Inhaled Anesthetics Part 2 (Exam III) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the purposes of the anesthesia circuit?

A
  • Delivery of O₂ and inhaled anesthetics
  • Maintenance of temperature & humidity
  • Removal of CO₂ and exhaled drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What types of gas delivery systems are there?

A
  • Rebreathing (Bain system)
  • Non-rebreathing (BVM system)
  • Circle systems (Anesthesia machine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of system is depicted below?
Where is the aPL valve located on this system?

A
  • Bain Circuit
  • Blue circle depicts aPL below.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by 1?

A

Inspiratory Unidirectional Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by pink arrow?

A

Fresh Gas Inlet (O₂ & medical air)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by 2?

A

CO₂ (Canister) Absorber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by 3?

A

Bag/Ventilator Selector Switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by 4?

A

APL Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by 5?

A

Expiratory Unidirectional Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by 6?

A

Expiratory Limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the figure below, what portion of the anesthesia circle system is indicated by 7 and 8?

A
  1. Y-Piece (to ETT)
  2. Inspiratory Limb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the circle system ALWAYS have that the Bain and BVM don’t?

A
  1. Reservoir bag
  2. CO2 absorbent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When fresh gas flow (FGF) exceeds V̇T then you have _________________.

A

High Flow Anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When V̇T exceeds fresh gas flow (FGF) then you have _________________.

A

Low Flow Anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2 reasons we give high flow O2 before induction

A
  1. pre-oxygenate
  2. blow off nitrogen (denitrogenate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When would one see lack of rebreathing, wasteful volatile use, and cool dried air?

A

High flow anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When would one see lower volatile use, less cooling/drying of air, and slow changes in anesthetics?

A

Low flow anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Do volatiles cause bronchostriction or bronchodilation?

A

Bronchodilaton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do volatiles cause bronchodilation?

A
  • Blockage of VG Ca⁺⁺ channels
  • Depletion of SR Ca⁺⁺
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is the bronchodilatory effect of volatiles still present in someone with reactive airway disease?

A
  • No (or very little effect). Bronchodilatory effects of volatiles require an intact epithelium, normal inflammatory processes, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Will volatiles cause bronchospasm on their own (in a patient with no history of bronchospasm)?

A

No

Histamine release or vagal afferent stimulation needed to cause spasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a patient without history of bronchospasm, how much would you anticipate pulmonary airway resistance to change with 1-2 MAC? Or will this pt see significant bronchodilation?

A

If no bronchospasm in OR, baseline airway tone would be unchanged in patient with no history of bronchospasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which pts will have the best bronchodilatin effects with volatile gasses?

A

Pts with normal airway epithelium who do have a bronchospasm in the OR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What risk factors increase risk of bronchospasm?

A
  • COPD
  • Coughing w/ ETT in place
  • <10 years old
  • URI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What anesthetic is generally the best at bronchodilating?

A
  • Halothane (1st) but not used anymore
    Sevoflurane > Isoflurane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which anesthetic can function as a pulmonary irritant or worsen bronchospasm (especially in smokers)?

A

Desflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which volatile anesthetic in the graph below caused the greatest increase in airway resistance?
Lowest?

A
  • Desflurane = ↑ airway resistance
  • Sevoflurane = ↓ airway resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Inhaled anesthetics engender a dose-dependent skeletal muscle relaxation. T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which gas has no effect on the relaxation of skeletal muscles?

A

N₂O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F: Nitrous oxide is considered to be a volatile gas along with Sevo and Iso.

A

False. Nitrous is a gas at room temp.
Volatiles like Sevo and Iso are liquid and must be vaporized to be given as an anesthetic gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Will volatiles potentiate or inhibit NMBD’s? How?

A

Potentiate via sensitization of nACh receptors at NMJ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do volatile anesthetics cause skeletal muscle relaxation as a solo agent?

A

Volatiles cause skeletal muscle relaxation via enhancement of glycine at the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is ischemic preconditioning?

A

Brief periods of ischemia preparing the heart for longer periods of ischemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ischemic preconditioning with volatile anesthetics can occur as low as ______ MAC.

A

0.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why does ischemic preconditioning happen? (4)

A
  • ↑ PKC activity
  • Phosphorylation of ATP sensitive K⁺ channels
  • Production of ROS (Reactive Oxygen Species)
  • Better regulation of vascular tone.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What molecule mediates ischemic preconditioning?

