Inflammatory Bowel Disease treatment Flashcards

1
Q

In Crohn’s disease, what nutritional deficiencies are expected in jejunoileitis?

A

Anemia

Hypoalbuminemia

Hypocalcemia

Hypomagnesemia

Coaguolopathy

Hyperoxaluria with nephrolithiasis

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2
Q

Typical presentation of patient with Colitis in Crohn’s disease

A

Low grade fever Malaise diarrhea Crappy abdominal pain Sometimes hematochezia

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3
Q

These agents are effective at inducing and maintaining remission in Ulcerative Colitis, with limited role in inducing remission in CD but no clear role in maintenance in CD

A

5-ASA agents

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4
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction in sulfasalazine include? 8 manifestations

A
  1. Rash 2. Fever 3. Hepatitis 4. Agranulocytosis 5. Pancreatitis 6. Worsening of colitis 7. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis 8. Reversible sperm abnormalities
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5
Q

Which of the oral 5-ASA preparations exclusively deliver in the colon?

A

Sulfasalazine Balsalazide

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6
Q

Patients taking sulfasalazine are in danger of which nutritional deficiency?

A

Sulfasalazine can also impair folate absorption and should be given folic supplement

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7
Q

What are the common side effects of 5-ASA?

A

Headache Nausea Hair loss Abdominal pain

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8
Q

This is a new glucocorticoid for UC which is released entirely in the colon and has minimal to no glucocorticoid side effects.

A

Budesonide 9 mg/d for 8 weeks and no taper is required.

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9
Q

True or. false. topical 5-ASA is more effective than topical steroid therapy in the treatment of distal UC.

A

True.

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10
Q

True or False. Glucocorticoids are important in maintenance therapy of both UC and CD.

A

False.

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11
Q

Which antibiotic/s is/are effective in active inflammatory, fistulizing and perianal CD?

A

Metronidazole and Ciprofloxacin. However ciprofloxacin is associated with tendinitis and tendon rupture.

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12
Q

Which is the active end product of azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine?

A

Thioinosinic acid (inhibitor of purine ribonucleotide synthesis and cell proliferation

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13
Q

Side effects of 6-MP and Azathioprine

A

Pancreatitis (completely reversible upon cessation of meds) Nausea, fever, rash, and hepatitis Bone marrow suppression (dose related)

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14
Q

What does methotrexate inhibit?

A

Dihydrofolate reductase which results in impaired DNA synthesis

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15
Q

Potential toxicities of Methotrexate

A

Leukopenia hepatic fibrosis Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis

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16
Q

Pharmacological effects of Cyclosporine

A

Blocks the production of IL-2 by helper T cells Indirectly inhibits B cell function by blocking helper T cells CSA binds to cyclophilin which inhibits CALCINEURIN (involved in activation of T cells)

17
Q

Side effects of CSA

A

Renal toxicity Hypertension Gingival hyperplasia Hyper triceps is Paresthesias Tremors Headaches Electrolyte abnormalities

18
Q

____________ is a macrolide antibiotic which is 100 times as potent as CSA but not dependent on bile or mucosal integrity for absorption

A

Tacrolimus.

19
Q

First biological therapy approved for moderate to severely active CD and UC, IgG1 antibody against TNF-alpha

A

Infliximab

20
Q

Which drug has similar mechanism of action to infliximab but with less immunogenicity?

A

Adalimumab

21
Q

Which medication is a pegylated form of an anti-TNF Fab portion of an antibody administered SC once monthly?

A

Certolizumab pegol (effective for induction of clinical response in patients with active inflammatory CD)

22
Q

What are the side effects of anti-TNF therapies?

A

Development of antibodies Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma Skin lesions (psoriasiform lesions) Infections (reactivation of latent TB)

23
Q

Examples of anti-integrins

A

NVU (Nat Ved Us) Natalizumab Vedolizumab Ustekinumab

24
Q

Anti-integrin not widely used for CD due to the risk of Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

A

Natalizumab (recombinant humanized IgG4 antibody against alpha-integrin