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DRIVERS SCHOOL > INFO > Flashcards

INFO Flashcards

1
Q

three indicators for remedial training

A

near miss
fireground problem
performance deficiency

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2
Q

what percentage of LODD occur responding to and from emergencies

A

25%

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3
Q

5 basic causes of accidents

A

improper backing
reckless driving by the public
excessive speed
lack of driving skills and performance
poor apparatus design and maintenance

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4
Q

in what conditions do most accidents occur

A

daylight on dry road

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5
Q

6 accident factors involving driver error

A

overconfidence
inability to recognize dangerous situation
misunderstanding apparatus capabilities
lack of knowledge of how to operate controls of apparatus in emergency
false sense of security
excitement

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6
Q

air pressure gauge normal PSI

A

100-120

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7
Q

how much psi required to release air brake

A

60

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8
Q

oil pressure psi

A

5-70

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9
Q

normal engine temperature

A

170-200

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10
Q

normal transmission temp and max temp

A

150-200, 250 max

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11
Q

battery voltage

A

13-14V

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12
Q

1/2 of fuel or def = ___?

A

empty

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13
Q

when is the only time engine brake/retarder is not used

A

slick road conditions

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14
Q

how long do you let starter motor cool if engine does not start within 15 seconds

A

60 seconds

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15
Q

how long do you let engine idle before putting into gear

A

3-5 minutes in non-emergency
few seconds for emergency

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16
Q

how much fuel is used per hour when engine is in idle

A

1/2 gal/hour

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17
Q

angle of approach

A

front tires to lowest point on front

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18
Q

angle of departure

A

rear tires to lowest point to rear

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19
Q

breakover angle

A

wheel base midpoint to both front and rear tires

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20
Q

what does NFPA 1901 say about seatbelts

A

seatbelt must be provided for each seat on apparatus

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21
Q

what does NFPA 1500 state about seatbelts

A

all riders must be seated and belted when vehicle is in motion

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22
Q

what are 3 exceptions to NFPA 1500

A

providing pt care, loading hose, training to drive tiller

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23
Q

4 EVO privileges by NM

A

allowed to exceed max speed limit
allowed to park or stand irrespective of code
allowed to pass stop sign after slowing down
allowed to buck traffic
(only when going code 3 and with due regard)

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24
Q

what two questions does court ask in event of accident

A

was it a true emergency and were you operating with due regard

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25
Q

four AFR policies regarding driving code 3

A

max of 10 mph over speed limit (with good weather and light traffic)
proceed thru red light/stop sign after full stop
buck traffic 1 block within incident
can park irrespective of direction

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26
Q

what distances are warning devices effective at what speeds

A

40mph: 300ft
50mph: “out run” effectiveness
60mph: 12 ft

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27
Q

at what distance must a single flashing red light be visible in normal conditions

A

500ft

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28
Q

what lane do you pass going code 3

A

far left

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29
Q

8 times you must come to complete stop when going code 3

A

directed by law enforcement
red lights
stop sign
negative right of way
blind intersection
driver cannot account for all lanes of traffic
stopped school bus with flashing lights
other intersection hazards

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30
Q

what to do at intersection when all lanes are blocked going code 3

A

turn off sirens 200ft back
leave lights on and stop 100ft back
never forced traffic to proceed against red lights

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31
Q

what does NFPA 1500 say about red lights

A

complete stop

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32
Q

how far do you travel behind another EV going code 3

A

at least 500ft

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33
Q

when is the only time you are allowed to pass another EV going code 3

A

EV is disabled or delayed

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34
Q

what must you have prior to passing another EV going code 3

A

radio communications

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35
Q

per NFPA 1901, a vehicle of what weight requires an auxiliary brake system

A

over 36,000lbs

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36
Q

what 3 situations require use of wheel chocks

A

parking on a slope
when pump is engaged
when operating aerial device

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37
Q

what documents must EVO have on them when operating a fire apparatus

A

COP and class E license

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38
Q

if EV is involved in accident, who will be summoned to scene

A

supervisor, BC, APD

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39
Q

how long do you have to complete green accident form

A

48 hours

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40
Q

who is required to sign accident form

A

supervisor, BC, operator, fire chief (last signature)

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41
Q

all accidents resulting in what 3 things require post accident drug test

A

death
injury and medical treatment/transport is required
vehicle incurs disabling damage

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42
Q

AFR ETOH policy

A

no ETOH 4 hours before shift or 8 hours after accident or until post-accident drug test

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43
Q

when is level 1 staging in effect

A

when 3 or more companies are responding

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44
Q

what units proceed directly to scene for fire/hazmat incident for level 1 response