A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does ischemic preconditioning prevent? (4)

A
  • Reperfusion injuries
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
  • Contractile dysfunction
  • Delays MI’s in CAD patients.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

At what dose does volatile depression of CMRO₂ begin?

A

0.4 MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

At what MAC would we see EEG burst suppression?
What about total electrical silence?

A
  • 1.5 MAC = burst suppression
  • 2 MAC = EEG silence

2 MAC ok for short period but never for long enough to cause EEG silence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which volatile causes the most EEG suppression?

A

Trick question. All 3 affect EEG’s the same.

Iso=Sevo=Des

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which volatiles have anticonvulsant activity?
When do they have it?

A

Des, Sevo, & Iso
At high concentrations & with hypocarbia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which volatile is a proconvulsant?
Particularly above 2 MAC or with PaCO2 < 30 mmHg

A

Enflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Give an example of a somato-sensory evoked potential (SSEP).

A

Stimulation of the foot evoking an electrical response in the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Give an example of a motor-evoke potential (MEP).

A

Direct stimulation of the brain eliciting a twitch response in the hand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

You have a case where SSEPs and MEPs need to be monitored, what general anesthetics options do you have?

A
  • TIVA
  • N₂O 60% and 0.5 MAC volatile.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What specific effects will volatile agents have on SSEPs and MEPs?

A

Dose-dependent (0.5 - 1.5MAC):

  • ↓ amplitude
  • ↑ latency (delayed frequency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What occurs with cerebral blood flow with volatile administration?

A

Dose dependent:

  • ↑ CBF due to dilated vessels
  • ↑ ICP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

At what MAC would you expect to start to see an increase in CBF due to volatile administration?

A

At > 0.6 MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which volatile has less vasodilatory effects?

A

Sevoflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which volatile has the greatest effect on increasing CBF? (and thus ICP)

A

Halothane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which volatiles cause less vasodilatory effects than Halothane and Enflurane?

A

Isoflurane and Desflurane (equal to Iso)

Sevo would be lower than all on graph

52
Q

Which volatile is the best for neuro cases? Why?

A

Sevoflurane

(preserves autoregulation mechanism up to 1 MAC).

53
Q

autoregulation is lost with Halothane at what dose?
It is lost with Iso and Des at what dose?

A

Halothane lost at 0.5 MAC
Des and Iso lost between 0.5 - 1.5 MAC

54
Q

What patient population is most at risk due to the ICP increasing effects of volatile agents?

A

Patients with CNS occupying tumor/lesion.

55
Q

What average ICP increase is seen with volatile use?

56
Q

At what volatile dosage does ICP increase?

57
Q

What do volatiles do to the respiratory system?

A

Dose dependent:

  • Tachypnea
  • ↓ VT
58
Q

How do volatiles cause their respiratory effects?

A
  • Direct depression of medullary ventilatory center.
  • Interference with intercostal muscles.
  • unable to maintain adequate Vm or PaCO2
59
Q

At what volatile dosage would apnea be seen?

A

1.5 - 2 MAC

60
Q

All 5 inhaled gasses will blunt both the hypoxic and hypercarbic response. T/F?

A

False. N₂O does not blunt the hypercarbic response.

61
Q

How can the hypercarbic response be preserved whilst using volatile anesthetic gasses?

A
  • Use N₂O and volatile together to acheive goal MAC (normal 1.3)
62
Q

Which volatiles blunt the hypoxic response?

A

All of them as well as nitrous

63
Q

Hypoxic response is blunted at ____ MAC by ____ and at ____ MAC by ____

A

Hypoxic response is blunted at 0.1 MAC by 50-70% and at 1.1 MAC by 100%

64
Q

What effect is seen in the graph below?

A

Use of N₂O-desflurane decreasing CO₂ induced hypercarbia compared to desflurane alone.

N2O alone is the least increase if any and Halothane alone is less increase than any gas besides nitrous

65
Q

What is hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction?

A

Contraction of pulmonary arteries to shunt blood away from poorly ventilated portions of the lung.

66
Q

When is the blunting of HPV most concerning?

A

When one lung ventilation is being utilized. –> would lead to massive V/Q mismatch

67
Q

How fast is the HPV response?

A

Fast: within 5 minutes regional blood flow is ½ of normal.

68
Q

50% depression of HPV occurs at ___ MAC.

69
Q

Which volatile(s) does not cause cardiac depression?

70
Q

How do volatiles cause hypotension?

