INFO Flashcards

1
Q

three indicators for remedial training

A

near miss
fireground problem
performance deficiency

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2
Q

what percentage of LODD occur responding to and from emergencies

A

25%

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3
Q

5 basic causes of accidents

A

improper backing
reckless driving by the public
excessive speed
lack of driving skills and performance
poor apparatus design and maintenance

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4
Q

in what conditions do most accidents occur

A

daylight on dry road

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5
Q

6 accident factors involving driver error

A

overconfidence
inability to recognize dangerous situation
misunderstanding apparatus capabilities
lack of knowledge of how to operate controls of apparatus in emergency
false sense of security
excitement

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6
Q

air pressure gauge normal PSI

A

100-120

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7
Q

how much psi required to release air brake

A

60

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8
Q

oil pressure psi

A

5-70

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9
Q

normal engine temperature

A

170-200

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10
Q

normal transmission temp and max temp

A

150-200, 250 max

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11
Q

battery voltage

A

13-14V

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12
Q

1/2 of fuel or def = ___?

A

empty

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13
Q

when is the only time engine brake/retarder is not used

A

slick road conditions

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14
Q

how long do you let starter motor cool if engine does not start within 15 seconds

A

60 seconds

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15
Q

how long do you let engine idle before putting into gear

A

3-5 minutes in non-emergency
few seconds for emergency

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16
Q

how much fuel is used per hour when engine is in idle

A

1/2 gal/hour

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17
Q

angle of approach

A

front tires to lowest point on front

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18
Q

angle of departure

A

rear tires to lowest point to rear

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19
Q

breakover angle

A

wheel base midpoint to both front and rear tires

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20
Q

what does NFPA 1901 say about seatbelts

A

seatbelt must be provided for each seat on apparatus

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21
Q

what does NFPA 1500 state about seatbelts

A

all riders must be seated and belted when vehicle is in motion

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22
Q

what are 3 exceptions to NFPA 1500

A

providing pt care, loading hose, training to drive tiller

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23
Q

4 EVO privileges by NM

A

allowed to exceed max speed limit
allowed to park or stand irrespective of code
allowed to pass stop sign after slowing down
allowed to buck traffic
(only when going code 3 and with due regard)

