Informatics Flashcards

1
Q

What is knowledge viability?

A

Knowledge viability refers to applications (most technology based) that offer easily accessible, accurate, and timely information obtained from a variety of resources and methods and presented in a manner so as to provide the necessary elements to generate new knowledge.

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2
Q

What does RDBMS stand for?

A

Relational Database Management System

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3
Q

What is a Relational Database Management System?

A

A relational database management system (RDBMS) is a collection of programs and capabilities that enable IT teams and others to create, update, administer and otherwise interact with a relational database.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of RDBMS?

A

RDBMSes store data in the form of tables, with most commercial relational database management systems using Structured Query Language (SQL) to access the database. However, since SQL was invented after the initial development of the relational model, it is not necessary for RDBMS use.

The RDBMS is the most popular database system among organizations across the world. It provides a dependable method of storing and retrieving large amounts of data while offering a combination of system performance and ease of implementation.

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5
Q

What are the benefits of RFIDs over Barcodes?

A

Can identify individual objects without direct line of sight.
Can scan items from inches to feet away, depending on type of tag and reader.
Data can be updated in real time.
Require a power source.
Read time is less than 100 milliseconds per tag.
Contain a sensor attached to an antenna, often contained in a plastic cover and more costly than barcodes.

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6
Q

What are the differences between a RDBMS and DBMS?

A

An RDBMS is a type of database management system (DBMS) that stores data in a row-based table structure which connects related data elements. An RDBMS includes functions that maintain the security, accuracy, integrity and consistency of the data. This is different than the file storage used in a DBMS.

Other differences between database management systems and relational database management systems include:

Number of allowed users. While a DBMS can only accept one user at a time, an RDBMS can operate with multiple users.
Hardware and software requirements. A DBMS needs less software and hardware than an RDBMS.
Amount of data. RDBMSes can handle any amount of data, from small to large, while a DBMS can only manage small amounts.
Database structure. In a DBMS, data is kept in a hierarchical form, whereas an RDBMS utilizes a table where the headers are used as column names and the rows contain the corresponding values.
ACID implementation. DBMSes do not use the atomicity, consistency, isolation and durability (ACID) model for storing data. On the other hand, RDBMSes base the structure of their data on the ACID model to ensure consistency.
Distributed databases. While an RDBMS offers complete support for distributed databases, a DBMS will not provide support.
Types of programs managed. While an RDBMS helps manage the relationships between its incorporated tables of data, a DBMS focuses on maintaining databases that are present within the computer network and system hard disks.
Support of database normalization. An RDBMS can be normalized, but a DBMS cannot.

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7
Q

What is RFID

A

RFID (radio frequency identification) is a form of wireless communication that incorporates the use of electromagnetic or electrostatic coupling in the radio frequency portion of the electromagnetic spectrum to uniquely identify an object, animal or person.

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8
Q

What are disadvantages of Barcodes?

A

Direct line of sight required for scanning.
Require closer proximity for scanning.
Data is read-only and can’t be changed.
No power source needed.
Read time is half a second or more per tag.
Printed on the outside of an object and more subject to wear.

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9
Q

What three components are needed for RFID to work?

A

Every RFID system consists of three components: a scanning antenna, a transceiver and a transponder.

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10
Q

What are the main challenges of RFID?

A

Reader Collision and Tag Collision

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11
Q

Reader collision

A

Reader collision, when a signal from one RFID reader interferes with a second reader, can be prevented by using an anti-collision protocol to make RFID tags take turns transmitting to their appropriate reader.

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12
Q

Tag collision

A

Tag collision occurs when too many tags confuse an RFID reader by transmitting data at the same time. Choosing a reader that gathers tag info one at a time will prevent this issue.

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13
Q

CPT - Current Procedural Terminology

A

The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code set, maintained by the American Medical Association (AMA), accurately describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services. It is designed to communicate uniform information about medical services and procedures among physicians, coders, patients, accreditation organizations, and payers for administrative, financial, and analytical purposes. In addition to descriptive terms and codes, it contains modifiers, notes, and guidelines to facilitate correct usage.
Used to code traditional medical treatments, provided by physicians or NPs

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14
Q

ICD-10: The International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems: Tenth Revision

A

The International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems: Tenth Revision (ICD-10) is the most recent revision of the ICD classification system for mortality and morbidity, which is used worldwide. Both underlying or primary cause of death and non-underlying causes (other causes) are coded. Used to code for diseases, which are classified numerically by etiology and anatomic system

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15
Q

ICD-10-CM/PCS - Clinical Modification

A

Replaced ICD-9-CM. Used for classification of diseases and procedures associated with hospitalization

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16
Q

RxNorm

A

RxNorm is a standardized nomenclature for clinical drugs and drug delivery devices produced by the National Library of Medicine (NLM). Because every drug information system follows somewhat different naming conventions, a standardized nomenclature is needed for the consistent exchange of information, not only between organizations but even within the same organization. RxNorm contains the names of prescription and many nonprescription formulations that exist in the United States, including the devices that administer the medications.

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17
Q

NMDS

A

ANA Recognized Data Element Set. Nursing Minimum Data Set.

For All Nursing and contains Clinical Data elements

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18
Q

NMMDS

A

Nursing Management Minimum Data Set. ANA Recognized Data Set. Used in all settings and contains Nursing Administrative Data Elements

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19
Q

CCC System

A

Clinical Care Classification System. ANA Recognized Terminology. Used for all nursing care and other health professionals. Contains Diagnoses, Interventions, and outcomes. Started as home health care system.

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20
Q

ICNP

A

International Classification for Nursing Practice. ANA recognized terminology. Used by all nursing and contains Diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes.

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21
Q

NANDA

A

NANDA International. ANA recognized nursing terminology. Used by all nursing and contains diagnoses.

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22
Q

NIC

A

Nursing Interventions Classification. ANA recognized terminology. Used by all nursing and contains interventions.

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23
Q

NOC

A

Nursing Outcomes Classification. ANA recognized terminology. Used by all nursing and contains outcomes.

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24
Q

Omaha System

A

ANA recognized terminology. Used in Home care, public health and community. Contains Diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes. Began as rehabilitation system.

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25
Q

PNDS

A

Perioperative Nursing Data Set. ANA recognized data set. Used in perioperative care settings. Contains Diagnoses, interventions and outcomes.

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26
Q

ABC - Alternative Billing Codes

A

ABC Codes. Multidisciplinary terminology recognized by ANA. Used by nursing and other health professionals. Contains interventions. Used to code alternative medical treatments and unlicensed practices such as yoga, because these services are often provided by nonphysician or unlicensed practitioners

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27
Q

LOINC

A

Logical Observation, Identifiers, Names and Codes. Multidisciplinary terminology recognized by ANA. Used by nursing and other health professionals. Contains outcomes and assessments. a universal standard that is comprised of more than 71,000 observation terms primarily used to represent laboratory tests, measurements, and observations. It is also a clinical terminology for laboratory test orders and results, clinical measures such as vital signs, and other patient observations. identified by the Health Level Seven (HL7) Standard Development Organization (SDO) as a preferred code set for laboratory test names in transactions between healthcare facilities, laboratories, laboratory testing devices, and public health authorities

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28
Q

SNOMED CT

A

Systematic Nomenclature of Medicine Clinical Terms. Multidisciplinary terminology recognized by ANA. Used by nursing and other health professionals. Contains Diagnoses, interventions and outcomes. Considered to be the most comprehensive, multilingual healthcare terminology in the world and integrates concepts from many nursing terminologies. one of a suite of designated standards for use for the electronic exchange of health information, and also is a required standard in interoperability specifications of the U.S. Health Information Technology Standards Panel/

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29
Q

Which nursing standard terminologies contain diagnoses, interventions and outcomes?

A

CCC (Clinical Care Classification) System, ICNP (International Classification for Nursing Practice), Omaha System, PNDS (Perioperative Nursing Data Set), SNOMED (System Nomenclature of Medicine Clinical Terms).

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30
Q

Which nursing terminology standard only contains diagnoses?

A

NANDA

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31
Q

Which nursing terminology standards only contain interventions?

A

NIC (Nursing Intervention Classification), ABC Codes

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32
Q

Which nursing terminology standards contain only outcomes and/or assessments?

A

NOC (Nursing Outcomes Classification), LOINC (Logical Observation, Identifiers, Names and Codes).

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33
Q

Data Set

A

A data set is a collection of related, discrete items of related data that may be accessed individually or in combination or managed as a whole entity.

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34
Q

What are the Nursing Minimum Data Set (NMDS) Data Elements?

A

Nursing, Patient or Client Elements, Service Elements

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35
Q

Describe the Nursing Data Element in the NMDS

A

Care Elements - Nursing Diagnosis, Nursing Intervention, Nursing outcome, Intensity of Nursing Care

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36
Q

Describe the Service data element of the NMDS.

A

Unique facility/service agency identifier, Unique identifier of principal registered nurse provider, Episode admission or encounter date, Discharge or termination date, Disposition of patient/client, Expected payer of most of this bill

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37
Q

What are the two data elements in the NMMDS?

A

Environment and Nursing Resources

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38
Q

Describe the Environment data element of the NMMDS.

A

Facility unique identifiers, type of nursing delivery unit/service, patient/client population, volume of nursing delivery unit/service, care delivery structure and outcomes, patient/client accessibility, Accreditation/Certification licensure

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39
Q

Describe the Paitent/Client Demographic Elements in the NMDS

A

Personal Identification, Date of Birth, Sex, Race and ethnicity, Residence

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40
Q

Describe the Nurse Resources data element NMMDS.

A

Staffing, satisfaction, nurse demographics per unit /service, clinical mental work, environmental conditions, and EHR implementation stages.

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41
Q

Interface Terminology

A

Designed for use at the point of care. They use terms and concepts that are familiar to practicing nurses. Interface terminologies vary in scope, structure, and content

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42
Q

Reference Terminology

A

acts as a common reference point that can facilitate cross-mapping between interface terminologies.

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43
Q

What type of system does Knowledge viability rely on?

A

A system that is adaptive and can manage situations and scenarios that are complex. A viable system is able to respond in a variety of ways to changing situations in order to survive.

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44
Q

Database

A

Organized collection of data

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45
Q

Database Management System (DBMS)

A

software that contains the database as well as a collection or set of programs for accessing and processing these data in the database thereby identifying relationships between the data. It is important to realize that different databases can manage the same database.

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46
Q

Benefits of DBMS

A

allows the storage, curation, and retrieval necessary to turn data without context into data that can be used to generate information and knowledge useful in making wise patient care decisions.

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47
Q

What are the two components of DBMS?

A

Front-end and Back-end

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48
Q

What is the Front-end of a DBMS?

A

Provides an application in which a user can view, manipulate, and interpret data

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49
Q

What is the Back-end of DBMS?

A

Where data is stored

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50
Q

Describe the DBMS structure.

A

the ability to store data in a central repository as well as the ability to manage the data in a central location thereby reducing data redundancy, increasing data consistency, and improving access to data

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51
Q

What is Data redundancy?

A

occurs when one stores the same data in the database more than once or stores it in more than one interrelated database. In healthcare there are many examples of data redundancy. Patients may be working with several physicians all of whom may store their patient records in their own database that is not accessible by other healthcare providers or healthcare institutions, thereby requiring the patient to either provide that information again or obtain their records from the other doctor or facility. The patient’s active medication list may be in both the electronic medical record that the primary provider maintains, in a pharmacy that fills the medication prescriptions, and in the electronic record at a healthcare institution. A well-designed automated database links these records and updates them in one place, and then allows users access to it from this single location regardless of the location of the end user.

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52
Q

Data inconsistency

A

results as each user working with different databases updates or changes the data. For example, when a doctor admits a patient to a hospital, different caregivers will ask the patient to identify medications he or she is taking at home. Sometimes the patient will list only prescription medications; other times the patient will include over-the-counter drugs the patient takes on a routine basis. Sometimes the patient will forget to include a medication. If caregivers record these different lists in different sections of the medical record, inconsistency occurs. In a well-designed integrated automated database, each caregiver is working with the same list each time data are reviewed. An additional problem occurs if one uses different terms for the same data. For example, sometimes one might use a generic name while other times one might use the brand name for that drug. This is why standards such as standard languages (i.e., SNOMED) are key to the design of EHRs. An automated database design that uses recognized standards as well as consistent input and access to data is imperative to creating databases necessary for the efficient and effective delivery of quality healthcare.

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53
Q

Most modern DBMS utilize what type of configuration?

A

Client-server model

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54
Q

What is the Client-Server Model?

A

Most modern DBMSs utilize the client-server model. In this scenario the client contains the front end and talks to the server which houses the data in the back end. The client and the server are often on different computers with the database residing on the server.

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55
Q

Cloud-hosted DBMS

A

The back-end of a DBMS is accessed through the internet on the cloud

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56
Q

In-house DBMS

A

In-house hosted system the server that houses the database is on site

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57
Q

Centralized DBMS

A

one where there is a single, central computer that hosts a database and the DBMS. Many hospitals today are examples of this type of system. The hospital is the “hub” and hosts the system where many users on the network access this database.