A

1st in engine, ladder, battalion chief, and rescue

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45
Q

where do units in level 1 staging stage

A

1 block from incident, uncommitted, in direction of travel

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46
Q

what two situations do level 2 staging go into effect for

A

all 2nd or 3rd alarm fire incidents and 1st alarm medical
command desires to maintain reserve of resources in central location

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47
Q

what are the three civil disturbance tiers

A

tier 1: incident involves potential for violence
tier 2: actual act of violence occurs toward FF
tier 3: series of acts of violence have occurred in specific area of city

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48
Q

staging for three civil disturbance tiers

A

tier 1: stand by for PD
tier 2: 1/2 mile from where act occurred, police escort for remainder of shift, surrounding stations remain in quarts, stations inside perimeter will be relocated
tier 3: 1 or more miles away, command post outside of area, level 2 stage near command post, APD escort

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49
Q

4 requirements for tier 2 and 3 civil disturbances

A

full PPE, position for egress, lights okay but no sirens, relocated all outside equipment

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50
Q

fire apparatus should be spotted at least how many feet away from building

A

30

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51
Q

you should catch your own hydrant except in what 2 situations

A

urgent rescue
incipient stage fire that can be extinguished with water can

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52
Q

3 levels of wildland response

A

level 1: single engine, small grass fire
level 2: all units from closest WL station
level 3: full task force

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53
Q

for response to hazmat incident, stage vehicle

A

uphill and upwind

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54
Q

what 6 events must PAR be conducted for

A

missing/trapped FF
change in strategy
hazardous event
“all clear” after search
“fire under control”
10 minutes of time elapsed

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55
Q

what does PTO stand for

A

power take-off

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56
Q

how long should truck idle for before shutting down

A

3-5 minutes for non-emergent
30-60 seconds for emergent

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57
Q

what does PDP stand for

A

pump discharge pressure

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58
Q

4 factors that effect fire stream

A

velocity, gravity, wind, and friction with air

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59
Q

4 nozzle influences

A

operating pressure, nozzle design, nozzle adjustment, condition of nozzle orifice

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60
Q

3 types of handline nozzles

A

solid, fog, broken stream

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61
Q

master stream nozzles flow how many GPMs

A

350 or more

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62
Q

SM20 GPM flow range

A

60-200

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63
Q

SM30 GPM flow range

A

70-325 GPM

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64
Q

akromatic flow range

A

500-2000

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65
Q

broken stream nozzle pressure

A

100 psi

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66
Q

akron piercing nozzle psi and gpm

A

100 PSI (max of 200)
125 GPM

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67
Q

vindicator PSI and GPM

A

50-100 PSI
1 3/4” 250 GPM
2/12” 325 GPM

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68
Q

vindicator master stream psi and gpm

A

85 PSI and 1000 GPM

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69
Q

define friction loss

A

loss of pressure created by turbulence of water moving against the interior wall of a hose or pipe

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70
Q

as length of hose increases, friction loss ___

A

increases

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71
Q

as diameter of hose increases, friction loss ___

A

decreases

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72
Q

rate of increase in friction loss is ___ than rate of increase of flow

A

greater than

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73
Q

max psi for yellow 5”

A

185 psi

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74
Q

max psi for green hose

A

275 psi

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75
Q

100’ of dry 5” weight

A

105lbs

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76
Q

200’ of wet 5” weighs (how many gallons)

A

900lbs, 95gallons

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77
Q

elevation pressure (psi per foot and psi per floor)

A

0.434 psi per foot
5 psi per floor

78
Q

max flow for deck gun

A

1250 gpm

79
Q

max psi for portable ground monitor

A

200 psi

80
Q

nozzle pressure and gpms for akron mercury 500

A

80 psi and 500 gpm

81
Q

aerial fog and solid stream psi

A

fog - 100 psi
solid - 80 psi

82
Q

2 hose requirements for supplying standpipe

A

two 2 1/2” hoses
max 100 ft per hose

83
Q

two types of fire pumps

A

positive displacement
centrifugal

84
Q

two types of positive displacement pump pistons

A

single acting
double acting

85
Q

two types of centrifugal impellers

A

open vane
sealed (AFR uses)

86
Q

single stage pump

A

single stage impeller accepts water from both sides of one impeller

87
Q

two stage pump

A

water flows from one impeller to the next, boosting the pressure
higher pressure, lower flow

88
Q

two modes two stage pump is able to function in

A

volume (parallel)
series (pressure)

89
Q

what is the max psi for a transfer valve in two stage pump

A

75 psi

90
Q

pump capacity percentages with corresponding psi

A

100% at 150 psi
70% at 200 psi
50% at 250 psi

91
Q

5 types of power mounting and drive arrangements

A

auxiliary driven
power take off drive
front mount pumps
rear mount pumps
midship transfer drive (AFR)

