Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ISC UWorld > Information Systems Part 1 > Flashcards

Information Systems Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How can machine learning improve the performance of Accounting Information Systems?

A
  • By AUTOMATING repetitive and manual tasks
  • Ex: QuickBooks and the Bank Feed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why do organizations use Accounting Information Systems?

A
  • To store, collect, and process financial data
  • The AIS generates important reports that are part of decision making for managers and stakeholders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When an Accounting Information System is a module in an Enterprise Resource Planning system, what bad thing happens?

A
  • The AIS relies on a single database that is accessible by every individual within the company
  • Because of this, an improper segregation of duties can occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an Enterprise Resource Planning system?

A
  • It is a business information system that automates business processes, share common data, and facilitate reporting in real-time, which improves flexibility and responsiveness
  • Example: Microsoft Dynamics 365
  • It integrates data from different functional areas, customers, and vendors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are common IT system changes?

A
  • Upgrades
  • Cloud transitions
  • Additions/Deletions
  • Configuration changes
  • Code modifications
  • Updates/Patches
  • Data modifications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How should policies and procedures for requesting, approving, implementing, and monitoring changes to IT resources be documented?

A

They should be documented in a written CHANGE MANAGEMENT PLAN that is repeatable and auditable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vendors and customers share responsibility for ____ of a SaaS cloud application?

A

SECURITY
- The customer manages their own settings and physical security at their location.
- The vendor manages the physical security and overall controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is IT architecture?

A

It is a FUNCTIONAL RISK AREA that focuses on an organization’s ability to develop systems that align corporate strategy, organizational objectives, and long-term technologies (hardware, software, data, procedures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is public cloud?

A
  • 3rd party service provider owns IT computing architecture
  • Multiple public users can share access to public cloud resources
  • This results in lower costs, scalability (ability to be changed in size/scale)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is hybrid cloud?

A

It uses a combo of public, private, and community cloud models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a community cloud?

A
  • It is a cloud that can be used by a specific group of organizations with a common purpose
  • Ex: Hospital chain uses this cloud to share patient info
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is CONTINUOUS INTEGRATION?

A

It is a change development practice where code changes are frequently and automatically integrated into a shared repository with the objective of catching bugs early in the development process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is automated testing?

A

It is the most common method of validating Continuous Integration Code changes before deployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the order of continuous integration?

A
  • Unit
  • Integration
  • System
  • Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are availability reports?

A
  • They are reports that directly address system uptime and downtime durations.
  • These reports measure compliance with service level agreements.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Service Level Agreement?

A
  • Many organizations use these to define the details regarding the provision of an IT service (ex: networking services) from a 3rd party vendor.
  • Service level agreements are important because they specify expectations of service availability, usage, performance, capacity, processing, storage requirements, responsibilities of each party, and penalties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the correct sequence of activities in a patch management process?

A

1) Identification/creation
2) Scheduling
3) Testing
4) Deployment
5) Audit/Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is patch management?

A

It is the process of identifying, testing, and applying software updates (patches) to fix vulnerabilities, enhance performance, and ensure the security of systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is patch management important for?

A

It is important for hosting machines with operating systems because by regularly applying updates (patches) to the OS, the OS can get protection against security vulnerabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the COSO internal control components?

A

Control Environment
Risk Assessment
Information and Communication
Monitoring
Control Activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the control environment of COSO internal control - integrated framework encompass?

A

Tone at the top
Organizational structure
Ethical values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why are walkthroughs performed?

A

To obtain a qualitative understanding of a process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does testing the operating effectiveness of controls involve?

A

It involves QUANTITATIVE testing on a sample or general population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a differential backup?

A
  • It stores all the data since the last full backup
  • Requires less storage than full backups
  • Restoration time is long
  • It requires more storage than incremental backups
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an incremental backup?

A

It stores data that is generated or changed since the last full or incremental backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the duties of a Cloud Computing Steering Committee?

A

They decide what processes, applications, or data should move to the cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Mean Time to Recover?

A

This tracks the average time it takes to restore a service or system after an outage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a key purpose of the ANALYSIS phase of a business impact ANALYSIS?

A

To identify, score, and prioritize critical business functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 5 phases of a business impact analysis?

A
  • Prepare
  • Gather information
  • Analyze
  • Write/Present BIA report
  • Implement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the business impact analysis?

A

It is a process for evaluating the consequences of a disruption to critical business functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a gantt chart?

A

It is a visual representation of project management timelines that are used for planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are tabletop exercises?

A
  • This is 1 method of testing existing Business Continuity Plans
  • All personnel with BCP duties meet and walk through a potential disruption scenario to find and mitigate deficiencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the difference between phased and parallel installation processes?

