Infectous Diseases

Question 1

Define ‘pathogenic’

Answer 1

If a microorganism is pathogenic it is a disease-causing Microbes

Question 2

Explain these microbial relationships and give an example of each.

Commensal:

Mutualistic:

Parasitic:

Opportunistic:

Answer 2

Commensal:
A symbiotic relationship b/w organisms whereby one benefits and the other is unaffected .

eg; Microbes on your skin.

Mutualistic:
A symbiotic relationship b/w organisms, whereby both benefit

eg; E. coli make vitamin K for humans.

Parasitic:
A symbiotic relationship b/w organisms whereby one benefits at the other’s expense

eg; Head lice

Opportunistic:
A symbiotic relationship
b/w organisms which is initially commensal /
mutualistic then becomes parasitic.

eg; Candida

Question 3

Describe the difference between ‘Pasteur’ and ‘Bechamp’ theories.

Answer 3

Pasteur’s germ theory of disease was that all germs are bad and cause disease. Therefore we should be kiiling them off. Hence pasturisation

Bechamp’s theory is that germs are opportunistic in nature and live with us symbiotically. To promote health we should not be killing them but instead improving our terrain (diet, exercise) so that germs do not have the opportunity to harm us.

Question 4

List TWO differences between ‘gram-negative’ and ‘gram-positive’ bacteria.

Answer 4

Bacteria have two types of cell wall

gram positive
* Thick mesh like cell wall
* stains purple with Grams method
* Wall made of peptidoglycan

gram negative.
* Thinner cell wall layer
* stains pink with Grams method
* Wall has an additional outer lipid-rich membrane

Exotoxins are gram-positive and negative

Endotoxins are gram-negative only

Question 5

‘Bacteria are prokaryotic cells with a simple structure, nucleus and membrane bound organelles’

True or False - discuss

Answer 5

True - Bacteria are Prokaryotic cells

False - The DNA is not in the nucleus. The control centre of bacteria is a single loop of DNA.

Bacteria are simple structures to allow for very fast division.

Bacteria reproduce through binary fission which is a rapid form of cell division that allows bacteria to reproduce in high numbers at a rapid rate.

For example, e. Coli can divide in as little as 20 minutes

Question 6

Describe TWO key differences between ‘exotoxins’ and ‘endotoxins’.

Answer 6

EXOTOXINS
* Gram-positive and negative bacteria
* Released by a living microbe
* Very toxic, protein toxins
* Have a variety of effects on bodily functions
* Eg: Diptheria, e.coli

ENDOTOXINS
* Gram-negative bacteria only
* Released from cell wall after organism death
* Usually less toxic
* Stimulate inflammatory cascade and and often cause fever / malaise
* Eg: Salmonella

Question 7

Name ONE method by which bacteria reproduce.

Answer 7

Asexual Binary fission

Question 8

With regards to resident and transient microflora, list:

a. TWO body locations where microflora is present

b. TWO body locations where microflora is absent

Answer 8

a. TWO body locations where microflora is present
1. Small and large intestine
2. Mouth
3. Vagina and perineum
4. Nasal Cavity
5. Skin

b. TWO body locations where microflora is absent
There are parts of the body that should be sterile and therefore bacteria in these locations is potentially dangerous.

1. Blood
2. Lungs
3. Bladder and Kidneys
4. Ovaries; fallopian tubes; uterus

Question 9

Describe how microflora organisms can become pathogenic.

Answer 9

Organisms within the microflora can become pathogenic if the local
environment changes or if the immune system becomes compromised
(opportunistic).

Question 10

Explain how broad-spectrum antibiotics affect microflora in the body.

Answer 10

Broad spectrum antibiotics possess no specificity for the bacteria they kill and instead can have devastating effects on the body’s microflora because they are indiscriminate and wide ranging.

Often used because there is not enough time or money to test further and refine choice of microorganism to target.

Question 11

List TWO adverse effects of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

Answer 11

Broad spectrum antibiotics possess no specificity for the bacteria they kill and lead to
* Microflora damage
* Antibiotic resistance
* Impaired immunity
* Candida overgrowth (yeast) due to loss of friendly flora
* Diarrhoea

Question 12

Describe the structure of a virus.