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24
Q

what two questions does court ask in event of accident

A

was it a true emergency and were you operating with due regard

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25
four AFR policies regarding driving code 3
max of 10 mph over speed limit (with good weather and light traffic) proceed thru red light/stop sign after full stop buck traffic 1 block within incident can park irrespective of direction
26
what distances are warning devices effective at what speeds
40mph: 300ft 50mph: "out run" effectiveness 60mph: 12 ft
27
at what distance must a single flashing red light be visible in normal conditions
500ft
28
what lane do you pass going code 3
far left
29
8 times you must come to complete stop when going code 3
directed by law enforcement red lights stop sign negative right of way blind intersection driver cannot account for all lanes of traffic stopped school bus with flashing lights other intersection hazards
30
what to do at intersection when all lanes are blocked going code 3
turn off sirens 200ft back leave lights on and stop 100ft back never forced traffic to proceed against red lights
31
what does NFPA 1500 say about red lights
complete stop
32
how far do you travel behind another EV going code 3
at least 500ft
33
when is the only time you are allowed to pass another EV going code 3
EV is disabled or delayed
34
what must you have prior to passing another EV going code 3
radio communications
35
per NFPA 1901, a vehicle of what weight requires an auxiliary brake system
over 36,000lbs
36
what 3 situations require use of wheel chocks
parking on a slope when pump is engaged when operating aerial device
37
what documents must EVO have on them when operating a fire apparatus
COP and class E license
38
if EV is involved in accident, who will be summoned to scene
supervisor, BC, APD
39
how long do you have to complete green accident form
48 hours
40
who is required to sign accident form
supervisor, BC, operator, fire chief (last signature)
41
all accidents resulting in what 3 things require post accident drug test
death injury and medical treatment/transport is required vehicle incurs disabling damage
42
AFR ETOH policy
no ETOH 4 hours before shift or 8 hours after accident or until post-accident drug test
43
when is level 1 staging in effect
when 3 or more companies are responding
44
what units proceed directly to scene for fire/hazmat incident for level 1 response
1st in engine, ladder, battalion chief, and rescue
45
where do units in level 1 staging stage
1 block from incident, uncommitted, in direction of travel
46
what two situations do level 2 staging go into effect for
all 2nd or 3rd alarm fire incidents and 1st alarm medical command desires to maintain reserve of resources in central location
47
what are the three civil disturbance tiers
tier 1: incident involves potential for violence tier 2: actual act of violence occurs toward FF tier 3: series of acts of violence have occurred in specific area of city
48
staging for three civil disturbance tiers
tier 1: stand by for PD tier 2: 1/2 mile from where act occurred, police escort for remainder of shift, surrounding stations remain in quarts, stations inside perimeter will be relocated tier 3: 1 or more miles away, command post outside of area, level 2 stage near command post, APD escort
49
4 requirements for tier 2 and 3 civil disturbances
full PPE, position for egress, lights okay but no sirens, relocated all outside equipment
50
fire apparatus should be spotted at least how many feet away from building
30
51
you should catch your own hydrant except in what 2 situations
urgent rescue incipient stage fire that can be extinguished with water can
52
3 levels of wildland response
level 1: single engine, small grass fire level 2: all units from closest WL station level 3: full task force
53
for response to hazmat incident, stage vehicle
uphill and upwind
54
what 6 events must PAR be conducted for
missing/trapped FF change in strategy hazardous event "all clear" after search "fire under control" 10 minutes of time elapsed
55
what does PTO stand for
power take-off
56
how long should truck idle for before shutting down
3-5 minutes for non-emergent 30-60 seconds for emergent
57
what does PDP stand for
pump discharge pressure
58
4 factors that effect fire stream
velocity, gravity, wind, and friction with air
59
4 nozzle influences
operating pressure, nozzle design, nozzle adjustment, condition of nozzle orifice
60
3 types of handline nozzles
solid, fog, broken stream
61
master stream nozzles flow how many GPMs
350 or more
62
SM20 GPM flow range
60-200
63
SM30 GPM flow range
70-325 GPM
64
akromatic flow range
500-2000
65
broken stream nozzle pressure
100 psi
66
akron piercing nozzle psi and gpm
100 PSI (max of 200) 125 GPM
67
vindicator PSI and GPM
50-100 PSI 1 3/4" 250 GPM 2/12" 325 GPM
68
vindicator master stream psi and gpm
85 PSI and 1000 GPM
69
define friction loss
loss of pressure created by turbulence of water moving against the interior wall of a hose or pipe
70
