Inflammation and Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different types of Leukocytes (WBC)?

A
  • Neutrophils (50-70%) contain granules with lysosomal enzymes and bacteria-killing components
  • Eosinophils (2-4%) excrete toxic compounds
  • Basophils (<1%) accumulate in damaged tissue, release histamine
  • Monocytes (2-8%) can enter tissues to engulf pathogens
  • Lymphocytes (20-30%) Migrate in and out of blood. Includes T, B and NK cells.
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2
Q

What are the types of Lymphocytes and what is their role in adaptive immunity?

A

T cells (cell-mediated immunity)
Th cells produce cytokines to direct the immune response
Tc cells produce toxic granules to kill pathogen-infected cells

B cells (humoral immunity)
Produce large quantities of antibodies which neutralise foreign objects like bacteria and viruses.
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3
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Cytokines are protein or polypeptide mediators synthesised and released during inflammation by autocrine or paracrine.

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4
Q

What are the types of cytokines?

A
  • Interleukins (IL) released by macrophages, Th1 and Th2 cells. Can initiate the release of chemokines.
  • Chemokines coordinate leukocyte migration. Act on monocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils etc
  • Interferons
  • Colony-stimulating factors
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5
Q

What are the main types of membrane receptors?

A
  • Ligand gated ion channels (IONOTROPIC) milliseconds
  • G protein coupled (METABOTROPIC) seconds
  • Enzyme linked (mostly kinases) hours
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6
Q

What are membrane receptors?

A

Membrane receptors are responsible for the binding of an extracellular signalling molecule and transduction of its messages into one or more intracellular signalling molecules, which changes the cell’s behaviour.

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7
Q

Why study membrane receptors?

A

Favourite target for drugs for human disease. Most are targeted by small molecules which will bind to the protein. Many of the proteins targeted are kinase-linked receptors, and 1/3 GCPRs. Potential for drugs more specific to individual G proteins.

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8
Q

What must a good drug be?

A

A gene involved in human disease must first be identified. Design a small molecule that can effect the functions of the protein and is easily producible and taken into the body.

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9
Q

What must a good drug target have?

A

A binding site!
Could be an agonist binding site, a binding site for another protein that controls signalling, an enzyme with a specific binding site.

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10
Q

What do you need to know to identify about a receptor before identifying it as a good drug target?

A
The receptors downstream signalling
The subtypes of the receptors
Its subcellular location (intercellular or membrane-bound)
Its structure and binding sites
Where it is expressed in the body
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11
Q

How to test the effectiveness of a new drug?

A

First screen designed small molecules with the receptor to find out if it binds.
Express the receptor in the cell line.
Can test signalling using in vitro assays to measure how much it reacts
Then use an in vivo animal disease model.

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12
Q

What is an allergy?

A

Disease following an immune response to innocuous antigen. Mostly Ig-E mediated e.g grass & tree pollen, house dust mite faeces (Derp1, a protease that breaks down epithelial barrier), insect remains.

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13
Q

What are hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Inappropriate or exaggerated immune responses that cause inflammation, tissue injury and disease.

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14
Q

What is Zolair?

A

Omalizumab. Injection into the bloodstream.
A biological molecule drug used to treat severe asthma. IgE antibody that forms a complex with IgE so it can’t reach mast cell and cause reactions. Doesn’t effect already IgE-bound mast cells. Costs £30,000 per year per person to treat. Continuous treatment needed.

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15
Q

What are the types of respiratory allergy?

A

Allergic rhinitis (e.g. hayfever): allergen activates mast cells in nasal mucosa and conjunctivae to give symptoms of nasal congestion, sneezing and allergic conjunctivitis.

Allergic Asthma: allergen activates mast cells in the lower respiratory tract

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16
Q

How does sensitization to an allergen occur?