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58
Q

Distributed DBMS

A

A distributed system is one where there are multiple database files located at different sites. The main difference between these two options is one of control. Conversely, in a distributed system there is no centralized control structure. With the changing direction of healthcare to keeping the patient out of the hospital by monitoring them at home, the digitization of all patient records, patient portals, and so forth, there is a shift to a more distributed system or decentralized system

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59
Q

Describe the structure of DBMS

A

a DBMS consists of data that designers structure into tables and join by relationships. Each table consists of attributes and data points associated to those attributes

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60
Q

Relational Database Models - RDBMS

A

tables are related to each other through a system of keys. Each table has a primary key which allows the system to request one record at a time. Tables can be combined in such a way to allow the system to generate reports based on all of tables. The main features of this type of a system are tables, attributes, and keys where attributes are the columns in the tables and keys are what allows us to find one record in the table. The functions they provide include creating, updating, or changing data, deleting data, and querying generally by means of Structured Query Language (SQL) statements.

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61
Q

NoSQL DBMS

A

NoSQL is an agile system that easily processes unstructured data and semi-structured data. It is cloud-friendly and a new way of thinking about databases. NoSQL doesn’t adhere to traditional RDMS structure, has a rich query language, and is easily scalable

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62
Q

Entity Relationship DBMS

A

database features the organization of the data around entities (Mullins, 2013). It is a flow chart on how entities—people, objects, and concepts—relate to each other. ER models use symbols and connecting lines to depict interconnectedness entities, their relationships, and attributes. The ER Model is closely tied to the Relational Database Model and often serves as the underlying organization for the tables and relationships. Entities are usually the participants in a system.

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63
Q

Graph-Oriented Object Data Model (GOOD)

A

A graph-oriented object database model (GOOD) is introduced as a theoretical basis for database systems in which manipulation as well as conceptual representation of data is transparently graph-based. In the GOOD model, the scheme as well as the instance of an object database is represented by a graph, and the data manipulation is expressed by graph transformations. These graph transformations are described using five basic operations and a method construct, all with a natural semantics. The basic operations add and delete objects and edges as a function of the matchings of a pattern. The expressiveness of the model in terms of object-oriented modeling and data manipulation power is investigated

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64
Q

Data Warehouse

A

The purpose of a data warehouse is to provide a place to store multiple forms of data in a lightly summarized way. Once the data is generated, cleaned, and stored in a data warehouse it is not modified. Although new data may be added to the data warehouse, the data that already exist in the system provide an archive of information to be used by an organization.

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65
Q

Data Warehousing

A

the process of extracting, integrating, transforming, and cleansing data and storing it in a consolidated database

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66
Q

Describe the function of Data warehouse

A

function of the data warehouse is to serve as a central information repository. In true data warehouse situations, once the data are curated and stored in the data warehouse, there is no need to search for data anywhere else. In order to do this the data warehouse must be able to extract data from the variety of computers systems and import that data into the warehouse. Healthcare industry has many legacy systems and multivendor applications. Healthcare facilities may use their data warehouses to perform clinical analytics, financial forecasting, etc. This, however, can only happen if the correct data is in the system

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67
Q

What is a data mart?

A

a DBMS that is for a single unit of work and may contain a subset of data stored in a warehouse. For instance, a hospital may have a data warehouse where all information is housed, and a single department may have a data mart. Although the definition and distinction are still not agreed upon (Mullins, 2013), it is important to recognize that the main difference lies in the scope of the people who are accessing the data. The advantages of a data mart include quick response time due to less data than a warehouse, simplicity in implementation, greater cost-effectiveness than a data warehouse, value to specific groups like a unit or department in a hospital, and ease of maintenance. The main disadvantage to a data mart is that it cannot provide the organization with organization-wide data analysis; it can only provide departmental or unitwide analysis

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68
Q

What is a data lake?

A

a freer form of a DBMS where the structure of the data is loose and varied including structured, semi-structured, and unstructured data. Input processing can be in batch, real-time, or one-time loads. Sources of data for a data lake can be databases, social media, monitoring devices, e-mails, and so forth (AWS, 2019). A data lake is often characterized by the flow of data into a central repository, similar to rivers flowing into a lake. Often, data in a data lake is diverse in nature and may include, for example, images as well as sound clips. There is no fixed limit on size or file type. The main distinction between a data lake and a data warehouse or a data mart is that the data in the data lake stays in its original form. It is not extracted, integrated, transformed, cleaned, or processed.

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69
Q

What are Data stores?

A

a generic term used to describe a DBMS that lumps several diverse data sources together. Since the main advantage of modern DBMSs is to be able to look at diverse sets of data and impose a structure on them, the type of structure that the designer chooses should be tied to the purpose of the data store in the first place.

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70
Q

Data Mining

A

“the process of finding anomalies, patterns and correlations within large data sets to predict outcomes” (SAS, 2019, para 1). In more detail, data mining is the computational process that allows us to use our data in order to “mine” insights that we may not have seen without the assistance of a computer. Usually, data mining is performed on sets of data that are so large there is no way to pick out the patterns by observation alone. In healthcare the purpose is to assist in providing quality care, predicting best treatment choices, and utilizing healthcare resources in a cost-effective manner.

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71
Q

Nationwide Health Information Network (NwHIN)

A

Primary purpose of the Nationwide Health Information Network is to ensure secure internet exchange of information through standards policies and services. Funded by the Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC). Primary goal is to assist healthcare providers to move from a system of paper medical records to a secure electronic health record that can be easily accessed by various healthcare providers and utilized to evaluate the quality of care

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72
Q

Data Reduction

A

the process of reducing the amount of capacity required to store data. Data reduction can increase storage efficiency and reduce costs. Storage vendors will often describe storage capacity in terms of raw capacity and effective capacity, which refers to data after the reduction.

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73
Q

What are the three main types of data reduction?

A

Data deduplication, compression and single-instance storage

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74
Q

Data deduplication

A

also known as data dedupe, eliminates redundant segments of data on storage systems. It only stores redundant segments once and uses that one copy whenever a request is made to access that piece of data. Data dedupe is more granular than single-instance storage.

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75
Q

Single-instance storage

A

Single-instance storage finds files such as email attachments sent to multiple people and only stores one copy of that file. As with dedupe, single-instance storage replaces duplicates with pointers to the one saved copy.

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76
Q

Data Compression

A

works on a file level. It is accomplished natively in storage systems using algorithms or formulas designed to identify and remove redundant bits of data. Data compression specifically refers to a data reduction method by which files are shrunk at the bit level. Compression works by using formulas or algorithms to reduce the number of bits needed to represent the data. This is usually done by representing a repeating string of bits with a smaller string of bits and using a dictionary to convert between them

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77
Q

Clustering

A

Data reduction technique. Cluster groups of statistical units into clusters (classes) in order to reduce the overall number of statistical units. A cluster is comprised of elements that are similar to each other and dissimilar to other clusters, so clustering is essentially a method of grouping. To determine why the groups are different, then a different data reduction technique, factor analysis, must be used.

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78
Q

Which is cheaper VOIP or Analog telephone system?

A

VOIP

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79
Q

What does VOIP stand for?

A

Voice over internet protocol

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80
Q

What are the 3 means of using VoIP Service?

A

Analog Telephone Adaptor, IP phones, Computer to computer

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81
Q

What is a “warm site”?

A

A site with patient data that can be activated within 8 hours. This backup system should be capable of running the EHR if the home system fails. This warm site should be natural events such as hurricane, tornado, and flooding as well as terrorist attacks. The location should be more than 50 miles away and more than 20 miles from the coast to lessen the change that the same disaster would strike both facilities.

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82
Q

Wahat does a Rummler-Brache swim lane diagram show?

A

The processes and individual/departmental responsibilities

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83
Q

What more be done prior to creating a swim lane diagraphm?

A

Determine the purpose and the process or processes to focus on

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84
Q

What does the horizontal roes indicate in a swim diagram?

A

Individuals/departments

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85
Q

What is sunsetting?

A

Intentionally phasing out or terminating something.

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86
Q

Foundational interoperability

A

basic data reception from one system to another without interpretation

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87
Q

Structural Interoperability

A

more complex and depends on consistency of clinical terminology and meaning of the data

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88
Q

Semantic Interoperability

A

depends on data that is consistent and codified allowing for information system interpretation and analysis of the data. Semantic interoperability is considered the highest and most complex form of interoperability. Semantic interoperability is necessary for seamless health information exchange

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89
Q

What is the SAFER guide?

A

consist of nine guides organized into three broad groups by the ONC. These guides enable healthcare organizations to address EHR safety in a variety of areas. Most organizations will want to start with the Foundational Guides, and proceed from there to address their areas of greatest interest or concern.

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90
Q

Interoperability

A

The ability to transfer, share, and utilize information from one system to another

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91
Q

Health Information Exchange first step in implementing EHR

A

Assess readiness to transition from paper to EHR or to upgrade current system. Assessment should review current procedures for data collection and clinical workflows as well as determine the knowledge base of staff members related to computers. Internet access should be assessed to ensure high-speed internet is available. Determine if the organization has enough financial capital

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92
Q

How often should data be encrypted, backed up, and transferred to an offsite data storage?

A

Weekly

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93
Q

How often should backup systems be tested?

A

Regularly at least on a monthly basis

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94
Q

Why is a backup necessary

A

To ensure that information is not lost in the event of a system breakdown or failure

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95
Q

NDF-RT

A

National Drug File- Reference Terminology is used to code medication classes such as antibiotics. Developed by the VA as a reference terminology. Standard adopted by Consolidated Health Informatics (CHI). Part of the Federal Medication Terminologies (FMT) initiative. FDA structured Product Labeling (SPL) initiative and Established pharmacologic class (EPC) concepts supported

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96
Q

RxNorm

A

Used to code specific medications such as clindamycin.

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97
Q

Hardware and software must undergo testing when?

A

Before and after going live

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98
Q

When a system first goes live what should be available?

A

Command Center

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99
Q

What is the purpose of a command center during go-live

A

Provide communication, exercise control and coordinate all activities

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100
Q

Where should the command center be located and who should be present?

A

As close to the “live” areas as possible with vender representatives available

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101
Q

What are the three steps to Shannon’s Information Theory?

A

Communication of a message 1. Encoding the message, 2. transmitting the message, and 3. decoding.

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102
Q

Bits, words, icons describe what part of Shannon’s information theory?

A

Encoding the message

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103
Q

Transmitting the message can be done how?

A

Voice, radio or computer

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104
Q

Shannon’s information theory is utilized to evaluate the effectiveness of

A

Communication systems

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105
Q

What are the elements in evaluating communication systems from information theory?

A

Signal to noise ratio (S/N), channel capacity, and entropy

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106
Q

What is Channel Capacity

A

The maximal amount of information that can be transmitted with minimal error

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107
Q

What is entropy

A

Amount of energy, code, or bits needed for storage or communications of one symbol

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108
Q

Small form Factor (Footprint) SFF

A

Computers typically that have less volume than standard computers for that they take up less desk space. Due to decrease sized they have fewer expansion slots and may be shaped as cubes, books or boxes.

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109
Q

What are the 5 stages of brenner’s clinical competence?

A
  1. Novice
  2. Advanced beginner
  3. Competent
  4. proficient.
  5. expert
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110
Q

What is a novice?

A

Little experience and rule-governed

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111
Q

Advanced beginner

A

Some experience with new situations

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112
Q

Competent

A

has 2 to 3 years of experience and ability to master new situations but who needs extra planning time and may lack flexibility

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113
Q

Proficient

A

thinks holistically an relies on experience and is adaptable

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114
Q

Expert

A

has wealth of experience and acts intuitively

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115
Q

Snowflake schema

A

a fact table at center surrounded by dimensional tables composed of multiple lookup tables representing different levels of hierarchy

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116
Q

Data Backup

A

Act of copying data from a primary to a secondary location, to protect it in case of a disaster, accident or malicious action

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117
Q

Data Warehousing

A

is the secure electronic storage of information by a business or other organization. The goal of data warehousing is to create a trove of historical data that can be retrieved and analyzed to provide useful insight into the organization’s operations.

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118
Q

Data Mining

A

the process of sorting through large data sets to identify patterns and relationships that can help solve business problems through data analysis. Data mining techniques and tools enable enterprises to predict future trends and make more-informed business decisions.

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119
Q

Data archiving

A

process of moving data that is no longer actively used to a separate storage device for long-term retention.

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120
Q

Knowles Theory of Angragogy

A

synonymous to adult education. According to Malcolm Knowles, andragogy is the art and science of adult learning, thus andragogy refers to any form of adult learning. (Kearsley, 2010).

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121
Q

What are the 5 assumptions of Andragogy?

A
  1. Self-Concept
  2. Adult Learner Experience
  3. Readiness to Learn
  4. Orientation to Learning
  5. Motivation to Learn
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122
Q

Self-concept

A

As a person matures his/her self concept moves from one of being a dependent personality toward one of being a self-directed human being.