92
Q

NFPA 1901 states pump must be constructed of what

A

corrosion resistant material

93
Q

NFPA 1901 states pump must be tested to what PSI before being placed in service

A

500 PSI

94
Q

NFPA 1901 water tank capacity and capability

A

500 gallows flow 500 GPM
less than 500 gallons must flow 250 GPM

95
Q

NFPA 1901 states all valves 3” or larger must be equipped with what

A

slow acting control valve

96
Q

NFPA 1901 states pressure control device must operate within/after what

A

3-10 seconds after discharge pressure raises at least 30 psi above set pressure

97
Q

if PDP remains less than ___ for more than ___, engine speed will automatically return to idle

A

30 psi, 5 seconds

98
Q

vacuum prime must be established within ___ for pump capacity of ___

A

30 seconds, 1500 GPM or less
45 seconds, greater than 1500 GPM

99
Q

two times you use engine cooler

A

outside temp above 80 degrees
extended periods of pumping

100
Q

engine temp should not be lowered below how many degrees

A

170-200

101
Q

how do you connect for dual pump

A

intake to intake

102
Q

how do you connect for tandem pumping

A

discharge to intake

103
Q

what pressure do the supply and relay pumpers pump at for constant pressure method relay pumping

A

175 psi

104
Q

what is the atmospheric pressure at sea level

A

14.7 psi

105
Q

what is the atmospheric pressure in abq

A

12.2 psi

106
Q

how many feet of lift is needed for drafting

A

10 ft

107
Q

how many inches of clearance should a strainer have on all sides

A

24”

108
Q

what psi should PDP be set to when operating discharge from draft

A

50-100

109
Q

when drafting in throttle mode, a steady stream of water should be discharged under the apparatus by using the primer within how many seconds

A

45

110
Q

4 components of foam tetrahedron

A

water
air
foam concentrate
mechanical agitation

111
Q

what is the range for foam proportioning percentage

A

0.1-6%

112
Q

what is range for Class A foam

A

0.1-3%

113
Q

what is range for class B foam (hydrocarbons and polar solvents)

A

1-6%
hydrocarbons: 1-3%
polar solvents: 3-6%

114
Q

3 methods for foam application

A

roll on
bank down
rain down

115
Q

max psi for foam pump

A

400 psi

116
Q

what type of pump is foam pump

A

positive displacement pump

117
Q

3 positions of aerial ladder

A

base, top rails, rungs

118
Q

narrowest portion of aerial ladder can be no narrower than how many inches per NFPA 1901

A

18”

119
Q

per NFPA 1901, aerial rungs are spaced ___ on center

A

14”

120
Q

per NFPA 1901, aerial ladder less than 110 ft required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ___

A

120 seconds or less

121
Q

per NFPA 1901, aerial ladder 100 ft or greater is required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ___

A

180 seconds or less

122
Q

per NFPA 1901, aerial platform is required to be raised and rotated 90 degrees in ____

A

150 seconds or less

123
Q

three classes of ladders

A

aerial ladders
elevating platforms
water towers

124
Q

three types of aerial platforms

A

telescoping elevating platform
articulating elevating platform
water tower

125
Q

four types of valves in hydraulic system

A

check valves
relief valves
counterbalance valves
selector valves

126
Q

three types of ladder stabilizers

A

A frame
box
straight jack

127
Q

minimum amount of ground ladders required to be on aerial apparatus per NFPA 1901

A

115 ft

128
Q

___ extension at __ angles = ____

A

long, low, high stress

129
Q

four main tactical uses for aerial device

A

rescue, access to upper floors, ventilation, fire suppression

130
Q

four operational priorities for ladder

A

rescue
exposure protection
ventilation
elevated fire attack

131
Q

three routes for rescue

A

1st: interior stairwell
2nd: reliable exterior fire escape
3rd: use of ground or aerial ladders

132
Q

what mode should pin able waterway be secured when ladder is bedded

A

rescue mode

133
Q

if wind is over __ all weights are ___

A

50 mph, halved (reduced by 50%)

134
Q

ladder should be spotted a minimum of __ feet away from power lines

A

10 ft

135
Q

two angles of aerial device operation

A

longitudinal axis
perpendicular axis

136
Q

which axis has least stability

A

perpendicular axis

137
Q

all AFR ladders are designed to operate in what position

A

cantilever (not rested)

138
Q

max loading for ladder is between __ and __ degrees from horizontal

A

70, 80

139
Q

collapse zone = __ times building height

A

1.5

140
Q

what order of priority are victims rescued in (4)

A

most severely threatened by fire conditions
largest number of groups of people
remainder of people in fire area
people in exposed area

141
Q

where do you position for window ops in aerial

A

place tip with first rung even with sill and 4-6” off the objective (cantilever)

