INFO310FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Goal of Cybersecurity

A

Protection of Assets, Prevention Detection, and Recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CIA

A

confidentiality, Integrity, Availability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Confidentiality (CIA)

A

the concealment of information or resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Integrity (CIA)

A

the trustworthiness of data or resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Availability (CIA)

A

Availability: the ability to use information or resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Categories of Threats

A

Deception, Disruption, Disclosure, Usurpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Deception (Category of threat)

A

The acceptance of false data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Disruption (Category of threat)

A

the interruption or prevention of correct operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Disclosure (Category of threat)

A

The unauthorized access to information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Usurpation (Category of threat)

A

the unauthorized control of some part of a system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Snooping or eavesdropping (Type of threat)

A

the unauthorized interception of information, is a form of disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Modification or alteration (Type of threat)

A

an unauthorized change of information is a form of usurpation, deception, and disclosure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Masquerading or spoofing (Type of threat)

A

an impersonation of one entity by another, is a form of both deception and usurpation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Repudiation of origin

A

a false denial that an entity sent (or created) something, is a form of deception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Denial of receipt

A

a false denial that an entity received some information or mes- sage, is a form of deception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Delay

A

a temporary inhibition of a service, is a form of usurpation, al- though it can play a supporting role in deception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Denial of service

A

a long-term inhibition of service, is a form of usurpation often also used as a mechanism of deception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Core of Cybersecurity

A

Asset, Threat, Vulnerability, Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Asset

A

People, property, and information of value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Threat

A

Anything that can exploit a vulnerability, intentionally or acciden- tally, and obtain, damage, or destroy an asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vulnerability

A

Weaknesses or gaps in a security program that can be exploited by threats to gain unauthorized access to an asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Risk

A

The potential for loss, damage or destruction of an asset as a result of a threat exploiting a vulnerability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Formula for calculating risk

A

Asset + Threat + Vulnerability = Risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Polyalphabetic Ciphers

A

Any cipher based on substitution, using multiple substitution alphabets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Scytale Encryption

A

message wrapped around a rod of a certain size then can be read.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Transposition Ciphers

A

A method of encryption by which the positions held by units of plaintext […] are shifted according to a regular system, so that the ciphertext constitutes a permutation of the plaintext.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Frequency Analysis

A

The study of the frequency of letters or groups of letters in a ciphertext. The method is used as an aid to breaking classical ciphers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Social Engineering

A

s the art or better yet, science, of skillfully maneuvering human beings to take action in some aspect of their lives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Phishing (SE)

A

The practice of sending emails appearing to be from reputable sources with the goal of influencing or gaining personal information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vishing (SE)

A

The practice of eliciting information or attempting to influence action via the telephone, may include such tools as phone spoofing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Impersonation (SE)

A

The practice of pretexting as another person with the goal of obtaining information or access to a person, company, or computer system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Properties of encryption

A

· Ensures Authentication · Ensures Non-Repudiation · Ensures Confidentiality · Ensures Integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Secret Key Cryptography (SKC) (AKA Symmetric Encryption)

A

Uses a single key for both encryption and decryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Public Key Cryptography (PKC) (AKA Asymmetric Encryption)

A

Uses one key for encryption and another for decryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hash Functions (AKA Checksum)

A

Uses a mathematical transformation to create a digital fingerprint or message digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The Layers of the Internet Protocol Model

A

Physical, Link, Network, Transport, and Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Physical layer IPM

A

Wire, open air, optic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Link layer IPM

A

Ethernet, Wifi, 4G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Network layer IPM

A

Internet protocol, inter control ICMP (nter Control Messaging Protocol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Transport Layer (IPM)

A

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Application Layer IPM

A

Email > Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) - Websites>HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) -File Sharing>File Transfer Protocol (FTP)>Server Message Block (smb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Public IP

A

public domain on the internet. Created by Internet Service Providers (ISP) to connect to other ISPs around the world. Creates the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Private IP

A

private to a Local Area Network (LAN). Private IPs are assigned in a LAN by the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Internet Protocol (IP) Address

A

it is a unique identifier. An IP address has two components: the network address and the host address. A subnet mask then sep- arates the IP address into network and host addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Authentication

A

the process of verifying that an individual, entity or website is who it claims to be. Authentication in the context of web applications is commonly performed by submitting a username or ID and one or more items of private information that only a given user should know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Credential

A

An attestation of identity, qualification, competence, or authority issued to an individual by a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Web Session

A

sequence of network HTTP request and response transactions associated to the same user. […] sessions provide the ability to establish variables - such as access rights and localization settings - which will apply to each and every interaction a user has with the web application for the duration of the session.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Client side code