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123
Q

Adult Learner-Experience

A

As a person matures he/she accumulates a growing reservoir of experience that becomes an increasing resource for learning.

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124
Q

Readiness to Learn

A

As a person matures his/her readiness to learn becomes oriented increasingly to the developmental tasks of his/her social roles.

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125
Q

Orientation to learning

A

As a person matures his/her time perspective changes from one of postponed application of knowledge to immediacy of application. As a result his/her orientation toward learning shifts from one of subject- centeredness to one of problem centeredness.

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126
Q

Motivation to learn

A

As a person matures the motivation to learn is internal.

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127
Q

What are the 4 principles of Andragogy?

A
  1. Adults need to be involved in the planning and evaluation of their instruction.
  2. Experience (including mistakes) provides the basis for the learning activities.
  3. Adults are most interested in learning subjects that have immediate relevance and impact to their job or personal life.
  4. Adult learning is problem-centered rather than content-oriented.
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128
Q

Give examples of how Andragogy is applied in computer training.

A
  1. There is a need to explain the reasons specific things are being taught (e.g., certain commands, functions, operations, etc.)
  2. Instruction should be task-oriented instead of promoting memorization – learning activities should be in the context of common tasks to be performed by the others.
  3. Instruction should take into account the wide range of different backgrounds of learners; learning materials and activities should allow for different levels/types of previous experience with computers.
  4. Since adults are self-directed, instruction should allow learners to discover things and knowledge for themselves without depending on people. However, learners should be offered guidance and help when mistakes are made.
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129
Q

Describe Weiner’s Attribution Theory

A

Weiner’s attribution theory states that an individual’s causal attributions of achievement affect subsequent behaviors and motivation. One of the primary assumptions of attribution theory is that people will interpret their environment in such a way as to maintain a positive self-image

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130
Q

Usability Study/Testing

A

evaluating a product or service by testing it with representative users. Typically, during a test, participants will try to complete typical tasks while observers watch, listen and takes notes. The goal is to identify any usability problems, collect qualitative and quantitative data and determine the participant’s satisfaction with the product.

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131
Q

Describe the steps in a usability study

A
  1. Define the purpose of the study because this is necessary in order to choose the testing method.
  2. Evaluate constraints such as time, resources, and staff
  3. Refine components depending on the HCI Framework
  4. Determine the emphasis of testing (overall or one aspect)
  5. Select testing methods, taking into account the identified constraints and evaluation of HCI
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132
Q

Describe Thinking aloud in performance testing

A

The process of thinking aloud is used for performing testing. When a user or a group of users utilizes the computer system during performance testing, the users verbalize their experiences, perceptions, and feelings during the activities as these comments help the informatics nurse to identify problems (as well as positive aspects) that users will encounter when using the system. The users are also observed for facial expressions, eye tracking, and general behavior.

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133
Q

What is low-level inputting or outputting data error example?

A

User executes the wrong sequence of steps. Usually results in some type of alarm or hard stop of the program until corrected, so the error can usually be corrected fairly easily

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134
Q

What is a moderate level inputting error

A

Inputting data that are incompatible with the computer system

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135
Q

What is high level input error?

A

being unable to make a decision about the correct action or being unable to correctly interpret the outcomes data

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136
Q

What is a cognitive walkthrough?

A

a structured approach to evaluating usability of a product. It involves the tester, who is not a user, asking four simple questions about the way a specific user journey is conducted. Used in prototype testing as it helps to identify problems with usability. A thorough study is completed to outline each step in a process needed to complete a task. Users carry out the steps in the process while using “thinking aloud” procedures to describe their experiences. Users are assess for the ability to use the system and to carry out the steps. Sessions are often video or audiotaped for further evaluation, and users may be given a post-test to evaluate understanding and retention

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137
Q

What is the purpose of alpha and beta testing?

A

Types of user acceptance testing that mainly focus on discovering the bugs from an already tested product and they give a clear picture of how the product is used by the real-time users. They also help in gaining experience with the product before its launch and valuable feedback is effectively implemented to increase the usability of the product.

Goals and methods of Alpha & Beta Testing do switch between themselves based on the process followed in the project and can be tweaked to be in-line with the processes.

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138
Q

What is alpha testing?

A

This is a form of internal acceptance testing performed mainly by the in-house software QA and testing teams. Alpha testing is the last testing done by the test teams at the development site after the acceptance testing and before releasing the software for beta test.

Alpha testing can also be done by potential users or customers of the application. Still, this is a form of in-house acceptance testing.

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139
Q

What is beta testing?

A

This is a testing stage followed by the internal full alpha test cycle. This is the final testing phase where companies release the software to a few external user groups outside the company’s test teams or employees. This initial software version is known as the beta version. Most companies gather user feedback in this release.

In short, beta testing can be defined as the testing carried out by real users in a real environment.

Though companies do rigorous in-house quality assurance from dedicated test teams, it’s practically impossible to test an application for each and every combination of the test environment. Beta releases make it easier to test the application on thousands of test machines and fix the issues before releasing the application to the public.

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140
Q

How often should clinical information such as order sets and patient education materials be reviewed?

A

Biannually and more frequently depending on changes to the system, change in order sets, changes in clinical practice or user feedback suggesting a need for modification or change.

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141
Q

What is the purpose of a master patient index?

A

To ensure accurate patient identification. Because patients may have same or similar names, the master patient index should contain the name as a well as other identifying information, such as birthdate, social security number, patient ID number, and zip code. An alert should sound if a person attempts to enter data or search for data about a patient with the same name as an existing patient.

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142
Q

What is BIRADS?

A

Breast Imagining Reporting and Data System. Created by American College of Radiology. It is used to store and report mammography results so that the results are standardized. BI-RADS provides mammography assessment categories that range from 0 - inconclusive to 6 -proven malignancy with biopsy. BI-RADS categories breast composition: A:Fatty, B:scattered density, C:Dense, D:extremely dense.

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143
Q

Why are high alert override rates a concern?

A

If soft and hard stops are overridden frequently it may indicate that there is too much flexibility in the system, unnecessary or excessive alerts which might need to be downgraded from hard to soft.

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144
Q

EHR percentage of verbal or paper orders should be below what?

A

10%

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145
Q

Read-only memory (ROM)

A

a type of computer storage containing non-volatile, permanent data that, normally, can only be read, not written to. ROM contains the programming that allows a computer to start up or regenerate each time it is turned on.

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146
Q

Random Access Memory RAM

A

the hardware in a computing device where the operating system (OS), application programs and data in current use are kept so they can be quickly reached by the device’s processor. RAM is the main memory in a computer.

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147
Q

Virtual memory

A

applications and many system processes always reference memory by using virtual memory addresses. Virtual memory addresses are automatically translated to real (RAM) addresses by the hardware.

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148
Q

Cache memory

A

Cache memory is a chip-based computer component that makes retrieving data from the computer’s memory more efficient. It acts as a temporary storage area that the computer’s processor can retrieve data from easily. This temporary storage area, known as a cache, is more readily available to the processor than the computer’s main memory source, typically some form of DRAM.

Cache memory is sometimes called CPU (central processing unit) memory because it is typically integrated directly into the CPU chip or placed on a separate chip that has a separate bus interconnect with the CPU. Therefore, it is more accessible to the processor, and able to increase efficiency, because it’s physically close to the processor.

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149
Q

What is a parallel port?

A

In computing, a parallel port is a type of interface found on early computers (personal and otherwise) for connecting peripherals. The name refers to the way the data is sent; parallel ports send multiple bits of data at once (parallel communication), as opposed to serial communication, in which bits are sent one at a time. To do this, parallel ports require multiple data lines in their cables and port connectors and tend to be larger than contemporary serial ports, which only require one data line.

There are many types of parallel ports, but the term has become most closely associated with the printer port or Centronics port found on most personal computers from the 1970s through the 2000

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150
Q

Cognitive science

A

the interdisciplinary, scientific study of the mind and its processes with input from linguistics, psychology, neuroscience, philosophy, computer science/artificial intelligence, and anthropology. It examines the nature, the tasks, and the functions of cognition (in a broad sense).

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151
Q

Communication science

A

the study of the reason behind communication disorders. Work in the field involves the use of various techniques, methods, and treatments to assist individuals with communication impairments, allowing them to communicate at a functional level in day-to-day life.

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152
Q

Information Science

A

the science and practice dealing with the effective collection, storage, retrieval, and use of information. It is concerned with recordable information and knowledge, and the technologies and related services that facilitate their management and use.

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153
Q

Social Science

A

any branch of academic study or science that deals with human behaviour in its social and cultural aspects. Usually included within the social sciences are cultural (or social) anthropology, sociology, psychology, political science, and economics.

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154
Q

Logic

A

a system or set of principles underlying the arrangements of elements in a computer or electronic device so as to perform a specified task.

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155
Q

Perception

A

the ability to see, hear, or become aware of something through the senses.

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156
Q

Intuition

A

the ability to understand something immediately, without the need for conscious reasoning.

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157
Q

Rationalism

A

a belief or theory that opinions and actions should be based on reason and knowledge rather than on religious belief or emotional response.

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158
Q

Cognitive Work Analysis

A

is a framework that was developed to model complex sociotechnical work systems. The framework models different types of constraints, building a model of how work could proceed within a given work system. The focus on constraints separates the technique from other approaches to analysis that aim to describe how work is actually conducted, or prescribe how it should be conducted.

The CWA approach can be used to describe the constraints imposed by the purpose of a system, its functional properties, the nature of the activities that are conducted, the roles of the different actors, and their cognitive skills and strategies. Rather than offer a prescribed methodology, the CWA framework instead acts as a toolkit that can be used either individually or in combination with one another, depending upon the analysis needs. These tools are divided between phases. The exact names and scopes of these phases differ slightly dependent on the scope of the analysis; however, the overall scope remains largely the same. As defined by Vicente (1999), the CWA framework comprises five different phases; work domain analysis, control task (or activity) analysis, strategies analysis, social organisation and co-operation analysis, and worker competencies analysis.

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159
Q

Strategies analysis

A

evaluates the manner in which work is actually carried out by users

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160
Q

Worker competencies analysis

A

considers design restraints associated with the users

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161
Q

Control Task analysis

A

considers the control structure with which the user must interact

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162
Q

Work domain analysis

A

evaluates system functions and the information needed by users.

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163
Q

Heuristic evaluation

A

a process where experts use rules of thumb to measure the usability of user interfaces in independent walkthroughs and report issues. Evaluators use established heuristics (e.g., Nielsen-Molich’s) and reveal insights that can help design teams enhance product usability from early in development.

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164
Q

ANA role and scope of practice for Informatics nurse specialist

A
  1. identify the issue or problem
  2. identify alternative solutions
  3. choose and develop a solution
  4. implement solutions
  5. evaluate and adjust solution
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165
Q

ANA standards of professional performance

A
  1. Quality of practice
  2. performance appraisal
  3. education
  4. collegiality
  5. ethics
  6. collaboration
  7. research
  8. resource utilization
  9. communication
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166
Q

Steps for ethical dilemma

A
  1. Examine issue in detail
  2. collect as much information as possible to determine what the exact issue is that must be decided
  3. comprehending and considering possible alternatives
  4. hypothesize ethical arguments, compare arguments, choose one of the alternatives and act on it
  5. reflect on chosen solution and consider outcomes
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167
Q

HCPCS II

A

Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System II used to code for services and equipment often provided for outpatients such as ambulance, chemotherapy and durable medical treatment

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168
Q

FOCUS ( Find-Organize-Clarify-Uncover-Start)

A

Find: Identify a problem within the organization
Organize: Identify team members with an understanding of the problem
Clarify: Use brainstorming techniques to determine issues and steps in solving the problem
Uncover: Analyze to determine the reason that the problem has occurred
Start: Identify a starting point for the change process

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169
Q

Fishbone diagram

A

Commonly used to help identify root causes for performance improvement because it helps to visualize the relationship of causes and effects

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170
Q

What does the head represent in a fishbone diagram?

A

The effect or problem

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171
Q

What does the bones represent in a fishbone diagram?

A

The causes

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172
Q

What are the three standard categories for causes in a fishbone diagram?

A

S: Surroundings, suppliers, systems, and skills
P: People, prices places, policies, procedures, products
M: methods, materials, machines, measures, manpower

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173
Q

What does a parallelogram represent in a flowchart?

A

Input and output

Start/End

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174
Q

What does an arrow represent in a flow chart?

A

Direction of flow

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175
Q

What does a diamond-shape represent in a flow-chart?

A

Conditional decision: Yes/No or True/False

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176
Q

What do circles represent in a flow-chart?

A

Connectors with diverging paths with multiple arrows coming in but only one going out

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177
Q

All - in- one computers disadvantages

A

Cannot be upgraded easily or in some cases at all
Tend to run hotter and should not be left running for long periods
More difficult to repair
Require more proprietary components

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178
Q

Case management information system

A

Identifies trends (patterns or variances) in patient’s EHRs
Trends are identified then the system utilizes decision support to guide preventative measures and development of the care plan
Provides standardized plans of care that support best practices
Goal is to reduce or prevent complications and promote recovery
Can track patients both inpatient and outpatient

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179
Q

Communication and information system

A

Communications and information system means a network of electronic communications, an information system, a registry, industrial process management system and digital information retained, processed, restored or transmitted for the purpose of their management, use, protection and maintenance.

