INFO Flashcards
three indicators for remedial training
near miss
fireground problem
performance deficiency
what percentage of LODD occur responding to and from emergencies
25%
5 basic causes of accidents
improper backing
reckless driving by the public
excessive speed
lack of driving skills and performance
poor apparatus design and maintenance
in what conditions do most accidents occur
daylight on dry road
6 accident factors involving driver error
overconfidence
inability to recognize dangerous situation
misunderstanding apparatus capabilities
lack of knowledge of how to operate controls of apparatus in emergency
false sense of security
excitement
air pressure gauge normal PSI
100-120
how much psi required to release air brake
60
oil pressure psi
5-70
normal engine temperature
170-200
normal transmission temp and max temp
150-200, 250 max
battery voltage
13-14V
1/2 of fuel or def = ___?
empty
when is the only time engine brake/retarder is not used
slick road conditions
how long do you let starter motor cool if engine does not start within 15 seconds
60 seconds
how long do you let engine idle before putting into gear
3-5 minutes in non-emergency
few seconds for emergency
how much fuel is used per hour when engine is in idle
1/2 gal/hour
angle of approach
front tires to lowest point on front
angle of departure
rear tires to lowest point to rear
breakover angle
wheel base midpoint to both front and rear tires
what does NFPA 1901 say about seatbelts
seatbelt must be provided for each seat on apparatus
what does NFPA 1500 state about seatbelts
all riders must be seated and belted when vehicle is in motion
what are 3 exceptions to NFPA 1500
providing pt care, loading hose, training to drive tiller
4 EVO privileges by NM
allowed to exceed max speed limit
allowed to park or stand irrespective of code
allowed to pass stop sign after slowing down
allowed to buck traffic
(only when going code 3 and with due regard)
what two questions does court ask in event of accident
was it a true emergency and were you operating with due regard
four AFR policies regarding driving code 3
max of 10 mph over speed limit (with good weather and light traffic)
proceed thru red light/stop sign after full stop
buck traffic 1 block within incident
can park irrespective of direction
what distances are warning devices effective at what speeds
40mph: 300ft
50mph: “out run” effectiveness
60mph: 12 ft
at what distance must a single flashing red light be visible in normal conditions
500ft
what lane do you pass going code 3
far left
8 times you must come to complete stop when going code 3
directed by law enforcement
red lights
stop sign
negative right of way
blind intersection
driver cannot account for all lanes of traffic
stopped school bus with flashing lights
other intersection hazards
what to do at intersection when all lanes are blocked going code 3
turn off sirens 200ft back
leave lights on and stop 100ft back
never forced traffic to proceed against red lights
what does NFPA 1500 say about red lights
complete stop
how far do you travel behind another EV going code 3
at least 500ft
when is the only time you are allowed to pass another EV going code 3
EV is disabled or delayed
what must you have prior to passing another EV going code 3
radio communications
per NFPA 1901, a vehicle of what weight requires an auxiliary brake system
over 36,000lbs
what 3 situations require use of wheel chocks
parking on a slope
when pump is engaged
when operating aerial device
what documents must EVO have on them when operating a fire apparatus
COP and class E license
if EV is involved in accident, who will be summoned to scene
supervisor, BC, APD
how long do you have to complete green accident form
48 hours
who is required to sign accident form
supervisor, BC, operator, fire chief (last signature)
all accidents resulting in what 3 things require post accident drug test
death
injury and medical treatment/transport is required
vehicle incurs disabling damage
AFR ETOH policy
no ETOH 4 hours before shift or 8 hours after accident or until post-accident drug test
when is level 1 staging in effect
when 3 or more companies are responding
what units proceed directly to scene for fire/hazmat incident for level 1 response
1st in engine, ladder, battalion chief, and rescue
where do units in level 1 staging stage
1 block from incident, uncommitted, in direction of travel
what two situations do level 2 staging go into effect for
all 2nd or 3rd alarm fire incidents and 1st alarm medical
command desires to maintain reserve of resources in central location
what are the three civil disturbance tiers
tier 1: incident involves potential for violence
tier 2: actual act of violence occurs toward FF
tier 3: series of acts of violence have occurred in specific area of city
staging for three civil disturbance tiers
tier 1: stand by for PD
tier 2: 1/2 mile from where act occurred, police escort for remainder of shift, surrounding stations remain in quarts, stations inside perimeter will be relocated
tier 3: 1 or more miles away, command post outside of area, level 2 stage near command post, APD escort
4 requirements for tier 2 and 3 civil disturbances
full PPE, position for egress, lights okay but no sirens, relocated all outside equipment
fire apparatus should be spotted at least how many feet away from building
30
you should catch your own hydrant except in what 2 situations
urgent rescue
incipient stage fire that can be extinguished with water can
3 levels of wildland response