142
Q

where do you position for window ops in platform

A

place top rail of platform even with the sill

143
Q

where do you position for roof rescue in aerial

A

place tip at least 6 ft above roof line

144
Q

where do you position for roof rescue in platform

A

place bottom of platform at the roof or parapet level (still cantilever)

145
Q

three conditions that may effect exposure

A

weather
building construction
space between fire and exposures

146
Q

for close-up blitz attack, what is the best angle

A

30 degrees, off the ceiling, nozzle even with windowsill

147
Q

every 250 GPM flowing will add ___ to structure every minute

A

1 ton

148
Q

if fighting fire in building 5 floors or more, position ladder on ___ of pumper

A

inside

149
Q

if fighting fire in building 4 floors or less, position ladder on ___ of pumper

A

outside

150
Q

what 2 types of radio is in wildland apparatus

A

800 MHz and bendex king radio

151
Q

how many gallons of water does type 6 brush truck hold

A

400 gallons

152
Q

max PSI and GPM wildland pump

A

428 psi, 105 gpm

153
Q

fuel consumption for wildland pump

A

2 gallons per hour

154
Q

floato pump and mark 3 fuel ratio

A

24:1

155
Q

chain saw fuel ration

A

50:1

156
Q

drip torch fuel ratio

A

3:1 (diesel: unleaded)

157
Q

wildland foam range

A

0/1%

158
Q

Mark 3 max gpm and psi

A

89gpm at 50 psi
25gpm at 300 psi

159
Q

two types of wildland threads

A

NPSH and NH

160
Q

floato pump minimum depth of water

A

6”

161
Q

floato pump max gpm and psi

A

140 gpm at 30 psi
10 gpm at 105 psi

162
Q

aerial ladder stabilizers will correct for ___ degrees of slope and grade

A

3

163
Q

safe operating angles at full load capacity for aerial ladder

A

0-3.5 slope
0-5.5 grade (front to rear)

164
Q

safe operating angles at reduced load capacity for aerial ladder

A

3.6-5.5 slope
5.6-6.5 grade

165
Q

outrigger pressure with and without pads

A

150 psi without, 75 psi with

166
Q

emergency hydraulic power operation to cooldown time ratio for old pierce, platform, and seagrave

A

old pierce: 7:30
platform: 30:30
seagrave: 5:25

167
Q

when stabilizing ladder with outriggers, rear tire should be off the ground about __ to ___ inches

A

0.5 - 1 inches

168
Q

when in the green on the level indicator, the ladder is ___

A

at 100% full load/operational capacity

169
Q

safety pins should be placed from the __ and face ___ the ladder

A

outside, toward

170
Q

4 steps for ladder operation when raising ladder

A

elevate, rotate, extend, lower

171
Q

4 steps for ladder operation when bedding ladder

A

elevate, retract, rotate, lower

172
Q

if person is on tip, never __ or __ the ladder

A

retract or extend

173
Q

when operating tip controls, aerial operates at __ of normal control speed

A

1/4

174
Q

when do you use override controls

A

to get out of a dangerous situation

175
Q

what should you make sure of before retracting ladder

A

that drain for waterway is open and all personnel are removed

176
Q

the aerial ladder should be bedded at ___ psi

A

1800

177
Q

aerial generator watts, volts, and amperage

A

10,000/6,000 watts
120/240 volts
80/40 amps

178
Q

how many feet of extension cord are on each side of the ladder

A

200ft

179
Q

if A-frame ladder is operated on a slope, which end should face downhill

A

front of truck with ladder extended over rear at angle of 45 degrees from center line

180
Q

when operating over the downhill side of the vehicle, and vehicle suspension cannot be fully unloaded on the nonworking side, what happens to the ladder load capacity

A

reduced by 50%

181
Q

what PSI does the A frame ladder bed at

A

0 psi

182
Q

two types of platform ladders

A

100ft rear mount
95ft mid mount

183
Q

safe operating angles at full load for platform ladder

A

0-5 slope and grade

184
Q

safe operating angles at reduced load for platform ladder

A

5.1-8 slope and grade

185
Q

fog curtain gpm for aerial platform

A

75 gpm

186
Q

two ways to get water to pump

A

onboard water tank
external source

187
Q

ladder internal relief valve pressure

A

230-250 psi

188
Q

four indicators inside cab that truck is in pump

A

gear 4
feel/hear engage
positive 10-15 mph
2 green lights

189
Q

three indicators on pump panel that truck is in pump

A

middle white light
green light
positive discharge pressure

190
Q

hydrant pressure in ABQ

A

20-80 psi

191
Q

residential and high value commercial hydrant distances

A

residential: 500ft
high value commercial: 300ft

192
Q
A

DRIVERS SCHOOL (4 decks)

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