A

is almost exclusively in Javascript (JS) runs with an interpreter. Makes web pages come alive. Credential information is stored and sent from the client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Server Side

A

Server side services listen for a request and then respond to that request part of the N-tier application design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

N-Tier Application

A

Presentation, logic, data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Presentation tier

A

Translates data in to something the user can understand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Logic Tier

A

Coordinates the application, processes commands makes logical decisions and evaluations and performs calculations. Provides communication between the presentation and data tier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Data Tier

A

Information is stored and retrieved from a database, datastore or filesystem. Provides information back to the logic tier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hub

A

does nothing except provide a pathway for the electrical signals to travel along

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Switch

A

are the connectivity points of an Ethernet network that forward data only to the port that connects to the destination device. It does this by learning the MAC address of the devices attached to it, and then by matching the destination MAC address in the data it receives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Router

A

ill normally create, add, or divide on the Network Layer as they are normally IP-based devices.Receives a packet of data, it reads the header of the packet to define the destination address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Wireless Access Point

A

use the wireless infrastructure network mode to provide a connection point between WLANs and a wired Ethernet LAN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

A

Encrypted Connection over the internet from a device to a network

59
Q

Firewall

A

A networking device, either hardware or software based, that controls access to your organization’s network.

60
Q

Software Firewalls

A

Use network operating systems such as Linux/Unix, Windows Servers and Mac OS Servers

61
Q

Hardware Firewalls

A

Dedicated network device Many routers and WAPs have firewall functionality built in

62
Q

Subnet Mask

A

a 32-bit number that masks an IP address, and divides the IP address into network address and host address. network bits to all “1”s and setting host bits to all “0”s

63
Q

Classless inter-domain routing (CIDR)

A

is a set of Internet protocol (IP) standards that is used to create unique identifiers for networks and individual devices.

64
Q

CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

A

A dictionary of CVE attempting to standardize across the industry

65
Q

Goals of Vulnerability Management Program (4)

A

Maintain accurate inventory of assets Define and set stan- dards>Maintain awareness and detect new vulnerabilities>Reme- diate or mitigate identified vulnerabilities >Continuously monitor IT environment

66
Q

Remediation

A

Apply Patches -Update configurations -Deactivate unnecessary services and channels

67
Q

Mitigation

A

Compensating Network Controls - Procedural or Physical Controls

68
Q

Script Kiddies

A

tend to lack motivation and rely on script created by more ad- vanced hackers. They utilize easy to use software to do things such as port scanning. Blue hats are “vindictive script kiddies”.

69
Q

Green Hat

A

newbie hackers. Unlike script kiddies, green hat hackers have the drive to become a more advanced hacker

70
Q

Black Hat

A

malicious hacker who hacks for personal gain, typically financial

71
Q

White Hat/Ethical Hackers

A

Use their skills in order to help individuals, businesses and gov- ernment.

72
Q

Grey Hat

A

: shifts between ethical and non-ethical hacking practices

73
Q

Hacktivists:

A

Digital vigilantes working to right a perceived wrong in the world

74
Q

Nation State Hackers (AKA APT)

A

government employees who attempt to acquire classified informa- tion about other governments

75
Q

Malicious Insider

A

: a disgruntled employee or corporate spy

76
Q

Microsoft secure development lifecycle 12 parts

A

1) Provide training 2)Define security requirements 3)Define met- rics and compliance reporting 4) Perform threat modeling 5) Establish design requirementsà6) Define and use cryptography standards 7)Manage the security risk of using 3rd party compo- nentsà8) Use approved tools 9) Perform SAST 10) Perform DAST 11)Perform penetration testing 12) Establish a standard incident response process

77
Q

permission Read (r)

A

Having read permissions grants the right to read the contents of the file and read the permissions of a directory.

78
Q

Permission write(w)

A

Implies the ability to change the contents of a file. Or create new files in a directory

79
Q

Permission Execute (x)

A

the right to execute the files if they are programs. Regarding directories, it allows you to enter any directories and access files

80
Q

Privilege escalation

A

exploiting a bug or design flaw to gain elevated access to re- sources that are normally protected from a user or application

81
Q

Vertical privilege escalation

A

o a lower level privilege user accesses functions or content revised for higher privilege users or applications

82
Q

Horizontal privilege escalation

A

o a normal user accesses functions or content reserved for other normal users

83
Q

Role Based Access Controls

A

Type of permissions that only allow a person to have the permis- sions necessary to complete their role. For example, an employ will only be given permissions needed to complete their job. Pre- vents lower level employees from accessing additional information that is not relevant to them

84
Q

Threat Modeling

A

a process by which potential threats, such as structural vulnera- bilities or the absence of appropriate safeguards, can be identi- fied, enumerated, and mitigations can be prioritized. This is about finding problems should be done early in the development.