as length of hose increases, friction loss ___
increases
71
as diameter of hose increases, friction loss ___
decreases
72
rate of increase in friction loss is ___ than rate of increase of flow
greater than
73
max psi for yellow 5"
185 psi
74
max psi for green hose
275 psi
75
100' of dry 5" weight
105lbs
76
200' of wet 5" weighs (how many gallons)
900lbs, 95gallons
77
elevation pressure (psi per foot and psi per floor)
0.434 psi per foot 5 psi per floor
78
max flow for deck gun
1250 gpm
79
max psi for portable ground monitor
200 psi
80
nozzle pressure and gpms for akron mercury 500
80 psi and 500 gpm
81
aerial fog and solid stream psi
fog - 100 psi solid - 80 psi
82
2 hose requirements for supplying standpipe
two 2 1/2" hoses max 100 ft per hose
83
two types of fire pumps
positive displacement centrifugal
84
two types of positive displacement pump pistons
single acting double acting
85
two types of centrifugal impellers
open vane sealed (AFR uses)
86
single stage pump
single stage impeller accepts water from both sides of one impeller
87
two stage pump
water flows from one impeller to the next, boosting the pressure higher pressure, lower flow
88
two modes two stage pump is able to function in
volume (parallel) series (pressure)
89
what is the max psi for a transfer valve in two stage pump
75 psi
90
pump capacity percentages with corresponding psi
100% at 150 psi 70% at 200 psi 50% at 250 psi
91
5 types of power mounting and drive arrangements
auxiliary driven power take off drive front mount pumps rear mount pumps midship transfer drive (AFR)
92
NFPA 1901 states pump must be constructed of what
corrosion resistant material
93
NFPA 1901 states pump must be tested to what PSI before being placed in service
500 PSI
94
NFPA 1901 water tank capacity and capability
500 gallows flow 500 GPM less than 500 gallons must flow 250 GPM
95
NFPA 1901 states all valves 3" or larger must be equipped with what
slow acting control valve
96
NFPA 1901 states pressure control device must operate within/after what
3-10 seconds after discharge pressure raises at least 30 psi above set pressure
97
if PDP remains less than ___ for more than ___, engine speed will automatically return to idle
30 psi, 5 seconds
98
vacuum prime must be established within ___ for pump capacity of ___
30 seconds, 1500 GPM or less 45 seconds, greater than 1500 GPM
99
two times you use engine cooler
outside temp above 80 degrees extended periods of pumping
100
engine temp should not be lowered below how many degrees
170-200
101
how do you connect for dual pump
intake to intake
102
how do you connect for tandem pumping
discharge to intake
103
what pressure do the supply and relay pumpers pump at for constant pressure method relay pumping
175 psi
104
what is the atmospheric pressure at sea level
14.7 psi
105
what is the atmospheric pressure in abq
12.2 psi
106
how many feet of lift is needed for drafting
10 ft
107
how many inches of clearance should a strainer have on all sides
24"
108
what psi should PDP be set to when operating discharge from draft
50-100
109
when drafting in throttle mode, a steady stream of water should be discharged under the apparatus by using the primer within how many seconds
45
110
4 components of foam tetrahedron
water air foam concentrate mechanical agitation
111
what is the range for foam proportioning percentage
0.1-6%
112
what is range for Class A foam
0.1-3%
113
what is range for class B foam (hydrocarbons and polar solvents)
1-6% hydrocarbons: 1-3% polar solvents: 3-6%
114
3 methods for foam application
roll on bank down rain down
115
max psi for foam pump
400 psi
116
what type of pump is foam pump
positive displacement pump
117
3 positions of aerial ladder
base, top rails, rungs
118
narrowest portion of aerial ladder can be no narrower than how many inches per NFPA 1901
18"
119
per NFPA 1901, aerial rungs are spaced ___ on center
14"
120
per NFPA 1901, aerial ladder less than 110 ft required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ___
120 seconds or less
121
per NFPA 1901, aerial ladder 100 ft or greater is required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ___
180 seconds or less
122
per NFPA 1901, aerial platform is required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ____
150 seconds or less
123
three classes of ladders
aerial ladders elevating platforms water towers
124
three types of aerial platforms
telescoping elevating platform articulating elevating platform water tower
125
four types of valves in hydraulic system
check valves relief valves counterbalance valves selector valves
126
three types of ladder stabilizers
A frame box straight jack
127
minimum amount of ground ladders required to be on aerial apparatus per NFPA 1901
115 ft
128
___ extension at __ angles = ____
long, low, high stress
129
four main tactical uses for aerial device
rescue, access to upper floors, ventilation, fire suppression
130
four operational priorities for ladder
rescue exposure protection ventilation elevated fire attack
131
three routes for rescue
1st: interior stairwell 2nd: reliable exterior fire escape 3rd: use of ground or aerial ladders
