes reside in the MALT?

A

More than 50%

21
Q

What are the two primary effector functions of CD4 effector cells?

A
  1. Supplying the second signal of activation to B cells
  2. Activation of macrophages
22
Q

What are memory T cells?

A
  • A clonally expanded population of cells specific for a determinant of a pathogen that will live a very long time in the secondary lymphoid tissues
  • Re-exposure to the pathogen will result in a much more rapid and effective T-cell response
23
Q

What are the 4 cytotoxic effector molecules produced by CTLs?

A
  1. Perforin
  2. Granzymes
  3. Granulysin
  4. Fas-L

Others: IFN-gamma, LT-alpha, and TNF-alpha

24
Q

What are the 5 macrophage-activating effector molecules made by TH1 cells?

A
  1. IFN-gamma
  2. GM-CSF
  3. TNF-alpha
  4. CD40 ligand
  5. Fas-L

Others: IL-3, LT-alpha, CXCL2

25
Q

What are the 4 B-cell activating effector molecules of TH2 cells?

A
  1. IL-4
  2. IL-5
  3. IL-13
  4. CD40

Others: IL-3, GM-CSF, IL-10, TGF-beta, CCL11 (eotaxin), CCL17

26
Q

What are the 3 neutrophil recruiting effector molecules of TH17 cells?

A
  1. IL-17A
  2. IL-17F
  3. IL-6

Others: TNF, CXCL1

27
Q

What are the two suppressive cytokines released by Treg cells?

A
  1. IL-10
  2. TGF-beta

Others: GM-CSF

28
Q

What drives differentiation of TH0 cells into TH1 and TH2?List two for each pathway.

A
  1. TH1: IL-12 and IFN-gamma
  2. TH2: IL-4 and IL-6
29
Q

What cytokines are released by dendritic cells and NK cells to promote TH0 cell differentiation?

A
  1. Viruses and some bacteria:
    a. Dendritic cells- IL-12
    b. NK cells- IFN-gamma
  2. Other pathogens (e.g., worms):
    a. NK cells- IL-4
30
Q

What are the 3 primary effector functions of TH1 cells?

A
  1. Macrophage activation
  2. Production of IL-2 that can help drive proliferation of activated T cells
  3. Production of cytokines/chemokines that promote production of macrophages and neutrophils, and their migration to the inflammatory site
31
Q

What are the 6 primary effector molecules released by TH1 cells? Describe their actions. Hint: some are released as pairs.

A
  1. IFN-gamma and CD40 ligand: activate macrophages to destroy engulfed bacteria
  2. Fas-L or LT: kill chronically infected macros, releasing bacteria to be destroyed by healthy macros
  3. IL-2: induces T-cell proliferation, increasing number of T cells
  4. IL-3 and GM-CSF: induces macro differentiation in the bone marrow
  5. TNF-alpha and LT: activates endothelium to induce macro adhesion and exit from blood vessel at site of infection
  6. CXCL2: causes macros to accumulate at site of infection
32
Q

What two activation stimuli are require for full B-cell activation?

A
  1. Recognition of cognate antigen through Ig component of BCR
  2. TH cell that includes CD-40 ligand binding to CD40 on B cell and cytokines derived from helper T cell
33
Q

What Ab isotypes are most important for neutralization?

A

IgG1-G4, IgA

34
Q

What Ab isotypes are best for sensitization for killing by NK cells (initiating ADCC)?

A

IgG1 and IgG3

35
Q

What Ab isotypes are best for activation of the complement system?

A

IgM (+++), IgG3 (+++), and IgG1 (++)

36
Q

What Abs are best for transport across the placenta?

A

IgG1 (+++), IgG3 (++), IgG4 (++), and IgG2 (+)

37
Q

What are 4 ways of recognizing and killing virus infected host cells?

A

there are 4 mechanisms of recognition and killing of virus infected host cells:

1) recognition of high ratio of MIC to MHC class I by NK cells,
2) recognition of MHC class I-deficient cells by NK cells,
3) IgG1 and or IgG3 bound to surface proteins of infected cells [that will typically be viral envelope proteins] resulting in ADCC by NK cells, and
4) CTL recognition of cognate virus-derived peptides bound to MHC class I molecules via their TCR.