85
Q

Asset based approach (TM)

A

lists all of the assets and considers how attacker could threaten them

86
Q

Modeling Attacker

A

Talking about human threat agents can make the threat seem real

87
Q

Software model

A

models that focus on software being built or system being de- ployed

88
Q

Trust boundary

A

any place where entities of different privilege interact. Threats tend to cluster around trust boundaries

89
Q

Dataflow Diagrams (DFD) (Software model)

A

follows the flows of data often ideal for threat modeling

90
Q

Unified modeling language (UML) (Software model)

A

Fairly complex if starting from scratch likely can be adapted

91
Q

Swim line diagrams (Software model)

A

o represent flows between various participants; each lane edge is labeled to identify a participant; each message is represented by a line between participants.

92
Q

state diagram (Software model)

A

represents the various states a system could be in and the tran- sitions between those states.

93
Q

STRIDE

A

STRIDE: A well accepted approach to thinking of threats when threat modeling: Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of privilege.

94
Q

spoofing

A

Pretending to be someone or something other than yourself. This VIOLATES AUTHENTICATION.

95
Q

Tampering

A

Modification of something on a disk in memory or network. This VIOLATES INTEGRITY

96
Q

Repudiation

A

claiming that you did not do something VIOLATES NONREPUDI- ATION o Information disclosure - providing information to someone not authorized to see it VIOLATES CONFIDENTIALITY

97
Q

Denial of Service

A

Absorbing the resources needed to provide a service. VIOLATES AVAILABILITY.

98
Q

Information Disclosure

A

providing information to someone not authorized to see it VIO- LATES CONFIDENTALLITY

99
Q

elevation of privilege

A

Allowing someone to do something they are not authorized to do. Violates AUTHORIZATION

100
Q

Data tier languages and Protocols List them

A

SQL, Network file system NFS, Standard messaging block (SMB), Rsyslog

101
Q

SQL

A

o Structured Query Language - SQL - A language used in programming and designed to manage data held in databases. PORTS: 3306 (MySQL/MariaDB)>5432 Postgres>1433 MS SQL

102
Q

Network file system (NFS)

A

Distributed file system protocol runs on port: 2249

103
Q

Standard messaging block (SMB)

A

o A network protocol for shared access to files printers and serial ports (445 or 139)

104
Q

Rsyslog

A

A utility for sending logs to remote log systems

105
Q

Protecting Data (5 rules)

A

Minimize attack surface, Principle of least privilege, Encryption, Tokenization, Federation

106
Q

Minimize attack surface

A

Minimize the attack surface area: Implement physical, Network, logistical controls on data.

107
Q

Principle of least privilege

A

access to data should be controlled by permissions that are veri- fied before allowing users to access the data.

108
Q

Encryption

A

prevents data visibility in the event of unauthorized access or theft

109
Q

Tokenization

A

Substituting sensitive data with non-sensitive equivalent. The to- ken is then used to map back to the data

110
Q

Federation

A

A type of meta-database file system that is geographically de- centralized and transparently maps multiple databases in to one single one.

111
Q

NICE: National Initiative for Cybersecurity Education (parts and what they do

A

o Categories: provide organizational structure o Specialty Areas: subgroups of categories containing cybersecu- rity work.o Work Roles: the most detailed grouping of cybersecurity related work which includes KSAs and tasks for the role.o Knowledge, skills and abilities: The skills required to perform a work role.o Task - specific task assigned to the work role

112
Q

OWASP

A

Open Web Application Security Project

113
Q

OWASP TOP 10: list them

A

Top ten critical security risks to applications A1: Injection A2: Bro- ken authentication A3: Sensitive data exposure A4: XML External Entities A5: Broken access control A6: Security misconfiguration A7: Cross Site Scripting (XSS) A8: Insecure deserialization A9: Vulnerable components A10: Insufficient logging and monitoring.

114
Q

SQLi

A

Injection of a string in to a query in order to modify a response: attacker sends hostile data in to an interpreter How does it work: There are flaws in the code that when a specific string is injected do something different than they were meant to do.

115
Q

SQLi mitigation (3 parts)

A

requires keeping data separate from commands and queries. Use a vetted library or framework that does not allow this weakness to occur or provides constructs that make this weakness easier to avoid.”o Never Insert Untrusted Data Except in Allowed Locations o HTML Escape Before Inserting Untrusted Data into HTML Ele- ment Contento Use a trusted library”

116
Q

XSS - Cross Site Scripting

A

A type of application attack where the attacker takes advantage of scripting and input validation vulnerabilities in an interactive website to attack legitimate users.

