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INFORMATION Flashcards

1
Q

What is the output percentage when the signal is 9 mA for a transmitter with a 4-20 mA signal and a pressure range of 3-15 psi?

A

31.25%

Calculation: (9 mA - 4 mA) / (20 mA - 4 mA) * 100% = 31.25%

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2
Q

What is a characteristic of current loops?

A

High impedance and prevent noise.

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3
Q

What is the maximum loop resistance in a circuit with a 24 V power supply and a minimum voltage reading of 12 V?

A

600 Ω.

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4
Q

From where is the positive DC power for the pressure transmitter supplied?

A

PIC-3016 terminal 3.

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5
Q

What action is indicated for controller ‘FC1’ in a P&ID showing a distillation process?

A

Direct acting: every time actuator is FAIL OPEN.

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6
Q

Where do you ground a shield?

A

At one end only.

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7
Q

What is the minimum size of wire used for grounding?

A

12 AWG.

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8
Q

What causes electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

A

Electromagnetic induction.

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9
Q

What is the resolution calculation for an input of 4-20 mA with 10 bits?

A

15.6 μA.

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10
Q

Which device converts a 3-15 psi signal into a 4-20 mA signal?

A

Transducer.

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11
Q

What is being adjusted when performing a sensor trim?

A

Characterization table.

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12
Q

What must be done if a transmitter is set to multi-drop mode but there is a variation of current?

A

The address must be greater than 0.

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13
Q

What is the main function of a single loop digital controller (SLDC)?

A

Provide feedback control.

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14
Q

What is the first step that the SLDC performs?

A

Analog-to-digital conversion (ADC) input.

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15
Q

What is the possible range of readings for a 0-1000 kPa transmitter with an accuracy of ± 1% of span showing a reading of 500 kPa?

A

490 to 510 kPa.

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16
Q

What type of statement is “± 0.5% of reading”?

A

An accuracy statement.

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17
Q

What is traceability?

A

An unbroken chain of comparisons of an instrument’s measurements to a known standard.

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18
Q

What is the differential pressure range determined at LRV?

A

-22.13 kPa to -2.75 kPa.

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19
Q

What is the configuration range for the DP transmitter at LRV?

A

-12.87 kPa to 4.71 kPa.

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20
Q

What are the three considerations when working with nuclear devices?

A

Time, distance, and shielding.

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21
Q

What is the principle of ultrasonic measurement?

A

The time it takes for the signal to reach a surface and be reflected back to the detector.

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22
Q

How do you correct an issue with ringing in an ultrasonic transmitter?

A

Raise the sensor.

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23
Q

Which type of capacitance probe would you use for a conductive solution?

A

A sheathed probe.

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24
Q

Where would it be difficult to use a magnetostrictive level?

A

Sticky process will prevent float from sliding along tube.