A
  • Direct myocardial depression by altering Ca⁺⁺ entry and SR function.
71
Q

Volatiles will cause a dose-dependent decrease in ______ , ______ , and CO, drop in CO seen more with _____.

A

contractility ; SV

drop in CO seen more with Halothane

72
Q

When is volatile depression of cardiac function most concerning?

A

With pathologic hearts (particularly pathologies of ↓ contractility)

73
Q

What volatile can cause significant tachycardia with overpressurization? What pts would this gas not be used on?

A

Desflurane

pts with coronary perfusion issues –> will greatly decrease coronary perfusion time with high HR

74
Q

When will sevoflurane begin to cause increases in heart rate?

A

Only at > 1.5 MAC

75
Q

What variables confound the tachycardic effect of volatiles? (4)

A
  • Anxiety
  • Concurrent opioids (hides the high HR)
  • β blockade (hides the high HR)
  • Vagolytics
76
Q

What gas is slightly sympathomimetic, causing a slight increase in CO?

77
Q

Which volatiles show a mild increase in CI (and CO) after 1 MAC? Why?

A

Des and Sevo due to increase in HR

78
Q

Is the coronary steal effect of volatiles clinically significant?

79
Q

What electrocardiac effect do volatiles have?

A

QT prolongation via inhibition of K⁺ currents.

80
Q

Which gas has minimal pro-arrhythmic activity?

81
Q

What volatile is the gas of choice for EP ablations? Why?

A
  • Sevoflurane
  • Other volatiles increase refractoriness of accessory pathways making identification of arryhthmia location difficult.

Sevo gang.

She said just don’t use GA, use TIVA instead

82
Q

Volatile neuroendocrine modulation will supress the normal activation of ____ and ____ resulting in a perioperative surge in _______, _______, and _______.

A

ANS and HPA (hypothalamus-pituitary axis)

catecholamines; ACTH; & cortisol

83
Q

Volatiles will suppress what important immune system components?

A

Volatiles suppress:
monocytes
macrophages
T-cells.

84
Q

What does the total neuroendocrine profile of volatile anesthetics suggest for cancer patients undergoing surgery?

A

Neuraxial anesthesia is likely better than GA for cancer patients.

85
Q

What hepatic blood flow changes are seen with volatile administration?

A

Portal vein dilation = ↑ portal vein flow.

86
Q

Which volatile is the only one that decreases hepatic blood flow?

A

Halothane (likely contributes to halothane hepatitis)

87
Q

What is volatile hepatotoxicity?
When is it a concern?

A
  • Inadequate oxygenation of liver cells via ↓ blood flow and ↑ O₂ demand.
  • Concern for patients with preexisting liver disease.
88
Q

What is Type 1 Volatile hepatotoxicity?

with Halothane

A
  • Direct toxicity or free radical effect 1-2 weeks post surgically with N/V & fever in 20% of patients.

Like the flu

89
Q

What is Type 2 Volatile Toxicity?

A
  • Reaction caused only with previous exposure to volatile with:
  • eosinophilia
  • fever
  • higher mortality rate from hepatitis and necrosis.
  • 1 month after exposure

will see rise in Ig antibodies

90
Q

Which volatile is the choice anesthetic for severe liver disease? Why?

A

Sevoflurane: broken down to vinyl halide and won’t stimulate antibody production causing a Type II reaction.

Sevo the GOAT gas fr

91
Q

What volatiles are metabolized into acetyl halides? What is the significance of this?

A

Enflurane > Iso > Des

  • Oxidized by P450 system
  • Acetyl halides can cause antibody reactions especially with previous exposure to halothane or enflurane.
  • antibodies not seen with Iso and Des
92
Q

Which volatile is not capable of stimulating antibody production and is metabolized to vinyl halide?

93
Q

What are the renal effects of volatile anesthetics?

A

Dose dependent decrease in RBF, GFR, and UO from CO depression.

Will need foley for cases 2 hrs and longer

94
Q

How can the renal effects of volatile anesthetics be counteracted?

A

Hydration (both pre-operative and intra-operative).

95
Q

What other organ (besides the heart) undergoes protective ischemic preconditioning from volatile anesthetics?

96
Q

What toxic metabolites of volatiles can cause nephrotoxicity?
Why is this not an issue typically?

A
  • Fluoride metabolites
  • Newer volatiles are exhaled prior to being metabolized.
97
Q

What volatile is 70% metabolized and can cause fluoride metabolite nephrotoxicity more than any of the other volatiles?