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180
Q

Business information system

A

Business information systems is a field of work that helps businesses improve efficiencies by using computer systems. It involves programming, networking, database management and IT governance. The business information systems field only grows as businesses become more advanced technologically.

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181
Q

Acuity systems should facilitate what 5 staffing rights

A
  1. Right number of staff
  2. Right skills
  3. Right Location
  4. Right time
  5. Right patient assignments
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182
Q

Gantt chart

A

Created after completion of a timeline

Is the best type of display to use tasks associated with quality improvement projects

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183
Q

What does a square represent in a data flow diagram

A

External entity(named)/ Sources of data or data destinations

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184
Q

What does a rounded rectangle mean in a data flow diagram

A

Named with verb and object only, not including the word “process”
Process used inputting and outputting data

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185
Q

What does an arrow mean in a data flow diagram

A

Direction of data flow

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186
Q

What does a three-sided open rectangle mean in a data flow diagram?

A

Named and numbered but not including the word “file”: Data storage

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187
Q

What is the primary focus of Total Quality Management?

A

meeting the needs of the customers.

Encourages all staff at all levels of an organization to participate to bring about organizational change

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188
Q

Six Sigma

A

refers to a set of quality-control tools that businesses can use to eliminate defects and improve processes to help boost their profits.

Lean Six Sigma is a team-focused managerial approach that seeks to improve performance by eliminating waste and defects while boosting the standardization of work.

Six Sigma is a management ideology that focuses on statistical improvements to a business process and advocates for qualitative measurements of success over qualitative markers. As such, Six Sigma practitioners are business people who use statistics, financial analysis, and project management to achieve improved business functionality.

Six Sigma is a statistical benchmark that shows how (well) a business process works.

As mentioned above, an error happens when an event occurs with six standard deviations from the mean with no more than 3.4 occurrences per million events. This means that a process is considered to be efficient if it produces less than 3.4 defects per one million chances. A defect is anything produced outside of consumer satisfaction.

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189
Q

What are the 5 steps of Sigma Six?

A
  1. A team of people, led by a Six Sigma champion, defines a faulty process on which to focus, decided through an analysis of company goals and requirements. This definition outlines the problem, goals, and deliverables for the project.
  2. The team measures the initial performance of the process. These statistical measures make up a list of potential inputs, which may cause the problem and help the team understand the process’s benchmark performance.
  3. Then the team analyzes the process by isolating each input, or potential reason for the failure, and testing it as the root of the problem. The team uses analytics to identify the reason for process errors.
  4. The team works from there to improve system performance.
  5. The group adds controls to the process to ensure it does not regress and become ineffective once again.
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190
Q

What is lean Sigma SIx?

A

Lean Six Sigma is a team-focused managerial approach that seeks to improve performance by eliminating waste and defects while boosting the standardization of work. It combines Six Sigma methods and tools and the lean manufacturing-lean enterprise philosophy, striving to reduce waste of physical resources, time, effort, and talent while assuring quality in production and organizational processes. Any use of resources that do not create value for the end customer is considered a waste and should be eliminated.

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191
Q

What are the belt rankings for Sigma Six?

A

White belt: Individuals with a white belt have not gone through any formal training or certification. This belt gives professionals a basic framework, which allows them to take part in certain quality control and waste reduction projects.

Yellow belt: This level provides additional training beyond the white belt level. Yellow belts can become contributing project team members. They may help managers who have higher belts.

Green belt: Those who pass this level must take part in a complete course that trains them to come up with process improvement techniques. The green belt certification is ideal for individuals who work in certain industries, such as project or financial management, as well as health care. Graduates often become project leaders.

Black belt: People who graduate from the green belt level can move up to the black belt certification. Successful graduates can break down and deal with more complex jobs and projects. They are taught how to tackle large-scale changes that can impact their companies through lean Six Sigma projects.

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192
Q

What is QIP (quality improvement process)

A

Quality improvement is a structured approach to evaluating the performance of systems and processes, then determining needed improvements in both functional and operational areas. Successful efforts rely on the routine collection and analysis of data. A quality improvement plan describes an ongoing, or continuous, process through which an organization’s stakeholders can monitor and evaluate initiatives and results.

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193
Q

What are the characteristics of QIP?

A

Quality improvement is data driven and regards the quantitative approach as the only reliable means to influence the qualitative elements. This principle is expressed in the following saying of quality improvement guru W. Edwards Deming: “The right data in the right format in the right hands at the right time.”

QI focuses on processes, not people. In other words, the individual is never at fault.

QI involves people as part of the improvement solution and looks for what is attributed to Deming as “the smart cogs,” the employees who are directly involved in and best understand the processes in an organization.

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194
Q

What is main focus of QIP?

A

Quality improvement aims to create efficiencies and address the needs of customers. In healthcare, the main purpose of quality improvement is to improve outcomes. In healthcare settings, quality improvement may be associated with continuous quality improvement, the method used to identify problems and implement, monitor, and provide corrective action.

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195
Q

What are the 4 broad steps of FADE (Focus, Analyze, Develop, Execute) QI Model?

A

FOCUS: Define and verify the process to be improved

ANALYZE: Collect and analyze data to establish baselines, identify root causes and point toward possible solutions

DEVELOP: Based on the data, develop action plans for improvement, including implementation, communication, and measuring/monitoring

EXECUTE: Implement the action plans, on a pilot basis as indicated, and

EVALUATE: Install an ongoing measuring/monitoring (process control) system to ensure success.

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196
Q

Describe the PDSA Cycle

A

PLAN: Plan a change or test of how something works.
DO: Carry out the plan.
STUDY: Look at the results. What did you find out?
ACT: Decide what actions should be taken to improve.
Repeat as needed until the desired goal is achieved

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197
Q

What is FMEA?

A

Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is a systematic, proactive method for evaluating a process to identify where and how it might fail and to assess the relative impact of different failures, in order to identify the parts of the process that are most in need of change.

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198
Q

What is the process of FMEA?

A

A 12-step process that begins with describing the process in detail and developing a team that creates a flow chat listing each step in a process and then brainstorms each step to determine potential causes for failure and potential adverse outcomes, which are rated according to severity, occurrence, and detection and a risk priority number is assigned. The team then brainstorms methods to reduce potential failures and identify performance measures

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199
Q

What are core objectives of Meaningful Use?

A

Record and chart changes in height and weight
Using CPOE for medication orders
Implementing drug/drug and drug/allergy interaction checks
Maintaining current problems, medication, and allergy lists
Recording demographics
Recording and charting changes in height, weight, BMI, and BP as well as growth charts for children
Recording smoking status for patients at least 13 years
Implementing one clinical decision support rule of a high priority hospital condition
Providing electronic copies health information and discharge instructions on request
Protecting electronic health information

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200
Q

What is used in Sigma Six model to develop new processes?

A

DMADV ( Define, measure, analyze, design verify

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201
Q

What is used in Sigma Six model to improve an existing process or products?

A

DMAIC - Define, measure, analyze, improve, and control

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202
Q

What is QIPs 4-step process?

A

Defining: Identifying project, listing and prioritizing problems, and identifying team
Diagnosing: Analyzing problems through root cause analysis and formulating theories
Remediating: Considering alternative solutions and implementing solutions and controls while concurrently dealing with resistance to change within the organization
Holding: Evaluating performance and monitoring the control system to ensure maintenance of improvements

203
Q

Who enters information on Personal Health Record?

A

Only the patient enters information and the information may not always be accurate

204
Q

What are the primary patient care support system/

A

Clinical documentation: Most commonly used patient care support system, collects patient data in real time
Pharmacy Information: Allows pharmacists to order medications, dispense them, and manage them for an organization. Should include allergy information and height and weight
Laboratory information: Provides information about laboratory tests such as blood tests
Radiology information: Schedules procedures and provides reports. Usually includes pictures archiving and communication system (PACS)

205
Q

In a database each field in a table is what?

A

An attribute

206
Q

What are fields in a database?

A

Columns

207
Q

What are records in a database?

A

Rows

208
Q

A table is comprised of?

A

Data file which are collections of different related records and are also referred to as an entity

209
Q

Entity Relationship Diagram

A

An Entity Relationship (ER) Diagram is a type of flowchart that illustrates how “entities” such as people, objects or concepts relate to each other within a system. ER Diagrams are most often used to design or debug relational databases in the fields of software engineering, business information systems, education and research. Also known as ERDs or ER Models, they use a defined set of symbols such as rectangles, diamonds, ovals and connecting lines to depict the interconnectedness of entities, relationships and their attributes. They mirror grammatical structure, with entities as nouns and relationships as verbs.

210
Q

When changes have been made to a computer system what is the most important type of testing should be done?

A

Regression testing to ensure that errors in the new code do not interfere with functioning

211
Q

Why is regression testing done?

A

To ensure that functions available in the older version of the software are still viable with the new version.
A test bucket ( a series of test cases) are run utilizing the new version of software and then evaluate to ensure that the new program performed correctly.

212
Q

Regression testing

A

a software testing practice that ensures an application still functions as expected after any code changes, updates, or improvements. Regression testing is responsible for the overall stability and functionality of the existing features.

213
Q

Load testing

A

is performed to determine a system’s behavior under both normal and anticipated peak load conditions. It helps to identify the maximum operating capacity of an application as well as any bottlenecks and determine which element is causing degradation.

214
Q

Scalability testing

A

a type of load testing that measures the application’s ability to scale up or down as a reaction to an increase in the number of users. In other words, it tests how the system is going to perform during a sudden spike or fall of user request loads.

215
Q

Purpose of work breakdown structure in project management?

A

To determine goal/product to be completed in each phase of the project. The goal/project must be approved at the end of the phase and then the team moves on the next phase. Projects vary somewhat, but they are temporary by nature and time-limited, so the phases should be carefully planned so that every phase is completed by the target completion date

216
Q

What is a balanced scorecard?

A

The balanced scorecard (BSC) is a strategic planning and management system. Organizations use BSCs to:

Communicate what they are trying to accomplish
Align the day-to-day work that everyone is doing with strategy
Prioritize projects, products, and services
Measure and monitor progress towards strategic targets

The name “balanced scorecard” comes from the idea of looking at strategic measures in addition to traditional financial measures to get a more “balanced” view of performance. The concept of balanced scorecard has evolved beyond the simple use of perspectives and it is now a holistic system for managing strategy. A key benefit of using a disciplined framework is that it gives organizations a way to “connect the dots” between the various components of strategic planning and management, meaning that there will be a visible connection between the projects and programs that people are working on, the measurements being used to track success (KPIs), the strategic objectives the organization is trying to accomplish, and the mission, vision, and strategy of the organization.

217
Q

What should a balanced scorecard that shows progress in performance measures should be based on

A

The organizational strategic plan and tied to the mission and vision statements to how the goals and objectives are being met. Measures may include information about patients (numbers, satisfaction, length of stay), financial data ( cost-benefit analysis, return on investment), clinical outcomes (infections, complications, utilization), education (in-service, continuing education), community (needs), and growth (new programs)

218
Q

What is Peplau’s theory of nursing?

A

Nursing is defined as an interpersonal, therapeutic process that takes place when professionals, specifically educated to be nurses, engage in therapeutic relationships with people who are in need of health services. Peplau theorized that nurse-patient relationships must pass through three phases in order to be successful: (a) orientation, (b) working, and (c) termination.

219
Q

Complex Adaptive Theory

A

suggests that the most productive state for a system is the ‘edge of chaos’ where there is maximum variety and creativity. Based on these properties it could be argued that complex adaptive systems are all around us, or that we are part of multiple complex adaptive systems.

220
Q

How does Complex Adaptive Theory apply to the SDLC?

A

Expect reciprocal changes to occur between the user and the system. Thus the user changes elements of the system depending on the type of use, and the system in turn changes the behavior of the user. Adaptive systems tend to be dynamic rather static and are able to adjust to changes to avoid chaos. Adaptive system generally value effectiveness over efficiency.

221
Q

What are the favorite and least favorite color for females?

A

Favorite: Blue, green, and purple

Least favorite: Gray, orange and brown

222
Q

What are the favorite and least favorite colors of males?

A

Favorite: Blue, green, black

Least favorite: orange, brown and purple

223
Q

Reference Database

A

a database is generally focuses on one type of information such as all dictionaries, all biographical information, all user manuals or all encyclopedias.
May also provide reference for different types of information, such as a the reference indices utilized by libraries, so a reference database may be a good place to begin a search for specific types of information. A search can provide an extensive list of sources, such as articles about a specific topic

224
Q

What are the steps to decommissioning a computer system (data and equipment)?