level 1: single engine, small grass fire
level 2: all units from closest WL station
level 3: full task force
for response to hazmat incident, stage vehicle
uphill and upwind
what 6 events must PAR be conducted for
missing/trapped FF
change in strategy
hazardous event
“all clear” after search
“fire under control”
10 minutes of time elapsed
what does PTO stand for
power take-off
how long should truck idle for before shutting down
3-5 minutes for non-emergent
30-60 seconds for emergent
what does PDP stand for
pump discharge pressure
4 factors that effect fire stream
velocity, gravity, wind, and friction with air
4 nozzle influences
operating pressure, nozzle design, nozzle adjustment, condition of nozzle orifice
3 types of handline nozzles
solid, fog, broken stream
master stream nozzles flow how many GPMs
350 or more
SM20 GPM flow range
60-200
SM30 GPM flow range
70-325 GPM
akromatic flow range
500-2000
broken stream nozzle pressure
100 psi
akron piercing nozzle psi and gpm
100 PSI (max of 200)
125 GPM
vindicator PSI and GPM
50-100 PSI
1 3/4” 250 GPM
2/12” 325 GPM
vindicator master stream psi and gpm
85 PSI and 1000 GPM
define friction loss
loss of pressure created by turbulence of water moving against the interior wall of a hose or pipe
as length of hose increases, friction loss ___
increases
as diameter of hose increases, friction loss ___
decreases
rate of increase in friction loss is ___ than rate of increase of flow
greater than
max psi for yellow 5”
185 psi
max psi for green hose
275 psi
100’ of dry 5” weight
105lbs
200’ of wet 5” weighs (how many gallons)
900lbs, 95gallons
elevation pressure (psi per foot and psi per floor)
0.434 psi per foot
5 psi per floor
max flow for deck gun
1250 gpm
max psi for portable ground monitor
200 psi
nozzle pressure and gpms for akron mercury 500
80 psi and 500 gpm
aerial fog and solid stream psi
fog - 100 psi
solid - 80 psi
2 hose requirements for supplying standpipe
two 2 1/2” hoses
max 100 ft per hose
two types of fire pumps
positive displacement
centrifugal
two types of positive displacement pump pistons
single acting
double acting
two types of centrifugal impellers
open vane
sealed (AFR uses)
single stage pump
single stage impeller accepts water from both sides of one impeller
two stage pump
water flows from one impeller to the next, boosting the pressure
higher pressure, lower flow
two modes two stage pump is able to function in
volume (parallel)
series (pressure)
what is the max psi for a transfer valve in two stage pump
75 psi
pump capacity percentages with corresponding psi
100% at 150 psi
70% at 200 psi
50% at 250 psi
5 types of power mounting and drive arrangements
auxiliary driven
power take off drive
front mount pumps
rear mount pumps
midship transfer drive (AFR)
NFPA 1901 states pump must be constructed of what
corrosion resistant material
NFPA 1901 states pump must be tested to what PSI before being placed in service
500 PSI
NFPA 1901 water tank capacity and capability
500 gallows flow 500 GPM
less than 500 gallons must flow 250 GPM
NFPA 1901 states all valves 3” or larger must be equipped with what
slow acting control valve
NFPA 1901 states pressure control device must operate within/after what
3-10 seconds after discharge pressure raises at least 30 psi above set pressure
if PDP remains less than ___ for more than ___, engine speed will automatically return to idle
30 psi, 5 seconds
vacuum prime must be established within ___ for pump capacity of ___
30 seconds, 1500 GPM or less
45 seconds, greater than 1500 GPM
two times you use engine cooler
outside temp above 80 degrees
extended periods of pumping
engine temp should not be lowered below how many degrees
170-200
how do you connect for dual pump
intake to intake
how do you connect for tandem pumping
discharge to intake
what pressure do the supply and relay pumpers pump at for constant pressure method relay pumping
175 psi
what is the atmospheric pressure at sea level
14.7 psi
what is the atmospheric pressure in abq
12.2 psi
how many feet of lift is needed for drafting
10 ft
how many inches of clearance should a strainer have on all sides
24”
what psi should PDP be set to when operating discharge from draft
50-100
when drafting in throttle mode, a steady stream of water should be discharged under the apparatus by using the primer within how many seconds
45
4 components of foam tetrahedron
water
air
foam concentrate
mechanical agitation
what is the range for foam proportioning percentage
0.1-6%
what is range for Class A foam
0.1-3%
what is range for class B foam (hydrocarbons and polar solvents)
1-6%
hydrocarbons: 1-3%
polar solvents: 3-6%
3 methods for foam application
roll on
bank down
rain down
max psi for foam pump
400 psi
what type of pump is foam pump
positive displacement pump
3 positions of aerial ladder
base, top rails, rungs
narrowest portion of aerial ladder can be no narrower than how many inches per NFPA 1901
18”
per NFPA 1901, aerial rungs are spaced ___ on center
14”
per NFPA 1901, aerial ladder less than 110 ft required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ___
120 seconds or less
per NFPA 1901, aerial ladder 100 ft or greater is required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ___
180 seconds or less
per NFPA 1901, aerial platform is required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ____
150 seconds or less
three classes of ladders
aerial ladders
elevating platforms
water towers
three types of aerial platforms
telescoping elevating platform