A

The allergen makes its way into the epithelial space of the airway (may be due to damage to epithelial integrity). Dendritic cells (APCs) internalise the allergens. Dendritic cells migrate to the regional lymph nodes/local muscosa and present the allergen to T lymphocyte using a MHC class II molecule. Interaction is facilitated by Notch and Jagged binding. T cells can transform into Th2 cells which interact with B cells. IL4 and IL3 produced by the Th2 cells cause class switch recombination (changing Ig) to occur. B cells produce allergen-specific IgE which are specific to the allergen which are released into circulation. Mast cells and basophils have receptor for IgE which can lead to the symptoms.

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17
Q

How does mast cell activation cause the symptoms of an allergy?

A

2 antibodies produced by B cells simultaneously bind to the FcERI receptor on the mast cells. Mast cells become active and release of granules which fuse with the plasma membrane (degranulation) to release mediators (histamine, amines, proteoglycans, serine proteases, enzymes, pepsidases, cytokines and growth factors). These mediators cause the symptoms.

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18
Q

How do the mast cell mediators cause the symptoms of an allergy?

A

Histamine will cause bronchoconstriction of the lung smooth muscle.
Prostaglandins will cause vasodilation which will lead to increased vascular permeability.
Pepsidases and other enzymes will stimulate nociceptors of sensory nerves causing sneezing, itching or coughing.
More immune cells are recruited and fluid fills the lungs as they move in.
Epithelial cells activate goblet cells for the production of mucous.
Increased leukocyte recruitment sets up for a late phase reaction.

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19
Q

What is the late-phase reaction in Asthma?

A

6-8 hours after allergen exposure. Resolves in 1-2 days. Chemokines and cytokines recruit and activate other immune cells which cause inflammation and tissue damage.
Eosinophils cause damage by secreting products such as eosinophil basic proteins.
Neutrophils release substances like elastase which causes Matrix Metalloproteinases activation and type II collagen degradation.
Basophils secrete more histamine and have IL-13 receptors. Contributes to bronchoconstriction.
T cells also memorize and continue immune response.

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20
Q

What happens in chronic asthma?

A

Increased goblet cells. Damaged epithelial layers increasing the risk of other allergic diseases, fibroblasts try to repair but make it stiff and inelastic. Inflammation moves into the submucosa, increased numbers of ECM molecules, myofibroblasts and smooth muscle cells. Increased IgE in circulation.
Epithelial-mesenchymal trophic unit regulates tissue remodelling.
Difficult to study in animals and humans.

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21
Q

What are the treatments for asthma?

A
  • Avoidance - prevent exposure to allergen
  • (Cortico)Steroids - limit production of cytokines by transcription inhibition of Cox2. Can’t be used for long time periods due to a lack of immune response.
  • B2 adrenoreceptor agonists - relax smooth muscle, inhibit mast cell degranulation and mucous secretion
  • Anti-histamines
  • Anti-leukotrienes
  • Anti-IgE (Omalizumab/Xolair)
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22
Q

What is the hygiene hypothesis?

A

Advanced living standards encourage reduced exposure to pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms. This leads to an increased allergic response in genetically predisposed individuals.

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23
Q

What effects the likelihood of sensitization?

A

Host genotype.
Type, concentration, frequency and route of allergen.
Enhancing agents like endotoxin, chitin and environmental pollutants.
Genetic and environmental factors that cause a vulnerable epithelial barrier that favour the Th2 response.

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24
Q

How is allergic inflammation resolved?

A

Cells undergo apoptosis due to decreased concentration of cytokines.
Decreased differentiation, maturation, proliferation of mast cells.
Emigration away from affected site.

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25
Q

What are the potential new therapies for allergies?

A

Allergen-specific regulatory T cells
FcuRIIB is the inhibitory receptor of FcERI.
Negative regulation of FcERI.
Vaccines to induce tolerance to substances before natural sensitization.
Exposure to certain pets and the outdoors.
Increased exercise.

26
Q

What is different about IgE’s structure?

A

IgE has an extension of two extra domains in the Fc portion due to an evolution duplication event. The domains are crosslinked with one another. This causes a kinked structure and asymmetrical binding. The antibody is always anchored but swaps between the 2 interaction sites on the FcERI receptor. Slow dissociation rate. Mast cells can always react because IgE is already there, just need the antigen!