117
Q

Reflected XSS:

A

The application or API includes invalidated or un-escaped user input as HTML output.

118
Q

Stored XSS

A

The application or API stores unsanitized user input that can be viewed at a later date.

119
Q

DOM XSS

A

JavaScript frameworks, single-page applications, and APIs that dynamically include attacker-controllable data to a page are vul- nerable to DOM XSS

120
Q

XSS mitigation

A

Escaping untrusted HTTP request data based on the context in the HTML output, Using frameworks that automatically escape XSS by design, such as the latest Ruby on Rails and React JS.

121
Q

Static Application Security Testing (SAST):

A

the analysis of computer software that is performed WITHOUT executing programs.

122
Q

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

A

the analysis of computer programs DURING their execution. DAST does not require the source code and therefore detects vulnera- bilities by performing attacks itself.

123
Q

Private: cloud infrastructure

A

operated solely for a single organization

124
Q

Public cloud infrastructure

A

services are rendered over a network that is open for public use

125
Q

Hybrid cloud

A

a composition of public cloud and private environment

126
Q

Infrastructure as a service

A

refers to online services that provide high-level APIs used to deref- erence various low-level details of underlying network infrastruc- ture like physical computing resources,location, data partitioning, scaling, security, backup etc.

127
Q

Platform as a service

A

consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infra- structure. This includes the network, servers, operating systems or storage. The user does control the deployed applications and possible the configuration settings for the application hosting en- vironment.

128
Q

Software as a Service (SaaS)

A

the applications are accessible via a thin client interface such as a web browser or program interface. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure, including network, servers, operating systems, storage and even individual application capabilities.

129
Q

Networking Security Logs

A

Primarily contain computer security-related information

130
Q

Operating System logs

A

contains system events and audit records

131
Q

Application logs

A

contains application level events or audit information

132
Q

Viruses

A

typically hidden within another seemingly innocuous program. It can create copies of itself and insert them into other programs and files to perform a harmful action. Uncommon today and comprises less than 10% of all malware

133
Q

Worms

A

distinctive trait is that it is self-replicating and can spread without user action. Viruses require the user to interact with the corrupt- ed/malicious file

134
Q

Trojan Horse

A

Masquerades as a legitimate program but contains malicious code. A trojan requires the user to execute the corrupted/malicious file. Typically spread via social engineering

135
Q

Ransomware

A

most ransomware programs are trojans, which means they must be spread through social engineering of some sort. Once the user executes the corrupted/malicious file, it looks for and encrypts the users’ files. The hacker then holds the files as hostage in exchange for a ransom. Can be prevented by creating a good backup. According to studies, about 25% of victims choose to pay the ransom while 30% do not get their files unlocked

136
Q

Rootkit

A

if you get infected with a Rootkit, you’re basically **ed. Rootkits allow the hacker to have “root” privilege and create/edit/delete files as they please. Rootkits can conceal themselves from anti-mal- ware systems and are very difficult to detect. This is because “root” privilege is greater than that of the victim/user. Rootkits are extraordinarily hard to create and only the most advanced attacks utilize them. Tech companies are very proactive about patching vulnerabilities that are susceptible to a Rootkit.

137
Q

Backdoor

A

a method of bypassing normal authentication procedures, typically over a connection to a network such as the internet. Backdoor allow the hacker to spy, invisibly, on the victims activities. May be installed by Trojan horses, worms, implants or “other methods”.

138
Q

Adware

A

attempts to expose the victim to unwanted and potentially ma- licious advertising. Common adware programs may re-direct a user’s browser searches to a copycat page that contains promo- tions for other products

139
Q

Botnet

A

a logical collection of internet-connected devices whose security has been compromised and control ceded to a third party. Each compromised device is known as “bot”. Botnets are rented out by cyber criminals as commodities for a variety of purposes (such as a DDoS attack)

140
Q

Signature Based Detection

A

many viruses have a “signature”, or a recognizable series of ones and zeros. Signature based anti-virus programs work by spotting these signatures and stopping the files before they can cause damage

141
Q

Behavior Based Detection

A

monitors system processes to determine if a program is attempt- ing to engage in malicious behavior against the operating system

142
Q

Quarantining Removal

A

the most common first step, works by moving the malicious file into a protected area on the hard drive. This area is separate from any other file that could activate the malicious software

143
Q

Startup Detection/Removal

A

aims to stop the initialization and spread of the virus during the start up process

144
Q

Restore points

A

Operating system “restore points” provides administrators with a known working point to which they can restore the settings back to.