A

A parallel approach involves running 2 systems simultaneously, but some users are on the new system while others are on the old system under the phased approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the phased approach?

A

It allows a company with multiple geographic locations to gradually implement new systems one location at a time, minimizing operation disruptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is MIRRORING?

A
  • It involves keeping at least 2 identical copies of a database on separate machines
  • Only 1 copy (principal database) is available for use
  • Updates to the principal database are copied to the mirrored database.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is REPLICATION?

A

It is multiple copies of data and database objects on different databases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a distributed database?

A
  • It is a database that can be replicated but not mirrored
  • Replication of distributed systems allows applications to access remote databases in multiple locations
  • Since distributed data is stored in multiple databases, rather than a centralized database, it would be impossible to create a single mirror of the entire database
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are data interface controls?

A
  • They are communication rules that may use middleware software configured with controls, which ensure prompt data transfers
  • These controls address access, session lengths, protocols, and security
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a BLOCKCHAIN?

A

It is an APPEND-ONLY (add as a supplement) ledger, which is a sequential (following in a logical order) database maintained by a DECENTRALIZED network of users

40
Q

Are blockchain records IMMUTABLE (unable to be changed)?

A

YES
This means that the records are encrypted and cannot be changed

41
Q

What is the correct order of the flow of change environment?

A

1) Development
2) Testing
3) Staging
4) Production

42
Q

When does change to applications become available to all users?

A

PRODUCTION

43
Q

Infrastructure as a Service is responsible for

A
  • Servers and storage
  • Networks and security
  • Infrastructure facility
44
Q

Platform as a Service is responsible for

A
  • Database & analytical tools
  • Operating systems
  • Servers and storage
  • Networks and security
  • Infrastructure facility
45
Q

Software as a Service is responsible for

A
  • Hosted apps
  • Database and analytics tools
  • Operating systems
  • Servers and storage
  • Networks and security
  • Infrastructure facility
46
Q

What is Business Process as a Service?

A

It is an extension of SaaS and outsources entire business processes, such as payroll to a 3rd party who has cloud services

47
Q

What is a cool thing that a virtual server can do?

A

It can run its own operating system and applications and enable multiple operating systems to run on a single physical server

48
Q

What is cloud computing governance?

A
  • It refers to oversight of an organization’s mission, vision, and core values.
  • Good governance includes profitability, so the benefits of cloud usage should outweigh the risks.
49
Q

What is the Governance and culture component of the COSO ERM for Cloud Computing concerned with?

A

They are concerned with setting the TONE AT THE TOP to ensure cloud strategies are aligned with the company’s values, including its risk appetite for migration to the cloud

50
Q

What is the greatest threat to one’s financial statement?

A

It’s from a public blockchain’s underlying lack of internal controls because there may be no recourse in case of a dispute

51
Q

What is a router?

A

It is a device that receives data packets from 1 network and sends them to a different network using the most efficient path

52
Q

What is a switch?

A

It is something that connects all the devices within an entity’s computer network by moving data between the devices

53
Q

What is a proxy server?

A
  • It is a server that CONCEALS an internet user’s real identity.
  • It routes data packets indirectly but doesn’t make intelligent routing decisions like a router does.
54
Q

What is technology debt?

A

It is the cost of maintaining existing legacy systems plus the opportunity cost of not switching to modern systems.

55
Q

Technology debt arises from what?

A
  • Heavily customized systems
  • Short-term, not long-term solutions prevent an organization from focusing on long-term strategy
  • Obsolete technology needs more maintenance
56
Q

What is a staging environment?

A
  • It allows a sample group of END USERS the chance to evaluate changes to applications before going live.
  • Staging environment would be the same as the live environment.
57
Q

When user entities outsource business functions, what happens?

A

They are still responsible for 3rd party vendor oversight

58
Q

What is the Systems Development Life Cycle?

A

It is a subset of an organization’s change management function.

59
Q

What system components are included in the Systems Development Life Cycle?

A
  • Infrastructure
  • Software
  • Data
  • Procedures and personnel needed to meet objectives
60
Q

What are the steps in the Systems Development Life Cycle?

A

1) Analysis
2) Design
3) Development
4) Testing
5) Implementation
6) Maintenance

61
Q

What is parallel testing?

A
  • It is testing where processing is performed at the same time at both the primary and alternate site.
  • The results are compared to ensure processing was correct and complete
62
Q

What is simulation testing?

A
  • It is testing that is done before parallel testing
  • It is performed only at the alternate site
63
Q

What is full interpretation testing?

A
  • It is testing that is done after parallel testing.
  • It has the GREATEST RISK of DISRUPTING ACTUAL OPERATIONS because all primary site processing is stopped and sent to the alternate site.
64
Q

What should a disaster recovery plan focus on?