A

Methoxyflurane

98
Q

What measure is utilized in CO₂ absorbents today to help prevent the formation of compound A?

A

75% or greater concentrations of calcium hydroxide.

99
Q

What is compound A and how many ppm caused ATN and how many caused death?

A

Fluoromethyl-2,2-difluro-1-vinyl ether
Formed via early Sevos high levels of potassium and sodium hydroxide

100 ppm = ATN
400 ppm = Death in rats

100
Q

How is Sevo made now to help avoid compound A?

A

made with 75% or more calcium hydroxide

101
Q

With Sevos new formulation how much compound A is formed at 1, 3, and 6 L/min of FGF?

A
  • 19.7 ppm at 1 L/min
  • 8.1 ppm at 3 L/min, and
  • 2.1 ppm at 6 L/min
102
Q

What volatile is predisposed to starting fires? Why?

A
  • Sevoflurane
  • Sevo + baralyme (absorbent) produce methanol and formaldehyde causing a heat and and eventual explosion.
103
Q

How is sevoflurane fire avoided?

A
  • Addition of H₂O to Sevo
  • Check temp of absorbent cannister
  • Exchange exhausted absorbents
104
Q

Which volatile anesthetics are emetogenic?

105
Q

What are the common triggers mentioned in lecture that increase liklihood of PONV? (4)

A
  1. Female
  2. Belly surgery
  3. Redhead (excess pheomelanin production)
  4. Prior family hx of PONV
106
Q

What rate of PONV is seen with two triggering agents? (ex. desflurane and fentanyl)

A

25 - 30% PONV

107
Q

When is N₂O emetogenic?

A

At greater than 50% or 0.5 MAC

108
Q

Why is N₂O administration in a pregnant patient with B12 deficiency dangerous?

A

N₂O will oxidize the cobalt ion in B12 thus inhibiting methionine synthase = inhibition of DNA synthesis in fetus

109
Q

Which volatile anesthetic can cause bone marrow suppression?

110
Q

What is the result from increases in plasma homocysteine levels from N₂O administration?

A

If the patient also has low B vitamins and atherosclerosis, then N₂O increases risk of myocardial events.

111
Q

What is/are the obstetric effects of volatile anesthetics?

A

Dose-dependent (0.5 - 1.0 MAC) decrease in uterine smooth muscle contractility.

112
Q

When would a decrease in uterine muscle tone be useful?

A

With retained placenta

113
Q

When would an increase in uterine muscle tone be useful?

A

Uterine atony (↑ blood loss)

114
Q

Why is N₂O useful in mom’s post delivery?

A

Swiftly increases analgesia without opioid/benzo’s (use as the spinal starts to wear off).

115
Q

Which volatiles have a sweeter smell?

A
  • Halothane
  • Sevoflurane
116
Q

Which volatile is considered the gold standard to compare others with?

117
Q

What is the only real benefit of halothane?

118
Q

What are the four major concerns of halothane?

A
  • Catecholamine-induced arrhythmias
  • Hepatic necrosis
  • Pediatric brady-arrhythmias
  • Decomposing into HCL acid.
119
Q

Which two volatiles can’t be used for induction due to their awful smell?

A
  • Isoflurane
  • Desflurane (the worst of all for pungent)

could lead to laryngospasm

120
Q

Which volatile does not degrade, even after 5 years of storage?

A

Isoflurane

121
Q

If a vaporizer has a heating element, then the gas for that vaporizer can be assumed to be ____________.

A
  • Desflurane
122
Q

List the order in which volatiles will degrade into carbon monoxide if the absorbent becomes exhausted.

A

Desflurane (worst) > Enflurane
> Isoflurane > Sevoflurane (trivial)

Sevo on top per usual.

123
Q

Which volatile anesthetic would be the choice for inhalation induction? Why?

A
  • Sevoflurane
  • Least airway irritation & smells sweet not pungent.

Yet another example of sevo superiority.

124
Q

Which volatile causes the least increase in ICP?

A

Sevoflurane

In Sevo, we trust.

125
Q

How does N₂O produce skeletal muscle relaxation?

A

Trick question. It does not.

126
Q

What are the benefits of N₂O ?

A
  • Good analgesia
  • 2nd gas effect
127
Q

What are the major cons of N₂O? (4)

A
  • N/V @ 0.5 MAC
  • ↑ PVR
  • No surgeries with air filled spaces
  • May increase Right to Left shunt in neonates –> jeopardizes their arterial oxygenation