articulating elevating platform
water tower
four types of valves in hydraulic system
check valves
relief valves
counterbalance valves
selector valves
three types of ladder stabilizers
A frame
box
straight jack
minimum amount of ground ladders required to be on aerial apparatus per NFPA 1901
115 ft
___ extension at __ angles = ____
long, low, high stress
four main tactical uses for aerial device
rescue, access to upper floors, ventilation, fire suppression
four operational priorities for ladder
rescue
exposure protection
ventilation
elevated fire attack
three routes for rescue
1st: interior stairwell
2nd: reliable exterior fire escape
3rd: use of ground or aerial ladders
what mode should pin able waterway be secured when ladder is bedded
rescue mode
if wind is over __ all weights are ___
50 mph, halved (reduced by 50%)
ladder should be spotted a minimum of __ feet away from power lines
10 ft
two angles of aerial device operation
longitudinal axis
perpendicular axis
which axis has least stability
perpendicular axis
all AFR ladders are designed to operate in what position
cantilever (not rested)
max loading for ladder is between __ and __ degrees from horizontal
70, 80
collapse zone = __ times building height
1.5
what order of priority are victims rescued in (4)
most severely threatened by fire conditions
largest number of groups of people
remainder of people in fire area
people in exposed area
where do you position for window ops in aerial
place tip with first rung even with sill and 4-6” off the objective (cantilever)
where do you position for window ops in platform
place top rail of platform even with the sill
where do you position for roof rescue in aerial
place tip at least 6 ft above roof line
where do you position for roof rescue in platform
place bottom of platform at the roof or parapet level (still cantilever)
three conditions that may effect exposure
weather
building construction
space between fire and exposures
for close-up blitz attack, what is the best angle
30 degrees, off the ceiling, nozzle even with windowsill
every 250 GPM flowing will add ___ to structure every minute
1 ton
if fighting fire in building 5 floors or more, position ladder on ___ of pumper
inside
if fighting fire in building 4 floors or less, position ladder on ___ of pumper
outside
what 2 types of radio is in wildland apparatus
800 MHz and bendex king radio
how many gallons of water does type 6 brush truck hold
400 gallons
max PSI and GPM wildland pump
428 psi, 105 gpm
fuel consumption for wildland pump
2 gallons per hour
floato pump and mark 3 fuel ratio
24:1
chain saw fuel ration
50:1
drip torch fuel ratio
3:1 (diesel: unleaded)
wildland foam range
0/1%
Mark 3 max gpm and psi
89gpm at 50 psi
25gpm at 300 psi
two types of wildland threads
NPSH and NH
floato pump minimum depth of water
6”
floato pump max gpm and psi
140 gpm at 30 psi
10 gpm at 105 psi
aerial ladder stabilizers will correct for ___ degrees of slope and grade
3
safe operating angles at full load capacity for aerial ladder
0-3.5 slope
0-5.5 grade (front to rear)
safe operating angles at reduced load capacity for aerial ladder
3.6-5.5 slope
5.6-6.5 grade
outrigger pressure with and without pads
150 psi without, 75 psi with
emergency hydraulic power operation to cooldown time ratio for old pierce, platform, and seagrave
old pierce: 7:30
platform: 30:30
seagrave: 5:25
when stabilizing ladder with outriggers, rear tire should be off the ground about __ to ___ inches
0.5 - 1 inches
when in the green on the level indicator, the ladder is ___
at 100% full load/operational capacity
safety pins should be placed from the __ and face ___ the ladder
outside, toward
4 steps for ladder operation when raising ladder
elevate, rotate, extend, lower
4 steps for ladder operation when bedding ladder
elevate, retract, rotate, lower
if person is on tip, never __ or __ the ladder
retract or extend
when operating tip controls, aerial operates at __ of normal control speed
1/4
when do you use override controls
to get out of a dangerous situation
what should you make sure of before retracting ladder
that drain for waterway is open and all personnel are removed
the aerial ladder should be bedded at ___ psi
1800
aerial generator watts, volts, and amperage
10,000/6,000 watts
120/240 volts
80/40 amps
how many feet of extension cord are on each side of the ladder
200ft
if A-frame ladder is operated on a slope, which end should face downhill
front of truck with ladder extended over rear at angle of 45 degrees from center line
when operating over the downhill side of the vehicle, and vehicle suspension cannot be fully unloaded on the nonworking side, what happens to the ladder load capacity
reduced by 50%
what PSI does the A frame ladder bed at
0 psi
two types of platform ladders
100ft rear mount
95ft mid mount
safe operating angles at full load for platform ladder
0-5 slope and grade
safe operating angles at reduced load for platform ladder
5.1-8 slope and grade
fog curtain gpm for aerial platform
75 gpm
two ways to get water to pump
onboard water tank
external source
ladder internal relief valve pressure
230-250 psi
four indicators inside cab that truck is in pump
gear 4
feel/hear engage
positive 10-15 mph
2 green lights
three indicators on pump panel that truck is in pump
middle white light
green light
positive discharge pressure
hydrant pressure in ABQ
20-80 psi
residential and high value commercial hydrant distances
residential: 500ft
high value commercial: 300ft