27
Q

What is the structure of FcERI?

A

Made up 4 subunits (a, B and 2y). a subunit is anchored to the membrane with 1 TMD, contains immunoglobulin binding domains to recognise the Fc portion of IgE. B subunit is involved with amplifying signals and stabilising cell surface expression. Y subunits are held together by disulfide bridges and recruited in signalling to provide a scaffold. ITAMs are built into the 2Y and B subunits.

28
Q

What happens to the FcERI structure in activation and inactivation?

A

To activate signalling, you need 2 receptors to become crosslinked (POLYVALENT).
Tetrameric form only found on mast cells and basophils.
Trimeric found on antigen-presenting cells.
Expression of receptor is controlled by cytokines (IL4 encourages a subunit).
In the absence of antigen the receptor needs IgE to be bound to be stable at the surface. Promotes survival of mast cells (lifespan of 3 months).

29
Q

What are ITAMs?

A

Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif. Present on the B and 2Y subuntis of the FcERI receptor and the tyrosines in the ITAMs are phosphorylation targets for Src tyrosine kinases. This creates SH2 domains which are recognised by lots of other proteins.

30
Q

What happens in FcERI signalling?

A

1) Crosslinking of 2 IgE-FcERIs by antigen leads to activation of membrane associated Lyn kinase (Src family found in lipid rafts)
2) Lyn, a src protein tyrosine kinase phosphorylates FcERI B and Y ITAMs creating high affinity SH2 sites for Lyn and Syk kinases to bind to
3) Syk, another protein tyrosine kinase continues to phosphorylate Y subunit and itself to increase its own activity (auto and transphosphorylation)
4) Syk and Lyn also phosphorylate LAT

31
Q

What is LAT?

A

Linker for Activation of T cells (initially found in T cells, also in mast cells, platelets and NK)
Scaffold protein coordinates the bringing together various molecules and initiates further signalling.

32
Q

What does phosphorylated LAT lead to?

A

Phosphorylated LAT creates binding sites for cytosolic adaptors including GRB2 (contains a SH2 domain), GADS (links SLP76 to LAT), SLP76 which are transported to the plasma membrane. GRB2 can activate Ras by using guanine nucleotide exchange factors VAV and Sos to remove GDP and replace with GTP. Ras will activate the MAP/Kinase signalling pathway which regulates Phospholipase A. PLA’s action causes the production of eicosanoids [prostaglandins and leukotrienes].

PLCY can bind to phosphorylated LAT and break down PIP3 into IP3 and DAG. DAG recruits Protein Kinase C attaching it to the membrane to cause degranulation of mast cells. IP3 diffuses to the ER and binds to the IP3 receptor which serves as a Ca channel which releases Ca from the Ca store in the endoplasmic reticulum. Ca can activate TF to increase cytokine production and enhance the transcription of COX to produce and sustain prostaglandins.

33
Q

What is the complementary signalling pathway in FcERI signalling?

A

There are also other kinases that are activated such as FYN. FYN acts on PI3K which causes the phosphorylation of P(4,5)IP3 to P(3,4,5)P3 which provides docking sites for PH domains of proteins. Contributes to Ca signalling to cause degranulation. LAT2 or NTAL is structurally similar (both contain 5 GRB2 binding sites) to LAT1 but is localised differently and works in a complementary fashion to regulate degranulation.

Allergy-specific small molecules that inhibit PI3K could be a pontential treatment option.

34
Q

What is COX?

A

Cyclooxygenase is an enzyme responsible for the formation of prostanoids including thromboxane and prostaglandins. Inhibition of COX can give relief from inflammation and pain (used in NSAIDS).

35
Q

How were animal/human cell lines used to study FcERI signalling?

A

-Rat basoleukemic cells look very like mast cells and secrete serotonin and histamine [humans just histamine]
-Human version discovered. Lab for allergic diseases (LAD2) human cell line secretes histamine and prostaglandins and contain IgE and c-kit receptor.
c-kit for stem cell factor is required for mast cell survival and crostalks with IgE.