A
  1. Discontinue all access so that no one is able to input data or retrieve data. Including securing mobile devices and workstations.
  2. Files must be securely erased so that they cannot be retrieved and storage devices destroyed.
  3. Decommissioned systems, including all decommissioned equipment, should be clearly labeled, securely stored, and any configuration settings removed.

Keep a checklist and careful records is especially important during decommissioning.

225
Q

System testing

A

also referred to as system-level tests or system-integration testing, is the process in which a quality assurance (QA) team evaluates how the various components of an application interact together in the full, integrated system or application.

226
Q

Fault injection testing

A

a software testing method which deliberately introduces errors to a system to ensure it can withstand and recover from error conditions. Fault injection testing is typically carried out prior to deployment to uncover any potential faults that may have been introduced during production

227
Q

Volume testing

A

Volume Testing is a type of Software Testing, where the software is subjected to a huge volume of data. It is also referred to as flood testing. Volume testing is done to analyze the system performance by increasing the volume of data in the database.

With the help of Volume testing, the impact on response time and system behavior can be studied when exposed to a high volume of data.

228
Q

von Bertalanffy’s systems theory

A

a system is a complex of interacting elements and that they are open to, and interact with their environments. In addition, they can acquire qualitatively new properties through emergence, thus they are in a continual evolution.

Systems theory postulates that the entire system must be viewed holistically rather than concerting on components of the systems because the interrelationships among different elements of the system must be understood

229
Q

What are the 5 elements that comprise a system according to von Bertalanffy?

A
  1. Input: This is what goes into a system in terms of energy materials
  2. Throughput: These are the actions that take place in order to transform input.
  3. Output: This is the result of the interrelationship between input and processes
  4. Evaluation: Monitoring success or failure
  5. Feedback: This is information that results from the process and can be used to evaluate the end result
230
Q

ANA definition of Nursing Informatics

A
Nursing informatics (NI) is a specialty that integrates nursing science with multiple information and analytical sciences to
identify, define, manage, and communicate data, information, knowledge, and wisdom in nursing practice. NI supports nurses,
consumers, patients, the interprofessional healthcare team, and other stakeholders in their decision-making in all roles and
settings to achieve desired outcomes. This support is accomplished through the use of information structures,
information processes, and information technology.”
231
Q

What are the Tenets of Nursing Informatics?

A
  • Unique body of knowledge, preparation, and experience that aligns with the nursing profession
  • Involves the synthesis of data and information into knowledge and wisdom
  • Supports decision-making of healthcare consumers, nurses, and other professionals to achieve healthcare consumer safety and advocacy
  • Supports data analytics, including quality of care measures, to improve population health outcomes and global health
  • Promotes data integrity and the access and exchange of health data for all consumers of health information
  • Supports national and international agendas on interoperability and the efficient and effective transfer and delivery of data, information, and knowledge
  • Ensures that collaboration is an integral characteristic of practice
  • Interleaves user experience and computer-human interaction concepts throughout practice
  • Incorporates key ethical concerns of NI such as advocacy, privacy, and assurance of the confidentiality and security of data and information
  • Considers the impact of technological changes on patient safety, healthcare delivery, quality reporting, and the nursing process
  • Leads in the design and promotion of useful, innovative information technologies that advance practice and achieve desired outcomes
232
Q

What are the competencies of Nursing Informatics

A

Beginning Nurse
Experienced Nurse
Informatics Nurse Specialist
Innovator

233
Q

Role of Informatics Nurse Specialist

A

Analyze data, information, and IS requirements via life cycle, other tools, and processes

Design, develop, select, evaluate IT, data structures, and decision-support mechanisms into an integrated IS

Facilitate creation of nursing knowledge

234
Q

What are the functional areas of Informatics Nurse

A
  • Administration, leadership, and management
  • Systems analysis and design
  • Compliance and integrity management
  • Consultation
  • Coordination, facilitation, and integration
  • Development
  • Educational and professional development
  • Genetics and Genomics
  • Information management / operational architecture
  • Policy development and advocacy
  • Quality and performance improvement
  • Research and evaluation
  • Safety and security
  • Environmental health
235
Q

Types of Roles for Informatics Nurse

A
  • Project manager
  • Decision support/outcomes manager
  • Educator
  • Product developer
  • Systems analyst
  • Consultant
  • Programmer
  • Advocate/policy developer
  • Web developer
  • CIO, CNIO
  • Entrepreneur
  • Researcher
  • Sales and marketing
  • Consumer advocate
236
Q

What are the standards of professional performance?

A
  1. Evaluates quality and effectiveness of NI practice
  2. Performance appraisal
  3. Maintains knowledge and NI competency — life-long learning
  4. Contributes to professional development of others
  5. Bases decisions and actions on ethical principles
  6. Collaborates with others
  7. Contributes to body of informatics research
  8. 16 Standards are highlighted with measurement criteria
237
Q

What is the Nurse Informatics Standards of Practice

A

1: Assessment
2. Diagnosis, Problems, & Issues Identification
3. Outcomes Identification
4. Planning
5. Implementation
6. Evaluation
7. Ethics
8. Education
9. Evidenced-Based Practice and Research
10. Quality of Practice
11. Communication
12. Leadership
13. Collaboration
14. Professional Practice Evaluation
15. Resource Utilization
16. Environmental Health

238
Q

Evidenced Based Practice Definition

A
  • A problem-solving approach to clinical decision-making within a healthcare organization
  • Integrates best available scientific evidence with best available experience
  • Uses research and non-research evidence
239
Q

Resources for EBP?

A
  • Literature searches
  • Clinical practice guidelines
  • Clinical protocols
240
Q

PICOT

A
Model to support EBP
P:Population/condition
I:Intervention
C: Comparator
O: Outcome
T: Type of study
241
Q

Staff development for Informatics

A
  • Performance goal-setting
  • Continuing education
  • Competency development
  • Evaluation methodologies
242
Q

Professional Development for Informatics

A
  • Publish, edit newsletter
  • Review conference papers
  • Create online courses
  • Conduct research
  • Consider advanced education via academic, certificate, online programs
243
Q

Computer Science defines computer’s major functions as

A

Input
Output
Processing
Storage

244
Q

Computer science topics

A
  • Artificial intelligence
  • Graphics and visualization
  • Computer networks and systems
  • Database and knowledge management
  • Algorithms and computation theory
  • Communications and signal processing
  • Microelectronics, photonics and optical communications
245
Q

Information Science

A

the science and practice dealing with the effective collection, storage, retrieval, and use of information. It is concerned with recordable information and knowledge, and the technologies and related services that facilitate their management and use

246
Q

Data

A

Discrete entities that are described objectively without interpretation

247
Q

Information

A

Data that have been interpreted, organized or structured

248
Q

Knowledge

A

Information that is synthesized so that relationships are identified and formalized

249
Q

Wisdom

A

The appropriate use of knowledge to manage and solve human problems. It consists of knowing when and how to apply knowledge to deal with complex problems or specific human needs

250
Q

Nursing Science

A

The ethical application of knowledge acquired through education, research, and practice to provide services and interventions to patients in order to maintain, enhance, or restore their health; to advocate for health, and to acquire, process, generate, and disseminate nursing knowledge to advance the nursing profession.”

251
Q

Cognitive Science

A
  • Much of learning cannot be observed or predicted, in that the individual is processing information based on experience, associations and subjective interpretation
  • Cognitive processes influence learning
252
Q

Concepts and Theories that Support Informatics Practice

A
  • Data-Information-Knowledge-Wisdom (DIKW)
  • Organizational Behavior
  • Communication
  • Systems
  • Learning Styles
  • Change Management
253
Q

Organizational Behavior

A

Organizational Behavior (OB) is the study and application of knowledge about how people, individuals, and groups act in organizations
Uses a system perspective
– Hawthorne experiment
– Motivational theory

254
Q

Communication Theory

A
Shannon-Weaver Model
Concepts (1949)
– Source: Sender
– Transmitter: Encoder
– Channel (Noise/Interference)
– Receptor: Decoder
– Endpoint: Receiver
– Continual feedback loop
255
Q

Systems Theory Concepts

A
– System
– Environment
– Input
– Output
– Feedback
• Closed versus open systems
• Communication
– Information and feedback
• Life and tension
– Life is about disequilibrium; stress creates higher life
256
Q

Teaching and Learning Theories

A
Assumptions
– Self-concept
– Experience
– Readiness to learn
– Time perspective
– Orientation toward learning
257
Q

Change theory by Lewin

A

Unfreezing, Movement, Refreezing

Driving and restraining forces (force field analysis)

258
Q

Why do a FMEA?

A
  • Aimed at prevention of tragedy
  • Does not require previous bad experience or close call
  • Makes system more robust
259
Q

Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)

A
  • Funded by Robert Wood Johnson Foundation
  • Goal is tackling the task of preparing nurses to enhance “the quality and safety of the healthcare systems in which they work”
260
Q

Total Quality Management (TQM) Techniques

A
Techniques include:
– Cause and effect diagrams
– Flow charts
– Histograms
– Pareto charts
– Run charts
– Control charts
– Scatter diagrams
261
Q

Leapfrog Group Mission

A

• “To trigger giant leaps forward in the safety, quality and affordability of health care by:
– Supporting informed health care decisions by those who use and pay for health care; and,
– Promoting high-value health care through incentives and rewards”

262
Q

Meaningful Use

A

• “Meaningful use is using certified electronic health record (EHR) technology to:
– Improve quality, safety, efficiency, and reduce health disparities
– Engage patients and family
– Improve care coordination, and population and public health”

263
Q

Accountable Care Organizations

A

“A group of health care providers who give coordinated care, chronic disease management, and thereby improve the quality of care patients get.”

“The organization’s payment is tied to achieving health care quality goals and outcomes that result in cost savings.”

264
Q

Stages of the System Development Life Cycle

A
  1. System Planning
  2. System Analysis
  3. System Design
  4. System and Functional Testing
  5. Education of multidisciplinary stakeholders
  6. system implementation
  7. System evaluation, maintenance and support
265
Q

System planning phase: You need to solve a problem

A
• Include end users and stakeholders
• Realistic, achievable goals
• Perform a needs assessment
– What can we do now?
– What should we aim for in the future?
• Compare available products
– Vendors
– Benefits
266
Q

System planning structure

A
  1. Identify a Project Manager
  2. Establish a project vision & outcome
  3. Determine preliminary resource list
    • Other departments
    • Space
    • Financial
    • Equipment
    • Events
  4. Establish goals and timeline
  5. Track discussions, decisions, goals
  6. Outline the project
    • Gap analysis
    • System requirements
    • Determine scope
    • Reassess with new information
267
Q

What are the requirements for a project?

A

People, equipment, and space
Maintenance and Support
Funding

268
Q

Plan realistically by addressing:

A
• Time constraints
• Budget constraints
• Space constraints
• People constraints
• System limitations
– Best of breed
– Enterprise solutions
– Home grown
• Communication
– With plan participants
– With end users
– With organizational stakeholders
269
Q

System analysis phase: Now you need a system

A
1. Involve end users
– Workflow impacts
– Encourage adoption
– Identify gaps
– How much training?
2. Equipment assessment
– Barcode scanning
– Real-time location tracking (RTLS)
270
Q

When picking a system what do you look for?

A
• Benefits
– Initial cost
– Return on investment (ROI)
– Efficiency
– Safety improvements
• Maintenance and Support
– Warranties
– Liabilities
– Replacement frequency
– Up time/patches
– Turnaround time
271
Q

What is the purpose of a site visit?

A
See product in action
•Observe workflow
•Talk to the users
Discuss with educators
Ask about support needs
Track events through departments
•Medication process
•Lab process
272
Q

Understanding the impact of the new system

A
• New Equipment
– Network
– Outlets
– Provisioning
– Barcodes on badges?
– Space
• New Software
– Transfer of information
– HIPAA and security
273
Q

Request for Proposal

A
• Equipment
– Current needs
– Plan for obsolescence
• Support
– Ongoing costs
– Who provides it?
• Define Responsibilities
– Hospital
– Hospital system
– Vendor
274
Q

System design phase: You’ve picked a system

A
• Financial impact
– New equipment
– Space for new equipment
– Infrastructure upgrades
– Parallel projects?
275
Q

What are involved in Workflow Discussions

A
• New tools means new flow
• Technology supports the workflow
• Reengineer workflow to the system
– Assess impact
– Minimize interference
– Enhance patient care
– Improve efficiency
• Enhances positive, efficient processes
• Illuminates inefficient processes
– Opportunity to reengineer
• Minimum number of hands on the data
• Reduce duplication
• What moves from manual to automated?
• What stays on paper?
276
Q

What do you look for if the system fails?

A
• Telecommunication circuits
• Fail over
– View only
• Backups
– Off site
• Downtime policies
• Continual system monitoring
277
Q

What is involved with User Access

A
• Security levels
• Username and password
• Barcode scan and password
• Biometrics
• Encryption
• Cookies
• Communication
– E-mail
278
Q

Data standards

A

Data standards encompasses methods, protocols, terminologies, and specifications for the collection, exchange, storage, and retrieval of information associated with health care applications, including medical records, medications, radiological images, payment and reimbursement, medical devices and monitoring systems, and administrative processes.