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25
What happens when white light passes through a prism?
Refraction.
26
What type of fluid has its viscosity decrease as flow increases?
Non-Newtonian.
27
What is the relationship between viscosity and Reynolds number?
The higher the viscosity, the lower the Reynolds number.
28
What is the purpose of using ‘double chronometry’ with small volume piston provers?
Improved accuracy.
29
Which of the following doesn’t need a good flow velocity profile?
V-Cone.
30
On what principle does a mag-meter work?
Faraday’s Law.
31
In which situations does a mag-meter not work well?
Pressure and temperature changes.
32
What is the frequency for a turbine flowmeter with a K-factor of 15 pulses per liter and a flow rate of 15 liters per second?
13,500 pulses/min.
33
What is an advantage of a vortex meter?
No moving parts.
34
What is the principle used in radar/Doppler measurement?
Phase shift of a frequency reflected from an object and back to the sensor.
35
In a Coriolis/mass flow meter, what is measured by the frequency phase shift?
Mass Flow rate.
36
What do you need to measure mass flow?
Density and Flow rate.
37
What does a gas eliminator do in relation to PD flowmeters?
Eliminates overspeeding.
38
What is a requirement for a nutating disk positive displacement meter to function properly?
Full pipe.
39
Which readings are needed to convert from current flow conditions to standard flow conditions?
Pressure and temperature.
40
What is an example of a chemical reaction?
Burning of natural gas.
41
What does a neutral compound have?
An equal number of Protons and Electrons.
42
What does an atom gain when it gains an electron?
A negative ion.
43
What BEST describes polar bonding?
Unequal sharing of bonding electrons.
44
What is the oxidation number of Group 1A?
1+.
45
What is the cation in Cu7PO4?
Cu.
46
What is the definition of molar mass?
The mass of one mole of a given substance.
47
What is the ppm of 3.6 mg of mercury in 5 L of water?
0.7 ppm.
48
What does a catalyst do?
Speeds up a reaction.
49
What is the definition of an endothermic reaction?
It is a reaction that absorbs energy.
50
Which of the following pH values is the most basic?
7.8.
51
Why can carbon have so many bonds?
Exceptional ability to form bonds with other carbon atoms.
52
What is the structure of butene?
FOUR carbon atoms with one DOUBLE bond.
53
What is the chemical name for C6H6?
Benzene.
54
What is the difference between aromatics and other hydrocarbons?
Aromatics have a benzene ring.
55
Which of the following is a destructive testing method?
Tensile strength.
56
What does Rockwell testing measure?
Indentation.
57
What type of error can calibration reduce?
Systematic error.
58
What is one advantage of extractive sampling over in-situ sampling?
More extensive sample conditioning.
59
When using a sample probe, what is an important consideration?
Taking the sample from the middle.
60
How does one reduce lag times when using a distant analyzer?
Reduce the tubing diameter.
61
What is the definition of relative humidity?
Compares actual moisture to maximum moisture at the same temperature.
62
What is the dew point equivalent to in a relative humidity percentage?
100%.
63
What happens in a gas analyzer when the temperature is at -40°C and the dew point is -20°C?
Water condenses and freezes.
64
What is the main component of natural gas?
Methane.
65
How does an upward drift of 20% in an oxygen analyzer affect the air-fuel ratio (AFR)?
AFR increases, CO decreases.
66
What is measured at the glass membrane of a pH measurement electrode?
Potential.
67
What does ion activity mean in pH or specific ion measurement?
The concentration of ions.
68
Why is pH difficult to measure?
An increase of ONE ion can significantly affect the measurement.
69
How does an upward drift of 20% in an oxygen analyzer affect the air-fuel-ratio (AFR)?
AFR increases, CO decreases.
70
What is measured at the glass membrane of a pH measurement electrode?
Potential ## Footnote Base = OH- negative voltage, Acid = H+ positive voltage
71
Why is pH difficult to measure?
An increase of ONE unit on the pH scale means the ion concentration has increased 10 times.
72
High purity drinking water benefits most from which measurement?
Conductivity.
73
How does a nephelometric turbidimeter work?
It measures the suspended solids in a fluid by the amount of light being scattered at 90 degrees.
74
What is kinematic viscosity?
Dynamic viscosity divided by density.
75
What is a vector change in velocity called?
Acceleration.
76
What does the Laplace transfer function define?
Steady-state output after a process variable (PV) change.
77
Which process is an example of a dead-time process?
Conveyor belt.
78
What is the formula to calculate static gain?
K< = ∆PV / ∆CO
79
What happens to the dynamic gain of an open loop system when the frequency of the input signal changes?
The dynamic gain decreases.
80
For an integrating process, how does increasing frequency affect the dynamic gain and phase angle?
The dynamic gain decreases and the phase angle stays constant at 90 degrees.
81
For a first order process, how does increasing frequency affect the dynamic gain and phase angle?
The dynamic gain decreases and the phase angle increases up to 90 degrees.
82
What is true about the gain of a linear process?
It is the same at any given point.
83
What is the purpose of setpoint ramping?
Reduce/eliminate Proportional-kick.
84
What is the proper tuning sequence for cascade control?
The inner loop is tuned first while the outer loop is in manual mode.
85
What must be true for a cascade control loop to function properly?
The inner loop must be faster than the outer loop.
86
How does one prevent reset windup in selective control?
The output of the non-selected controller is tied into the input feedback of the selected controller.
87
What is an example of selective control?
There are more valves than controllers.
88
At which point on the following curve would there be the least gain?
30%.
89
What type of controller action ramps between 0% and 100% without following the set-point?
On-Off.
90
What action contributes most to making a loop difficult to control?
Deadtime.
91
What type of control responds to set-point and load disturbances?
Derivative.
92
What variable is used to determine the amount of derivative effect in the controller output?
Amount of error.
93
Which control scheme will ramp up to 100%?
Integral.
94
Which controller settings can use manual bias?
PD.
95
What protects the primary loop from reset windup in cascade control?
External reset feedback.

third year studying (1 decks)

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