36
Q

Why are there two pathways for initiating Ca signalling from FcERI activation?

A

Fail-safe, provides flexibility required for fine-tuning or regulation.

37
Q

Why is CRAC channel needed?

A

When PLCy causes IP3 to be produced it activates an IP3 receptor on the surface of the endoplasmic reticulum causing Ca to be released into the cytosol. BUT this Ca signal alone is not sufficient to cause all the downstream effects, you need Ca from the outside.

38
Q

What are the key effects caused by the increased Ca signal from IgE activation?

A

RAPID

1) Degranulation and secretion of histamine and proteases
2) Secretion of immune signalling molecule TNFa by mast cells
3) Synthesis and release of leukotrienes and prostaglandins

SLOW
Synthesis of more cytokines and chemokines and granocyte recruitment.

39
Q

How could Feske be certain that it wasn’t faulty ER function that was causing the lack of appropriate immune respone?

A

Feske was monitoring Ca signalling in SCID patients by loading the cells with fluorescent dye FURA which shines green on binding to Ca.

In a Ca-deficient surrounding environment, when a receptor similar to IgE on T cell is activated, a normal transient Ca signal from the ER is released in both control and SCID patients. This shows that T cell receptor, PLC, IP3, IP3 receptor and ER are all working normally.

ADD-BACK experiment: add Ca to external solution. In control, CRAC opens and signal is recorded. In SCID patients, dramatic deficient in the CRAC channel signal.

To simplify the experiment, they bypassed the T cell receptor entirely targeted Ca-ATPase which drives Ca into the ER. Used thapsigargin to inhibit Ca-ATPase. Both control and SCID showed that the ER Ca store didn’t refill showing that that ER function is fine.

40
Q

How was STIM1 identified?

A

Using immortal cell lines from flies, each well in the plate had a single type of siRNA to knockdown different potential genes that could giv the same phenotype as SCID patients. Fly cells were loaded will FURA and visualized using microscopy to identify phenotype. Cells with siRNA to STIM1 showed same phenotype as SCID patients.

41
Q

What is STIM1?

A

An identified gene which when knocked out, impairs CRAC channel function. Suggested that it is an essential and conserved component of CRAC channels (store-operated Ca channels).

42
Q

What is the structure of STIM1 protein?

A

Looking at its AA sequence the structure of STIM1 protein could be deduced.

  • One TMD (unusual)
  • Contains EF1 and EF2 domains which are sensitive to Ca
  • CC1 and CC2 domains well known for protein interaction

Found on the ER regulating CRAC function.

43
Q

How did genetic analysis of SCID patients identify CRAC gene?

A

Gene analysis of homogenous siblings with SCID identified Orai1. It was expressed in an in vitro cell line.
In a knockdown of Orai1 or STIM1 there is a defect in Ca signalling, even in add-back experiment. If you infect a SCID patient with wildtype Orai1 in T cells, Ca signal is restored.
Therefore it is thought that the Orai1 gene codes for CRAC channels. SCID was found to be caused by a missense mutation in exon1 of human Orai1 (C to T).

44
Q

What is Orai1?

A

Gene that codes for CRAC channel. Orai1 protein is thought to have 4 TMD. SCID patient mutation is thought to be present in one of the TMD. Present on PM, as shown by immunocytochemistry and western blotting. There are 3 different Orai isoforms (must be aware when developing drugs).

45
Q

How do Orai1 and STIM1 interact?

A

With the loss of Ca in the ER, the structure of the EF hands on STIM1 change causing oligomerizaztion and aggregation of STIM1 protein in ER puncta. This drags the ER to the plasma membrane where Orai1 is present. They junction with associated Orai1 tetramers, causing CRAC to open.

46
Q

What work in mice prooved Orai1 importance in CRAC?

A

Orai1 KO transgenic mice were made. Mast cells from the KO and WT were isolated and their IgE activation, cytokine and histamine release were measured. The mice were sensitised to egg protein and re-exposed to induce an inflammatory response. Meaure FURA dye to assess blood vessel leaking. KO of Orai1 has a defect in immune response.

47
Q

What is NF-kB?

A

Protein complex that controls the transcription of DNA, cytokine production and cell survival. Activation of CRAC, causing Ca influx activating NF-kB to move from the cytosol to the nucleus to transcribe cytokines and chemokines.

48
Q

What are lipid rafts?

A

Detergent-resistance membrane fractions separated on sucrose gradients. Contain microdomains rich in sphingolipids cholesterol and membrane-associated molecules like Lyn.

49
Q

What are SCF and c-Kit?

A

Stem cell factor is the ligand for the c-kit receptor. c-kit is present on mast cells and required for their survival. Required in the activation but cannot induce it on its own. But with antigen present, SCF can increase degranulation.
Targeting KIT or even the complementary pathway could be promising for drugs.

50
Q

What are some of the potential avenues that drug targets could go down?

A
  • Lyn can’t be a target because it is also involved in the termination of the activation cascade
  • Syk inhibitors have been used for RA. But alleviation has only been shown in vitro
  • Phosphorylation of phospholipids could be targeted but would have to be specific to mast cells/basophils
  • Inducers to produce highly selective anti-IgE antibodies
51
Q

What is the difference between STIM1 and STIM2?

A

STIM1 - receptor activated storage release of Ca

STIM2 - similar role but acts basally to keep Ca levels in ER

52
Q

How can you measure a passive cutaneous anaphylaxis?

A

(Skin Allergy)
Can inject a blue dye along with the antigen. You can measure the amount of blue dye in the skin and identify reaction by visualizing the leaking epithelia.

53
Q

What is DNP-HSA?

A

DNP-HSA is a Anti-IgE antibody that can be used experimentally to artificially crosslink the IgE receptor without the need for an antigen.

54
Q

What is NFAT?

A

Family of phosphorylated proteins that live in the cytoplasm. One of the main Ca-regulated transcription factors. Ca influx causes dephosphorylation of NFAT and it migrates to the nucleus.

55
Q

What are CRAC channels?

A

Class of ‘store-operated’ Ca channels with a high selectivity for Ca over other monovalent cations. Low single-channel conductance and an inwardly rectifyinh current-voltage relationship.

56
Q

What is SCID?

A

Severe combined Immunodeficiency. Defective immune response due to dysfunctional T and B lymphocytes and also fibroblasts.
At risk of life-threatening infections. SCID is also associated with ectodermal dysplasmia and anhydrosis (EDA) which results in abnormal morphogenesis of hair, skin, sweat glands and teeth. EDA could reflec defective NF-kB or NFAT activation.

57
Q

How can you visualise LAT?

A

Cells were incubated with monoclonal IgE specific to DNP and aggregated with DNP-HSA. After stimulation anti-LAT antibodies were immunoprecipated and a Western blot was analysed. The tyrosine phosphorylation of LAT was demonstratedd by blotting with anti-phosphotyrosine

58
Q

What happens in mice that are LAT-deficient?

A
  • No histamine secretion after activation of FcERI
  • Decreased level of LAT protein
  • No difference in levels of FcERI, phosphotyrosine or Syk
  • Reduced levels of SLP76 phosphorylation
  • Reduced levels of PLCy phosphorylation (decreaded Ip3 and DAG)
  • Decreased calcium influx
  • Reduced levels of activation of ERK and JNK1
  • Decreased granule release
  • Reduced levels of some cytokines
59
Q

How can knocking out LAT cause a decrease in antigen-induced histamine release?

A
  • Impaired Ca signalling
  • Disrupted phosphorylation
  • Impaired cytokine production
  • No receptors present on the mast cells/no mast cells at all
60
Q

What does the grey peak on the flow cytometry graph show?

A

All cells have some level of fluorescence - always background fluorescence.
Always some non-specific binding going on at the same time.