279
Q

Data interchange formats

A

standard formats for electronically encoding data elements

280
Q

Terminologies

A

the medical terms and concepts used to describe, classify, and code the data elements and data expression languages and syntax that describe the relationships among the terms/concepts

281
Q

What is the purpose of a data standard

A
  • Help us to decide what to collect
  • Help us to represent what is collected (terminologies)
  • Help us to determine how to encode the data for transmission
282
Q

What is metadata?

A
....metadata is data about data.
• Tags
• Keywords
• Examples:
– mp3 file contains metadata that describes the length of the
song, the artist, the album, etc.
– Word document contains metadata like last time modified,
length, author, etc.
283
Q

What are standardized ways in which to organize data?

A
  • Nomenclatures, Vocabularies
  • Classifications
  • Taxonomies
  • Standardized Terminologies
284
Q

Ana recognized terminologies

A
• Clinical Care Classification
(CCC)
• Omaha System
• Patient Care Data Set (PCDS) — retired
• Perioperative Nursing Dataset (PNDS)
• SNOMED CT
• Nursing Minimum Data Set (NMDS) & NMMDS
• International Classification for Nursing (ICNP)
• ABC codes
• LOINC
• NANDA, NIC, NOC
• CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
• ICD (International Classification of Diseases)
• ICD-9 mapping to SNOMED CT® available
• Nursing Problem List subset in SNOMED
285
Q

Examples of Technical Standards

A
HL7
HITSP
 ISO
ASTM
IEEE
286
Q

HL7

A

is a standard for the integration of healthcare clinical
data:
– Defines data and elements
– Data codes are specified
– Can be modified to support other applications
– Length of fields are specified
– How information is “packaged” in a standard way to be sent and received from other systems

287
Q

Relational database how is data organized?

A

organized into tables and have “relationships” to one another.

288
Q

Data Integration

A
  • One of the great challenges!

* Definition: combining data that resides in different “places” into 1 unified view

289
Q

Data warehousing

A

– Large collection of data imported from several different systems within 1 database
– Smaller collections of data = data marts
– Data marts can be developed for a single department or group of departments

290
Q

Data archiving

A

the process of moving data that is no longer actively used to a separate data storage device for long-term retention. Data archives consist of older data that is still important and necessary for future reference, as well as data that must be retained for regulatory compliance

291
Q

Data Archiving Vs Backup

A

Data archiving = protects older information not needed for everyday operations.
Data backup = copies of data, used to restore data in the case of corruption or disaster

292
Q

What do you consider when disaster planning and recovery for data?

A

– Redundancy of data is key for data recovery during/after a disaster
– May have off-site back-up data center
– Must have solid communication plan during disaster and recovery
– IT disaster plan should be part of the overall organizational disaster plan

293
Q

Data transformation

A

the process of converting data or information from one format to another, usually from the format of a source system into the required format of a new destination system

294
Q

Data mining

A
  • Analyzes relationships and patterns in the data
  • Applies statistics once relationships surface
  • Uses visualization to “tell a story” (analytics)
295
Q

Types of Data Representation

A
  • Alphanumeric
  • Imaging (i.e., PACS)
  • Video
  • Graphical
  • Audio
296
Q

What are system peripheral examples

A
• Clinical devices
– Smartpumps
– Physiologic monitors (BP, vents, invasive)
– Blood glucose monitor
– Mobile devices (tablet, laptop, WOW)
– Handheld (Smartphone, BCMA - bar code medication
administration, scanner)
– Auto dispensing cabinets (i.e., Pyxis)
297
Q

What is a computer system made up of?

A

Networks
Storage
Servers
Cabling

298
Q

Construction of Information

A

Chronological sets of data elements

299
Q

Wisdom

A

Appropriate use of knowledge to manage and solve human problems

300
Q

Data is used in NI to?

A

Identify, manage, define and communicate outcomes

301
Q

Primary megastructures of NI are?

A

Data, Information, Knowledge and wisdom

302
Q

A data record is comprised of

A

Multiple related data elements

303
Q

Information ethics principles are

A
Information and privacy
Access
Accountability
Legitimate infringement
Openness
Security
304
Q

Legal issues for informatics include

A

Data security and misuse
Digital signatures
Confidentiality

305
Q

Chaos Theory

A

How changes at the start of a process can lead to many intended and unintended differences in outcomes

306
Q

Relative Advantage

A

Extent in which a user understands or perceives the change to be an improvement over the current process or system

307
Q

Empowerment Informatics Framework

A

suggests that patients living with chronic illnesses and collaborating nurses can use HIT to support the relationships among patients’ behaviors (self-management), patients’ unique characteristics and context (health force), and patients’ individual goals

308
Q

Successful implementation includes

A

Awareness and frequent updates through communication
Partnership with stakeholders by collaboration
Standardized processes through change management
Adoption with education

309
Q

What is the FAIR Data principle?

A

F: Findable, A:Accesible, I: Interoperable, R:Resuable
make data more valuable as it is easier to find through unique identifiers and easier to combine and integrate thanks to the formal shared knowledge representation.

310
Q

Meaningful Use transitioned to

A

MACRA - Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015

311
Q

Qualified electronic health record must contain

A

Patient demographic information, medical history, health problems
Support provider order entry
be able to report quality data
able to share and receive this information electronically

312
Q

Medicare’s Blue Button 2.0 stipulates

A

The use of specific application programming interface (API) requirements for developers and in return developers gain access to Medicare data for 4 years

313
Q

Information management

A

A process that one can file, store, manipulate and report data for various uses

314
Q

ANA Five trends to influence nursing informatics

A

Changing nurse practice roles
evolving informatics competencies for nurses
rapid technology development
evolution, regulatory and quality standard changes
innovation in care delivery models

315
Q

Core principle of nursing informatics

A

The synthesis of data and information into knowledge and wisdom

316
Q

The first step in the SDLC is what?

A

The identification of an opportunity for which technology may have a solution

317
Q

What feasibility studies are conducted in the planning phase?

A

Technical
Economic
Operational

318
Q

Economic feasibility answers what question?

A

Should we build it?

Does the return on investment justify the cost?

319
Q

Parallel Development Method

A

Addresses lengthy time frame of a project by dividing it up into subprojects

320
Q

Client server architecture is more reliable than network because

A

There is no single point of failure

321
Q

Architecture design

A

What software will reside on what hardware

322
Q

Technical Analysis

A

Considers physical, architecture and program requirements so that they can be addressed during the project

323
Q

The process of encryption and decryption requires

A

An Algorithm and key to transform the data

324
Q

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

A

A set of instructions that controls both the transfer of the data across the internet and the appearance of the data on the receiving end

325
Q

Continuity of Care Record

A

Include data from multidisciplinary providers and is important for ongoing care between sites and levels of care

326
Q

Wireless application protocol (WAP)

A

Standard protocol used by smartphones and tablets to connect to the internet

327
Q

What are the three categories of Blum’s Information Theory?

A
  1. Data is Processed
  2. Information is processed
  3. Knowledge is processed
328
Q

What are questions that a facility would ask to retain staff?

A

Is continued education supported?
Does the facility provide salaries and benefits which are competitive?
Is there a safe working environment provided for the staff?
Does the facility should provide the employees with an opportunity to advance within the business?
Does the facility listen to employee complaints?

329
Q

What are the 5 main issues which are associated with the electronic health information?

A
Interoperability standards
Work-flow redesign
Data security
Quality measurement
User design
330
Q

What are the 3 safeguards found in the Security Rule found under HIPAA

A
  1. Administrative
  2. Physical
  3. Technical
331
Q

Primary uses of the EHR?

A
Patient self-management
Patient care delivery
Patient care management
Patient care support processes
Financial and other administrative processes
332
Q

Give 5 examples of the 45 EHR Certification Criteria?

A
Audit Log
Integrity
Authentication
CDS
Clinical Summaries
333
Q

The process of education is based on?

A

Teaching and Learning.

There must be a teacher and a learner

334
Q

electronic medical record helps to bring about which of the following changes

A

Privacy
Linking of patient data
Access
Security

335
Q

R-ADT (registration-admission, discharge, and transfer)

A

The R-ADT records the insurance information, demographics, and tracks their admissions or scheduled visits. It is a fundamental system that is needed to register patients

336
Q

Software

A

The software directs the hardware. The server is a type of computer that allows the sharing of information resources across a network. A specialty software performs specialized functions.

337
Q

What are the 6 circumstances that the minimum necessary requirement is associated with covered entities making reasonable efforts to disclose, use, and request only the minimum PHI needed to meet the intended purpose of disclosure, use, or request?

A
  1. disclosure to a health care provider to be used for treatment
  2. disclosure to an individual whom the information is about
  3. disclosure for an authorization
  4. disclosure to a HHS investigation
  5. disclosure required by law
  6. disclosure required for compliance with HIPAA.
338
Q

What is the patient financial services system?

A

This system can validate insurance coverage, manage prior authorizations and in the future it is thought that this system will be able to actually process electronic claim attachments.

339
Q

What can the Patient Financial Service system do?

A

receive charges and then generates claims.
Determine the co-payment requirement for the patients.
Determines the potential deductible amounts
Check clam statuses for patients

340
Q

When developing education what is the organization role?

A

organization would include such things as manipulation of the space and material, organizing the content from simple to complex, and determining the priority of the material. Organizing material helps to lessen the obstacles of learning.

341
Q

Retraction

A

Retraction would be considered when a document is removed from standard view with the electronic health record (EHR) and posted to another within the EDMS. This wouldn’t be part of the designated record set.

342
Q

What are the 8 Principles of Total Quality Management?I

A
Customer Focus
Leadership
Involvement of People
Processes Approach
System Approach
Continual Improvement
Factual Approach to Decision-Making
Mutual Beneficial Supplier Relationship.
343
Q

What is the 5 standard of practice?

A

Implementation

344
Q

What is the 5B standard of [professional performance

A

Health Teaching and Health Promotion and Education

345
Q

What is Standard 5c of professional performance?

A

Consultation

346
Q

What are the 5 steps of RCA?

A

Define the problem, collect data, identify possible causal factors, identify the root cause or causes, and recommend and implement solutions.

347
Q

What are the 4 goals of usability?

A

It is pleasant to use
It is easy to use
It decreases errors
that once the system is learned by a person, it is easy for them to go back to it after a period of time

348
Q

Nursing informatics deals with?

A

Nursing data
Information
Knowledge to facilitate the management
Communication of the information

349
Q

A good training plan should have?

A
Approach
Evaluation strategy
Training needs
Resources
Budget
Costs
Philosophy
Schedule
350
Q

What are common pitfalls with dissemination?

A

Lack of detail
Uncertainty and contribution to nursing
Inexperience

351
Q

What are the four steps in a workflow analysis?

A

Gathering and analyzing data
Understanding the current process that is being used
Framing the process
the designing of the new process would be included.

352
Q

What are the steps to strategic planning?

A

The analysis of the data.
The scope and goals are identified.
The implementation
Scanning of the internal and external environments
Identifying potential solutions
Identifying ongoing evaluation and feedback

353
Q

What is a leave-taker?

A

A leave taker is a person that will leave the facility to avoid accepting the changes. In some cases, this may be considered good, but not if too many leave

354
Q

What are the core values of performance excellence?

A
Agility
Systems perspective
Management by fact
Voluntary leadership
Patient-focused excellence
Organizational and personal learning
Focus on results and creating value
Social responsibility and community health
Managing for innovation
Focus on the future
Valuing staff and partners
355
Q

What would need to be explored as a foundation for informatics?

A

Megastructures
Tools
Concepts
Sciences

356
Q

Secondary data is considered what?

A

secondary data is considered aggregate data.

This is data that is about groups of patients, but doesn’t identify the patients.

357
Q

Benefits of a fully integrated EHR for patients?

A

Evidence-based healthcare
Ability to check the accuracy of their records
Knowledge of who has access to their data
One location for all healthcare data
Individualized treatment anywhere the computer-based patient record is available.

358
Q

What is the first step to developing a disaster recovery plan?

A

The first step in planning for disaster recovery is to conduct a business impact analysis. This involves assessing every system and application in use to determine its impact on business if the system or application were to fail or go down.

359
Q

Who have the most responsibility for completing a project?

A

The individuals that have the most responsibility for completing a project would be considered stakeholders.
The stakeholders have the most influence in the systems designs and are typically the most impacted by the implementation of the design.

360
Q

What are the 4 tasks associated with human information processing/

A

Data gathering
Information use
Generation of new knowledge
Creative application of knowledge to clinical practice

361
Q

What are the 4 roles associated with the 4 tasks of human information processing?

A

knowledge used, knowledge builder, data gather, and information user.

362
Q

Aggregate data type of data includes

A
Hazard and safety practices
Financial records
Pharmacy transactions
demographic information
required reports
363
Q

Medical/clinical type of data include?