A

It should focus on procedures that will help restore critical systems in the event of a disaster

65
Q

What would happen if a systems analyst quit his job?

A

His departure would be a significant risk because it could result in a knowledge gap within the development team

66
Q

What item can help the development team stay on schedule in the event a systems analyst quit his job?

A

Systems documentation can hep his team stay on schedule

67
Q

What is a grandfather-father-son retention system?

A

It is a backup control used for recovering transactional data (information that’s captured from business transactions) after system downtime

68
Q

What is the order of functional tests for a company that develops applications using the continuous integration/continuous deployment pipeline?

A

1) Unit Testing
2) Integration testing
3) System testing
4) Acceptance testing

69
Q

What are general controls?

A

They relate to the integrity of an information system

They are subdivided into:
- Access controls
- Change controls
- Operations controls
Ex: Systems documentation

70
Q

What are application controls?

A
  • They are aimed at processes within a specific software program
  • Ex: Field checks
71
Q

What are change controls?

A

They prevent, detect, and correct unauthorized changes to systems, applications, and data

72
Q

What is the change management process?

A
  • Change requested
  • Request evaluated
  • Change implemented
  • Change tested
73
Q

What is scope creep?

A

It is when a project’s requirements, deliverables, or objectives increase beyond the original agreement

74
Q

What needs to be done to test the operating effectiveness of the segregation of duties between change management team?

A

Service auditor needs to inspect management’s quarterly review of permissions to ensure that developers and migrators are in separate permission groups

75
Q

What is a baseline configuration?

A
  • It is a document, formally reviewed, and agreed-upon system specification that serves as a basis for future builds, releases, or changes.
  • It’s a record of the system components and architecture at a point in time.
76
Q

What are endpoint devices?

A

Computers, tablets, smartphones

77
Q

What is middleware?

A

It is a utility program that helps different software programs communicate with one another to improve the efficiency of a computer system

78
Q

What is a server?

A

They are powerful computers that store, process, and manage data

79
Q

How can the operating effectiveness of a business continuity plan be evaluated?

A

This can be done by reviewing the results from previous business continuity tests conducted by internal IT team

80
Q

What can an IoT device do that an endpoint device like a wireless camera cannot do?

A

IoT devices can connect to a security system, but a wireless camera cannot do that

81
Q

What are Input types of application controls?

A
  • Validity checks
  • Range (limit) checks
  • Authorization checks
  • Hash amounts
  • Batch controls
82
Q

What are processing types of application controls?

A
  • Data validation
  • Sequence checks
  • Completeness checks
  • Duplication checks
83
Q

What are Output types of application controls?

A
  • Distribution lists
  • Printer security
  • Storage controls
  • Confidentiality controls
84
Q

What are the 3 types of application controls?

A
  • Input
  • Processing
  • Output
85
Q

What is an important use for a patch?

A
  • It is to respond to security risks, as out of date systems are vulnerable to incidents
  • Ex: The Equifax breach affected millions of people because the company didn’t patch its network after being alerted to a critical security vulnerability
86
Q

Why is outsourcing helpful?

A

It is helpful because companies may find it hard to staff an internal department with the right knowledge

87
Q

What are the benefits of a shared database in an Enterprise Resource Planning System?

A
  • A shared database improves data quality by reducing the opportunity for duplication and errors
  • Information is entered into the ERP only 1x, so there is less risk of inconsistencies that are seen in multiple standalone systems
88
Q

Service availability formula

A

(Agreed service time - Downtime) / Agreed service time

89
Q

What is needed in a systems specification document?

A
  • Writing this document is an important step in the analysis phase of systems development
  • This document describes what the system will do and how it will operate
  • It addresses end-user requirements, such as description of data elements
90
Q

What is the Resources, Events, and Agents data model?

A
  • It is a model where RESOURCES are items of economic value
  • EVENTS are business activities
  • AGENTS are internal and external stakeholders who participate in events
91
Q

What is a Unified Modeling Language diagram?

A
  • AKA “Entity Relationship Diagram”
  • It is a visual representation of a conceptual data model that shows the tables in a database and the associations between them
92
Q

What is Recovery Time Objective?

A
  • It is a target for the maximum amount of downtime a business can tolerate
  • A baseline RTO is established during a business impact analysis to calculate the cost of downtime
93
Q

What is pseudo anonymity?

A
  • It is being invisible and hiding your true identity in blockchain
  • This risk can be mitigated (lessened) by developing a CODE OF CONDUCT
94
Q

Walkthroughs are performed to

A

Obtain a QUALITATIVE UNDERSTANDING of a process

95
Q

What is user acceptance testing?

A

It is a process where the sample group ensures that the changes meet predefined acceptance criteria

ISC UWorld (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions