Inflammation Flashcards

1
Q

Which two stimuli trigger inflammation?

A
  • inflammation is triggered by infection and/or necrosis
  • the inflammation attempts to clear the pathogen or the debris
  • acute inflammation will always follow necrosis before healing takes place
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2
Q

What are the five pillars of inflammation? In addition, what is acute inflammation characterized by? Chronic inflammation?

A
  • 5 pillars: rubor (redness), dolor (pain), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), and loss of function
  • acute inflammation is characterized by edema and the presence of neutrophils as the primary immune cell
  • chronic inflammation is characterized by lymphocytes and plasma cells in the inflamed tissue
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3
Q

What causes each of the five pillars of inflammation?

A
  • (5 pillars are redness, pain, heat, swelling, and loss of function)
  • vasodilation yields redness and heat; it’s caused by histamine, bradykinin, and PGs
  • increased vascular permeability yields swelling; the edema is caused by vascular endothelial activation, histamine, and tissue damage
  • sensitization of nociceptors yields pain; PGE2 and bradykinin cause this sensitization
  • loss of function occurs as a result of the other processes
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4
Q

Quickly compare acute and chronic inflammation.

A
  • acute: rapid onset (seconds to minutes); lasts minutes to days; mediated by neutrophils, eosinophils, antibodies, and complement; can yield complete resolution, abscess formation, or progression into chronic inflammation
  • chronic: mediated by mononuclear cells (lymphocytes) and fibroblasts; a state of persistent destruction and repair; can yield granulomas, amyloidosis, and scarring
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5
Q

When do neutrophils arrive in acute inflammation? Macrophages?

A
  • neutrophils: within the first 12 - 24 hours of infection

- macrophages: 24 - 48 hours after neutrophils

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6
Q

What are the four major mediators of acute inflammation? What does each do?

A
  • TLRs (toll-like receptors): a PRR (pattern recognition receptor) that recognizes PAMPs (pathogen associated molecular proteins) and up regulates NF-kB
  • arachidonic acid: released by phospholipase A2 and produces prostaglandins via COX and leukotrienes via 5-LPO
  • mast cells: activated by tissue trauma, C3a and C5a (these are involved in anaphylaxis), and by IgE cross-linking to release histamine (causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability)
  • complement
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7
Q

What is NF-kB?

A
  • this is a major switch for innate immunity to start acting

- it is upregulated by activated PRRs (pattern recognition receptors) such as TLRs

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8
Q

What are COX and 5-LPO?

A
  • these are both enzymes that act on arachidonic acid once it is released by phospholipase A2; the products of both are very potent inflammatory mediators
  • COX: cyclooxyrgenase; produces prostaglandins
  • 5-LPO: 5-lipooxygenase: produces leukotrienes (and lipoxes)
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9
Q

What are the four major chemoattractants for neutrophils?

A
  • LTB4 (a leukotriene), C5a, IL-8, and bacterial products
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10
Q

Increased permeability occurs at the ________, while vasodilation occurs at the _________. What is the purpose of vasodilation?

A
  • permeability at the post-capillary venules
  • vasodilation at the arterioles
  • vasodilation results in the slowing of blood flow to the area, allowing neutrophils to “fall out” of the blood stream, triggering their extravasation into the tissue
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11
Q

What are the six steps of neutrophil extravasation? What occurs during each step:

A
  • 1) margination: neutrophil “falls out” of the central lamina blood flow as a result of vasodilation and comes into contact with the endothelium
  • 2) rolling: neutrophil’s glycoproteins loosely bind to the endothelial cells’ P-selectins and E-selectins
  • 3) adhesion: neutrophil’s integrin firmly binds to the endothelial cell’s intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs), stopping the rolling
  • 4) transmigration (AKA diapedesis): neutrophil crosses the endothelial membrane (occurs at the post-capillary venule)
  • 5) chemotaxis: neutrophil moves to the infected/necrotix area via LTB4, C5a, IL-8, and bacterial products
  • (phagocytosis now occurs)
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12
Q

What specific part of the neutrophil’s glycoproteins does the endothelial cell’s P- and E- selectins interact with?

A
  • the Sialyl-Lewis X glycoproteins
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13
Q

What activates the vascular endothelium to prepare for neutrophil extravasation?

A
  • TNF-alpha and IL-1 (released by macrophages) cause endothelial expression of P-selectin and E-selectin; they also increase endothelial expression of ICAMs
  • (P-selectin is also unregulated by histamine)
  • (the neutrophil’s integrin that binds to the ICAMs is unregulated by LTB4 and C5a; it’s glycoproteins that bind to the selectins is already present)
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14
Q

Which factors can help enhance phagocytosis?

A
  • enhanced mainly by by IgG and C3b (this process is referred to as opsonization)
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15
Q

What are the two mechanisms for destroying phagocytosed material? Which cells mainly use each type?

A
  • O2-dependent (more efficient) and O2-independent
  • O2-dependent: involves the generation of oxygen free radicals within the phagolysosome to destroy the phagocytksed material; AKA “oxidative burst”
  • O2-independent: phagocytosed material is degraded using enzymes from secondary granules that fuse with the phagolysosome
  • neutrophils mainly use O2-dependent
  • macrophages mainly use O2-independent
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16
Q

What is the reaction that generates the free radicals in O2-dependent phagocytosis?

A
  • NADPH oxidase acts on O2 to form O2.- (supraoxide), which gets acted on by SOD (supraoxide dismutase) to form H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide), which gets acted on by MPO (myeloperoxidase) to form HOCl- (hypochlorous acid), which destroys the material
  • this occurs in the phagolysosome
17
Q

When do macrophages enter the inflamed area? What action will they take if they do not come into contact with the pathogen/necrotic debris?

A
  • macrophages enter the area within 2-3 days
  • if they don’t come into contact with the insulting agent (this means the neutrophils were able to achieve complete resolution), they will secrete IL-10 and TGF-B
  • these are anti-inflammatory agents that will result in resolution and healing
18
Q

What happens when macrophages enter the area and the infection/necrosis is still present (ie: the neutrophils were unable to deal with the problem)?

A
  • macrophages will release IL-8 to recruit more neutrophils to the area, extending the acute phase response, and/or
  • macrophages will phagocytose the antigen and express it to T-helper cells to initiate the chronic response
  • if the organism is unable to be phagocytosed/killed by macrophages, the macrophages will create a wall of fibrosis to wall-off the organism (abscess formation)
19
Q

What three types of substances do mast cells release upon degranulation?

A
  • activators (histamine)
  • spasmogens (LTs and PGs): trigger smooth muscle contraction
  • chemoattractants (ctyokines)
20
Q

What is granulomatous inflammation? What is the key cell type involved? What other cells may also be present?

A
  • granulomatous inflammation is sub-type of chronic inflammation
  • results in formation of granulomas, which are aggregates of epitheloid histiocytes (these are the key cell involved, they are modified macrophages)
  • other cell that may be present: giant cells and lymphocytes
21
Q

How do granulomas form?

A
  • when macrophages arrive to the inflamed site (after neutrophils and acute inflammation), they present the antigen to CD4+ helper T-cells via MHC II
  • the macrophages release IL-12 to cause T-cell maturation into Th1 cells
  • the Th1 cells then secrete IFN-gamma, which “empowers” the macrophages into the epitheloid histiocytes
22
Q

What are the two main types of granulomas?

A
  • non-caseating and caseating granulomas
  • non-caseating: granulomas WITHOUT central necrosis
  • caseating: granulomas WITH central necrosis (extremely characteristic of TB and fungal infections)