A
Diagnosis
Treatment
Laboratory reports
care plans
physician orders
consents
364
Q

Knowledge based type data include

A

Data used for training and research

365
Q

Comparison type data includes?

A

Compares data such as for benchmarking

366
Q

Theory Cognitive Flexibility

A

the readiness with which one can selectively switch between mental processes to generate appropriate behavioral responses, develops in a protracted manner and is compromised in several prevalent neurodevelopmental disorders
Focuses on the individual’s ability to construct knowledge.
Information should be contextual and avoid oversimplification
Knowledge should be built rather than transferred
Instructional sources should be interconnected rather than independent

367
Q

What is the primary goal of CPOE?

A

Eliminate handwritten orders as inability to properly read handwritten orders and incompleteness of and errors in handwritten orders may result in medication errors

368
Q

Lewins theory of change

A

Lewin’s theory proposes that individuals and groups of individuals are influenced by restraining forces, or obstacles that counter driving forces aimed at keeping the status quo, and driving forces, or positive forces for change that push in the direction that causes change to happen
Lewin suggests that it is crucial to balance these forces through effective change communication and employee involvement, by providing employee training to bridge the skill gap. Change agents must implement stress management techniques, ensure compliance is met, and use convincing change reasoning.

369
Q

Unfreeze Stage

A

The first stage in Lewin’s model deals with perception management and aims to prepare the affected stakeholders for the upcoming organizational change. Change leaders must look at ways to improve the company’s preparedness for change and create a sense of urgency similar to Kotter’s change model.

During this stage, effective change communication plays a vital role in getting the desired team member buy-in and support of the people in the change management.

The following activities under the ‘unfreeze’ stage will help you embrace change better:

Conduct a needs analysis by surveying your organization to understand the current loopholes in the business processes
Obtain organizational buy-in
Create a strategic change vision and change strategy
Communicate in a compelling way about why change has to occur
Address employee concerns with honesty and transparency

370
Q

Move/Change Stage

A

Once the status quo is disrupted, this stage deals with the implementation of change. In this stage, you must consider an agile and iterative approach that incorporates employee feedback to smoothen the transition.

You can further look at the following actionable items to keep uncertainty at bay:

Ensure a continuous flow of information to obtain the support of your team members
Organize change management workshops and sessions for change management exercises
Empower employees to deal with the change proactively
Generate easy wins as visible results will motivate your team

371
Q

Refreeze Stage

A

Employees move away from the transition phase towards stabilization or acceptance in the final’ refreezing’ stage.

However, if change leaders fail to strengthen the change by reinforcing it into org culture, employees might revert to previous behaviors.

The following activities will help you support the change:

Identify and reward early adopters and change champions
Collect employee feedback regularly
Offer on-demand employee training and support

372
Q

What should a NI nurse expect during the Unfreeze stage?

A
Deal with resistance
provide reassurance
determine the needs for change
Promoting the need for change
Ensuring managerial support
373
Q

What should a NI nurse expect during the Moving/Change stage?

A

Communicating
Answering Questions
Dispelling rumors
Encouraging involvement

374
Q

What should a NI nurse expect during the Refreeze stage

A

Developing methods to sustain change

Provide feedback and adaption to changes

375
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

is a strategic planning and strategic management technique used to help a person or organization identify Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats related to business competition or project planning. It is sometimes called situational assessment or situational analysis

376
Q

What are examples of internal environment strengths that are found in a SWOT analysis?

A
Programs, Services
Staff-Patient Ratio
Strong administration
EHR Implementation
Marketing
377
Q

What are examples of internal environment weaknesses that are found in a SWOT analysis?

A
Usability issues
Declining admissions
Financial instability
Increasing costs
Outdated equipment
378
Q

What are examples of external environment opportunities that are found in a SWOT analysis?

A
Increased population
HMO opportunities
New programs
New markets
Stakeholders
379
Q

What are examples of external environment threats that are found in a SWOT analysis?

A
Low reimbursement
regulations/laws
Competition
Political Changes
Costly Requirements
380
Q

Word sense disambiguation

A

Refers to determining the correct meaning or sense of a word

This problem must be automated in a EHR with CDS

381
Q

What are the 5 elements of a single datum?

A

Patient: The individual to whom the datum applies
Parameter: Specific item being reported, such as temp, weight, glucose
Value: Relates specifically to the parameter such as temp which may be assigned a value of 37 degrees C
Time: Time the datum was collect/observed
Method: The manner in which the observation/collection was made (such as with BP cuff or blood draw)

382
Q

System improvement process (SIP)

A

The System Improvement Process is derived from the natural way people go about solving problems. They intuitively apply these four steps: The process of solving any kind of problem consists of first noticing the problem, then understanding the problem, then deciding what to do, and then doing it.

383
Q

What are the sub-problems once a problem is identified in SIP?

A

Change resistance: Many people actively resist any change and view changes as threatening
Proper coupling: The staff is coupled with the organization, but the coupling may not have adequate feedback or support to sustain itself
Model drift: The organizational management may not be able to keep up with the needs to the point that has drifted so much it no longer functions well

384
Q

Gerbner’s General model of communication

A

Gerbner’s model consists of a verbal aspect, where someone observes an event and gives feedback about the situation, and a schematic model where someone perceives an event and sends messages to the sender. George Gerbner is considered a pioneer in the field of communication research.

385
Q

Perceptual dimension

A

In the perceptual dimension, E is an event or situation in life that is perceived by M (human or machine). The event or situation that is observed becomes E1 in this model.

E1 is only part of the event or situation because the observer is M, who has perceived it within the context of his personality, mood, attitude, culture and other factors.

This is known as the perceptual dimension. Three factors are important in the perceptual dimension: selection, context and availability. Selection is important because observer M only extracts the interesting content from the situation and filters the rest.

The way in which E is perceived is thus determined by the above factors. This is comparable to the Berlo SMCR communication model. This model draws attention to how attitudes, knowledge, skills, culture and social position affect the encoding and decoding of messages. In Berlo’s model, E would be the transmitter (S).

386
Q

Mean and control dimensions

A

In this dimension, E2 is the new event content drawn by M. M becomes the source and can send the message about E to someone. M creates statements and signals about the message (S), which is referred to by Gerbner as SE2. The channels and resources used for this have been determined by M.

The process can be expanded by adding new receivers (M2, M3, M4, etc.) that have new perceptions (SE2, SE3, SE4, etc.) about observed events.

387
Q

Increased Overhead means

A

Greater investment of time, effort and/or resources to carry out a process such as retrieving data

388
Q

Granularity

A

Based on the metaphor of sand, so a system with coarse granularity has data in larger entities (components) while a system with fine granularity has the same entities subdivided. Course granularity all identifying information (name, birthdate, ID) maybe contained in one field, but with fine granularity each item is contained in a separate field

389
Q

Phishing

A

Social engineering technique
Perpetrator attempts to obtain another person’s information, such as username and password, through email by pretending to be an authorized individual
Emails may contain infected downloads or links to malware, fake websites that are replicas of real websites
May sometime involve instant messaging

390
Q

Relevant data/information

A

Primarily subjective because the user must judge whether or not the data/information is relevant for the user’s purposes.

391
Q

Objective data/information

A

factual and unbiased and therefore can be proven

392
Q

Flexible data/information

A

can be used by a variety of users for a number of different purposes

393
Q

Verifiable data/information

A

can be proven through the research to be accurate

394
Q

Timely data/information

A

is available when needed

395
Q

Complete data/information

A

Contains all the information needed

396
Q

Reliable data/information

A

Clean data from a trusted source, such as juried journal

397
Q

Utility

A

The ability to provide the correct information to the correct user at the correct time

398
Q

Tranparency

A

The ability of users to apply intellectual reasoning to reach a goal while the tools that produced the information disappear

399
Q

Usability

A

the level of difficulty in accessing information for a particular purpose

400
Q

Reproducibility

A

refers to the ability to produce the same information at another time

401
Q

Substantive rules for ethical behavior

A

Determining how healthcare should allocated
Telling the truth
Maintaining confidentiality, privacy and fidelity
Ensuring informed consent

402
Q

Authority rules of ethical behavior

A

determining who should or should not carry out actions

403
Q

Procedural rules for ethical behavior

A

establishing procedures to be followed

404
Q

Von Neumann’s model of computer architecture

A

Processor: Contains the control unit and the arithmetic/logic unit
Memory: storage for both data and operating instructions
Input/output

405
Q

CPU contains

A

Arithmetic-logic unit: necessary to carry out operations related to both arithmetic and logic
Cache memory: fast memory that holds data memory that is being used
Control unit: controls operations of all other parts of the computer and allows other computer components to respond to instructions

406
Q

Productivity Software

A
Word processing
Spreadsheets
email
desktop publishing
Presentation application
407
Q

Creative software

A

Music recording applications

graphic, music, sound and video programs

408
Q

Communication Software

A

Internet browsers
instant messaging
conferencing

409
Q

Modern site primary characteristics

A

interactivity
based on the internet
allow users to manipulate data and comment
Users can generate and edit websites using any browser

410
Q

Cognitive informatics

A

Focuses on understanding how the brain functions in order to develop computer processes
Applies knowledge gained from studying the human brain to computer applications, focusing on such factors as memory, thinking/reasoning, and learning

411
Q

Task analysis

A

Describing tasks in terms of needed inputs and expected outputs during the process of interface design
This analysis generates information needed to create a timeline and flow chart for development
Utilizes interview and questionnaires to identify specific tasks and their frequency
Examines the knowledge needed and how that can be represented

412
Q

Cognitive work analysis

A

Used for highly complex work situations

Includes analysis of work domain, control tasks, strategies, social-organizational and worker competencies

413
Q

Exploiting the “power of constraints” according to Norman’s principles of design for human-technology interfaces means

A

To consider how constraints, both natural and artificial, affect design

414
Q

Field Study

A

Conducted as the best technique for assessing the value of a newly developed point of care electronic device that the nursing staff has proposed for use.
The field study will use the device in a limited manner, such as on one unit, to evaluate its effectiveness in terms of function and usability and to assess the value in terms of improved patient care and patient outcomes.
Some cases vendors may provide devices free of charge for field studies so that an organization can determine whether the device is appropriate without undue investment

415
Q

What are the three components of the OMAHA system?

A
  1. Problem classification scheme
  2. Intervention scheme
  3. Problem rating scale for outcomes
416
Q

What are the 4 main categories of the intervention scheme in the OMAHA system?

A
  1. Teaching, guiding, counseling
  2. Treatments and procedures
  3. Case management
  4. Surveillance
417
Q

OSHA’s Ergonomics requirement for a user sitting at a computer to input or retrieve data?

A

Seating must be cushioned with a rounded front rather than a sharp line to prevent pressure on the back legs.
User’s truck must be perpendicular or slightly leaning backwards into the back support but should be learning forward as this may cause back strain
Forearms, wrists, and hands should be in a straight line, parallel to the keyboard, and the feet must be flat on the floor

418
Q

International technical standard ISO 18104:2003 states for a nursing diagnosis to be valid it must contain?

A

A focus and judgement

419
Q

International technical standard ISO 18104:2003 states for a nursing action to be valid it must contain?

A

action and target

420
Q

International technical standard ISO 18104:2003 purpose?

A

Provides a basic reference terminology model for nursing statements

421
Q

Core sciences of nursing informatics?

A

Nursing science: the study of nursing and how it relates to human health, including the application of nursing models and theories
Information science: the study of the application and usage of information and knowledge and the interactions between information and users and organizations
Computer science: the study of theories and methods related to the use and design of the computer and software to process information

422
Q

Carper’s fundamental ways of knowing

A

typology that attempts to classify the different sources from which knowledge and beliefs in professional practice (originally specifically nursing) can be or have been derived

The emphasis on different ways of knowing is presented as a tool for generating clearer and more complete thinking and learning about experiences, and broader self-integration of classroom education. As such it helped crystallize Johns’ (1995) framework for reflective investigation to develop reflective practice.[4]

The typology has been seen as leading a reaction against over-emphasis on just empirically derived knowledge, so called “scientific nursing”, by emphasising that attitudes and actions that are perhaps more personal and more intuitive are centrally important too, and equally fit for discussion.[5][6]

423
Q

What are the 4 pattern’s of knowledge in Carper’s model?

A
  1. Empirics: Focuses on empirical knowledge (Facts, theories, laws) and the science of nursing
  2. Aesthetics: Focuses on access to multicultural practices and beliefs and knowledge gained through subjective means
  3. Personal: Focuses on clinical experience an reactions and the interactions occurring between patient and nurse
  4. Ethics/Moral knowledge: Focuses on access to ethical standards and experts as well as application of ethical codes to real situations
424
Q

Lewin’s Force Field Analysis

A

Lewin’s force field analysis is used to distinguish which factors within a situation or organisation drive a person towards or away from a desired state, and which oppose the driving forces. These can be analysed in order to inform decisions that will make change more acceptable

425
Q

What are driving forces in a force field analysis

A

Things that promote change

426
Q

What are restraining forces in a force field analysis?