132
what mode should pin able waterway be secured when ladder is bedded
rescue mode
133
if wind is over __ all weights are ___
50 mph, halved (reduced by 50%)
134
ladder should be spotted a minimum of __ feet away from power lines
10 ft
135
two angles of aerial device operation
longitudinal axis perpendicular axis
136
which axis has least stability
perpendicular axis
137
all AFR ladders are designed to operate in what position
cantilever (not rested)
138
max loading for ladder is between __ and __ degrees from horizontal
70, 80
139
collapse zone = __ times building height
1.5
140
what order of priority are victims rescued in (4)
most severely threatened by fire conditions largest number of groups of people remainder of people in fire area people in exposed area
141
where do you position for window ops in aerial
place tip with first rung even with sill and 4-6" off the objective (cantilever)
142
where do you position for window ops in platform
place top rail of platform even with the sill
143
where do you position for roof rescue in aerial
place tip at least 6 ft above roof line
144
where do you position for roof rescue in platform
place bottom of platform at the roof or parapet level (still cantilever)
145
three conditions that may effect exposure
weather building construction space between fire and exposures
146
for close-up blitz attack, what is the best angle
30 degrees, off the ceiling, nozzle even with windowsill
147
every 250 GPM flowing will add ___ to structure every minute
1 ton
148
if fighting fire in building 5 floors or more, position ladder on ___ of pumper
inside
149
if fighting fire in building 4 floors or less, position ladder on ___ of pumper
outside
150
what 2 types of radio is in wildland apparatus
800 MHz and bendex king radio
151
how many gallons of water does type 6 brush truck hold
400 gallons
152
max PSI and GPM wildland pump
428 psi, 105 gpm
153
fuel consumption for wildland pump
2 gallons per hour
154
floato pump and mark 3 fuel ratio
24:1
155
chain saw fuel ration
50:1
156
drip torch fuel ratio
3:1 (diesel: unleaded)
157
wildland foam range
0/1%
158
Mark 3 max gpm and psi
89gpm at 50 psi 25gpm at 300 psi
159
two types of wildland threads
NPSH and NH
160
floato pump minimum depth of water
6"
161
floato pump max gpm and psi
140 gpm at 30 psi 10 gpm at 105 psi
162
aerial ladder stabilizers will correct for ___ degrees of slope and grade
3
163
safe operating angles at full load capacity for aerial ladder
0-3.5 slope 0-5.5 grade (front to rear)
164
safe operating angles at reduced load capacity for aerial ladder
3.6-5.5 slope 5.6-6.5 grade
165
outrigger pressure with and without pads
150 psi without, 75 psi with
166
emergency hydraulic power operation to cooldown time ratio for old pierce, platform, and seagrave
old pierce: 7:30 platform: 30:30 seagrave: 5:25
167
when stabilizing ladder with outriggers, rear tire should be off the ground about __ to ___ inches
0.5 - 1 inches
168
when in the green on the level indicator, the ladder is ___
at 100% full load/operational capacity
169
safety pins should be placed from the __ and face ___ the ladder
outside, toward
170
4 steps for ladder operation when raising ladder
elevate, rotate, extend, lower
171
4 steps for ladder operation when bedding ladder
elevate, retract, rotate, lower
172
if person is on tip, never __ or __ the ladder
retract or extend
173
when operating tip controls, aerial operates at __ of normal control speed
1/4
174
when do you use override controls
to get out of a dangerous situation
175
what should you make sure of before retracting ladder
that drain for waterway is open and all personnel are removed
176
the aerial ladder should be bedded at ___ psi
1800
177
aerial generator watts, volts, and amperage
10,000/6,000 watts 120/240 volts 80/40 amps
178
how many feet of extension cord are on each side of the ladder
200ft
179
if A-frame ladder is operated on a slope, which end should face downhill
front of truck with ladder extended over rear at angle of 45 degrees from center line
180
when operating over the downhill side of the vehicle, and vehicle suspension cannot be fully unloaded on the nonworking side, what happens to the ladder load capacity
reduced by 50%
181
what PSI does the A frame ladder bed at
0 psi
182
two types of platform ladders
100ft rear mount 95ft mid mount
183
safe operating angles at full load for platform ladder
0-5 slope and grade
184
safe operating angles at reduced load for platform ladder
5.1-8 slope and grade
185
fog curtain gpm for aerial platform
75 gpm
186
two ways to get water to pump
onboard water tank external source
187
ladder internal relief valve pressure
230-250 psi
188
four indicators inside cab that truck is in pump
gear 4 feel/hear engage positive 10-15 mph 2 green lights
189
three indicators on pump panel that truck is in pump
middle white light green light positive discharge pressure
190
hydrant pressure in ABQ
20-80 psi
191
residential and high value commercial hydrant distances
residential: 500ft high value commercial: 300ft
192