A

Interfering with change

Examples: outdated equipment, resistance, financial instability

427
Q

What are the steps in a force field analysis?

A
Listing proposed change
brainstorming opposing (driving and restraining) forces
developing a plan to deal with restraining forces
428
Q

What are the 4 primary factors that motivate employees?

A
  1. Autonomy: Allowing staff to utilize their own ideas
  2. Salary: compensation that is fair and equitable
  3. Recognition: certification, continuing education credit
  4. respect: Listening, paying attention, acknowledging
429
Q

In preparing a performance checklist for usability testing what is important?

A

Include every step, regardless of how minor it is, in order to determine if the users can understand the steps and follow them

430
Q

First step to providing CEUs for staff

A

Query the state BON to determine rules and regulations and what an approved course must contain and how many contact hours are needed

431
Q

What are the 4 domains of nursing data needs?

A
  1. Patient: Obtained from patient health record, includes clinical data, care, outcomes
  2. Healthcare provider: obtained from data banks, patient health care records, and personnel records, includes decision-making and provision of care
  3. Administrative: Obtained from administrative, financial, and regulatory data, includes administrative data, system outcomes, and management procedures
  4. Research: obtained from clinical records and relational databases, includes best practices, knowledge base.
432
Q

What are the direct costs of workplace conflict?

A

litigation, disability, turnover, decreased productivity, regulatory fines for failure to comply, increased costs resulting from patient care errors

433
Q

What are the indirect costs of workplace conflict?

A

Low morale, impaired organization reputation, and increased disruptive staff behavior

434
Q

What is the primary ethical dilemma for most organizations?

A

Balancing provision of care with cost-effectiveness

435
Q

Jobs characteristics model

A

The Job Characteristics Model states that these characteristics influence outcomes of motivation, satisfaction and performance

436
Q

What are the 5 characteristics that state how best to design work?

A
  1. skill variety,
  2. task identity,
  3. task significant,
  4. autonomy
  5. feedback.
437
Q

Contingency Theory

A

An organizational theory that states that management approaches should vary according to the needs and environment
No single method of organization and managing a company or organization is better than any other but is contingent on a number of different factors such as the size of the organization, the education of the workforce, technology, and resources.
The leadership style utilized should reflect needs rather than ideology

438
Q

What are the 4 steps of QIP?

A
  1. Defining
  2. Diagnosing
  3. Remediating
  4. holding
439
Q

What is the quality trilogy of QIP

A
  1. Quality planning: identifying and assessing needs of internal and external customers and determining how to meet those needs and designing the processes needed to do so.
  2. Quality Control: choosing controls and measures, interpreting results, and taking corrective action
  3. Quality improvement: Identifying needs, organizing, assessing for problems and causes, and providing solutions
440
Q

FOCUS is usually combined with what?

A

PDCA
Combination creates a 9 step process because FOCUS is not complete by itself
FOCUS does not include the steps necessary to find solutions to the problems so PDCA a method of continuous quality improvement helps to solve specific problems

441
Q

According to QSEN future nurses require what competencies?

A

KNowledge, skills and attitudes in order to continuously improve both the quality and safety of the work environment

442
Q

Orem’s general theory of nursing

A

Goal of nursing is to assist patients and help them provide self-care
Achieved through 3 steps
- Identify the reason that the patient needs care
- establish a plan of care
- manager care of the patient

443
Q

How long must an organization fulfill meaningful use criteria before moving to the next stage:

A

2 years

444
Q

Data lock-in (vendor lock-in)

A

Data stored in one provider’s cloud service must be moved back to the organization’s site and unmodified before the data can be transmitted to another cloud service.
This lack of interoperability (prevents easy transfer of information from one vendor to another) is a problem not only with cloud services, but also with many EHRs
May occur because of the use of proprietary technology, inadequate contractual agreements, or inadequate processes

445
Q

Before completing a needs assessment for CIS what should the NI do?

A

Complete a financial status review to determine if the organization has the financial means to obtain the CIS.
Policies, controls, and infrastructure needs should be considered as well
An assessment of computer literacy and needs for training may also be done as part of preliminary planning

446
Q

Regression Testing

A

Usually done after the introduction of new software or other changes to determine if “regressions” or errors occur.

447
Q

Non-regression testing

A

tests to determine whether the introduction of new software has the effect intended.
Often done when a new version of software is issues

448
Q

Social engineering

A

manipulating a relationship or impersonating an official or authorized person
Person poses as IT staff to ask employee to verify username/password

449
Q

Proxy server

A

A network security tool that prevents staff members from directly accessing the internet
When a user wants to access the internet the request goes first to the proxy server which acts as an intermediary and determines if the request is permitted or not

450
Q

What is the maximal distance a healthcare provider should have to walk to access a terminal?

A

50 ft

451
Q

Role based access

A

limits on abilities to access or input data according to the person’s role

452
Q

In a data dictionary what should be included for each data element?

A

Type
definition
Metadata

453
Q

Metadata

A

data that provides information (date of creation or author/developer

454
Q

Types of metadata

A
structural
technical
process
guide
administrative
rights management
preservation
455
Q

Generator requirements for disasters

A

Must provide power for 48 hours
Must have uninterruptible power source should be available for 10 minutes in order to provide time to switch to the generator
Both generator and USP should be tested every 30 days
Maintained in secure areas that are protected from flooding

456
Q

Common Meaningful Use data set

A
facilitates transmission of summary data during transitions of care by requiring interoperability
Data includes:
Patient name and demographics
Vital signs
Diagnosis
procedures
medications
allergies
test results
immunizations
functional status
care plan
care team
reason of referral of discharge instructions
457
Q

What is the primary criteria for selecting software?

A
  1. format: presentation system, text/graphic based, frames, interface design
  2. content: current/reliable
  3. style: tone, literacy level
  4. strategy: interactivity
458
Q

End user acceptance testing

A

purpose is to assess users’ willingness and ability to utilize hardware/software as intended
Usually done as a final step prior to a system’s going live

459
Q

Legitimate infringement

A

Right to privacy limited by consideration of greater good
Right to privacy is not absolute from an ethical standpoint
Infringement must be minimum necessary

460
Q

Health Information management helps protect what types of information

A
Genetic information
Social information
Adoption information
Health information
Medical information
Personal information
461
Q

The electronic data interchange is

A

a standard transmission format that uses strings of data for business information communicated in the computer systems of organizations that are independent.

462
Q

De-identified information

A

has no restrictions on how it is used or disclosed. Information can become de-identified in two different forms. It can by formal determination by a qualified statistician or by removing specified identifiers of the individual. On the other hand, individually identifiable health information is protected.

463
Q

Disclosure

A

The term “disclosure” is when the patient’s medical information is made available externally. The patient does have the legal rights to who has access to their medical information, even though the healthcare facility owns the records and has physical control of them.

464
Q

Roger’s Diffusion of Innovation Theory

A

This change theory has 5 adopters categories based on innovativeness. They are: Innovators, early adopters, early majority, late majority, laggards.

465
Q

Health Belief model

A
In the 1950’s, this model was developed from a social psychology perspective to be used as a predicator of preventive health behavior.
The model includes:
Individual perceptions
Modifying factors
Likelihood of action
466
Q

6 reasons a covered entity can use PHI without consent

A

The reasons are: to the individual; for treatment, payment and health care operations; for opportunity to agree or object; for incident to an otherwise permitted use and disclosure; public interest and benefit activities; limited data set for the purpose of research or health care operations.

467
Q

Collaboration is which performance standard?

A

Standard 13

468
Q

Ethics is which performance standard?

A

Standard 7

469
Q

Education is which performance standard?

A

Standard 8

470
Q

Leadership is which performance standard?

A

Standard 12

471
Q

Security in the functional testing stage, should include

A

sufficient testing of multiple users and their log ins. Ease of access as well as denial of access to the necessary information is also critical in this phase.

472
Q

What are the 5 critical skills a project manager should have?

A
Communication
Influence
Problem solving
Leadership
Negotiation
473
Q

A SDLC readiness assessment should occur in what phase

A

The readiness assessment is conducted before implementation, to assess the readiness of the organization for the implementation that will occur shortly. This should include hardware, environment, staff, etc.

474
Q

Visual design basic elements are

A
These basic elements could include:
Color palette
Form
Lines
Typography
Shapes
Texture
Space
475
Q

Heuristic category visibility of system state

A

This category also focuses on what users can do with the technology. This is via messages, information, and displays.

476
Q

Unit testing

A

Unit testing is the first form of testing before the system is handed over to the testing phase of SDLC. It is usually performed by the system designer during the design phase, and performed on each component separately. This is the first line of testing to ensure that each piece is operating correctly.

477
Q

Unit testing

A

Unit testing is the first form of testing before the system is handed over to the testing phase of SDLC. It is usually performed by the system designer during the design phase, and performed on each component separately. This is the first line of testing to ensure that each piece is operating correctly.

478
Q

Medicare Provider Analysis and Review (MEDPAR), consists of what data types

A

Provider data, total charges, MS-DRG, demographic data, Medicare coverage for the claim information, charges by specific types of service, and the ICD codes. This file is sometimes used for research,
but it only contains Medicare patients.

479
Q

Algorithm

A

A baseline data is data that tells how a process is currently performing.
This helps to determine how a process performs after a change has
been made

480
Q

Audit Controls

A

are mechanisms that will examine activity and then record in an information system.

481
Q

Storage Area Network

A

SAN allows organizations to integrate fast performance with necessary expandability. As health data proliferates each year, demands for greater storage options become necessary. SAN is a virtual storage that can be easily expanded, and allows for quick recall of data and long-term storage.

482
Q

Benefits of nurses using a portable device for EHRs

A

Chief among them are the improvement of workflow and productivity, increased information access, improved communications, and greater mobility. However, improving patient communication is not necessarily a benefit of tablet use. In fact, it might even be a hindrance to patient communication if a nurse is distracted by the tablet at any given moment.

483
Q

SAS informats

A

SaS informats are used to read external data, in the form of flat files,and format it for output. There are 3 categories and they are named according to their syntax.

484
Q

Flat files

A

Flat files are data that is external to the system, and are generally in the form of text or sequential files.

485
Q

What are the 4 areas of practice for NI

A

nursing practice, nursing education, nursing research, and nursing administration.

486
Q

WHat skills do people who are health literate have?

A

They need to able to speak their health concerns.
They need to be able to describe their symptoms accurately.
They can evaluate information for its quality and credibility.
They can analyze the benefits and risks.
They are information literate.

487
Q

What are the 3 types of causes in a RCA?

A

physical causes, human causes, and organizational causes.

488
Q

what are the stages of staff development?

A

exploration and trial, establishment and advancement, mid-career growth, maintenance, decline, and disengagement

489
Q

What are the 3 categories of HL7 EHR functional model capabilities?

A

Direct care
Supportive
Informational infrastructure

490
Q

What are the 3 type of neural networks?

A

three types are input (analogs of sensory neurons), hidden (analogs to all of the other neurons), and output (analogs of motor neurons).

491
Q

The core clinical system is made up of

A
Reporting
Results management
Point-of-care charting
Medication management
Clinical decision support systems
492
Q

Optimization can be described as

A

Optimization is more innovation, rather than maintenance. It can occur pre-implementation phase, or after the implementation phase of the SDLC. Optimization focuses not only on workflows, but system functionality and training.

493
Q

Administrative information systems include

A

financial systems, payroll and human resource systems, contract management systems, and quality assurance systems.

494
Q

What are the 5 components to constructing a migration path?

A

goals, application, time frame, technology, and operations

495
Q

Workflow Analysis

A

The work flow analysis is an observation of how the data is currently handled and the rate at which it happens. By analyzing this information and observing the processes, improvements can be planned. These changes will improve effectiveness and efficiency.

496
Q

WHen evaluating educational material’s technical production what should be checked?

A

The audio part of the visual should be clear.
The visual material should be clear and focused.
Are there any distracting background noise in the audio?
The composition of the image should be good.
The legibility of the text should be clear from a distance.
The pace of the narrator should be checked.

497
Q

What does SCODF stand for?

A
S-starters
C-creators
O-overseers
D-doers
F-finishers
498
Q

What are the 6 steps of SDLC

A
Feasibility
Design
Implement
Test
Maintain
Analysis
499
Q

what are the 4 categories of metadata

A

application, document, file system, and embedded

500
Q

Single point of failure

A

Single point of failure (or SPOFF) means that if one part of a system fails, the whole system fails with it. By maintaining data redundancy via the use of multiple offsite storage locations, organizations ensure that they’ll be able to maintain continuity of service

501
Q

National administrative databases include

A

Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Base
Medicare Provider Analysis and Review
State Administrative Data Banks

502
Q

List the 8 roles a NI might work?

A
  1. Administration
  2. Policy Developer
  3. Analyst/Trainer
  4. Educator
  5. Consultant
  6. Researcher
  7. Project Developer/Manager
  8. Clinical Analyst
503
Q

What are the 5 characteristics of a specialty

A
  1. Differentiated practice
  2. defined research
  3. Organizational representation
  4. educational programs
  5. credential mechanism