Answer 12

• A virus is not a cell but rather consists of either a strand of RNA or DNA which is enclosed in a hard protein shell called a capsid.
• Each capsid is unique for each virus.
• Viruses are the smallest microbes and are too small to be seen with light microscopy

Question 13

Name TWO DNA viral pathologies.

Answer 13

1. Varicella Zoster - chicken pox and shingles
2. Herpes
3. Smallpox

Question 14

Describe how viruses reproduce.

Answer 14

• Viruses are unique because they are only able to multiply inside the cells of other living things.
• They reproduce by injecting their RNA or DNA strand into a living host cell and use the host cell’s apparatus for reproduction.
• They are specific about which cells they infect
• When the virus binds with a cell it only allows entry of the genetic material. The capsid remains outside.
• A virus will generally burst a host cell as it leaves it

Question 15

Describe FOUR ways in which viruses make it difficult for the body to identify and destroy.

Answer 15

1. They hide inside the host cells (can be latent).
2. They do not have a metabolism of their own — hence anti-microbial agents cannot be targeted towards enzymes.
3. They do not have many structures of their own.
4. Able to mutate — this allows them to change their surface antigens and avoid host immune response.

Question 16

Explain the following terms:

a. Viral lysis
b. Viral budding
c. Latent stage

Answer 16

a. Viral lysis
Virus particles burst out of the host cell into the extracellular space, resulting in the death of the host cell.

b. Viral budding
Process by which a virus exits a cell and acquires an envelope (outer membrane) of its own from the host cell membrane and usually leads to cell death. Used in viruses which need an envelope; e.g. HIV.

c. Latent stage
Stage of infection where the disease is present but hidden and inactive. Viruses can remain in a latent stage for years; e.g. herpes simplex.

Question 17

Fungal growth usually results from 3 forms of fungi.

What are they and how do they promote growth?

Answer 17

a. Yeasts
*Single celled fungus thateproduce through budding
* eg: Candida Albicans

b. Dermatophytes
* Fungi causing skin disease.
* They obtain nutrients from keratin in skin (no living tissue is invaded) and colonise in the stratum corneum.
* It’s the only fungus dependent on humans
* e.g. ringworm or tinea.

c. Moulds:
* Multi-cellular fungi.
* Reproduce by means of tiny spores
* Some moulds cause disease, others are involved in production of various foods and antibiotics;
* e.g. aspergillus and penicillium.

Question 18

List FOUR factors that promote growth of fungi in the body.

Answer 18

Warmth
Acidity
Rich Nutrition
Moisture

Question 19

List TWO ways in which fungi reproduce.

Answer 19

Asexual reproduction
Occurs via budding (extension of the Hyphae) containing chromatin that eventually detach and develop into an independent organism.

Sexual reproduction
This is less common and occurs by fungal spores

Question 20

-

Name ONE example of a protozoa.

Answer 20

Helminths – Parasitic Worms

Question 21

Define the following terms:

a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Endemic

Answer 21

a. Epidemic – Infections in large groups

b. Pandemic – Worldwide infections

c. Endemic – Infections restricted to an area

Question 22

Define the following infection sources:

Reservoir
Carrier
Vector
Host

Answer 22

Reservoir
Location where the pathogen exists, reproduces and spreads to new hosts

Carrier
Infected individuals who are asymptomatic
Eg: A human with HIV, who can transmit the virus to another healthy individual

Vector
Intermediate carrier, transporting pathogens from reservoir to host.
eg: Mosquitos carry malaria

The main difference between vector and carrier is that a vector does not show any symptoms of the disease whereas a carrier is an infected organism capable of transmitting the disease-causing microorganisms to a healthy individual.

Host
An infected person or animal

Question 23

Explain what is meant by ‘nosocomial’.

Answer 23

Infection acquired from a medical setting (hospital or care facility);
e.g. surgical site, UTIs, pneumonia, ulcers.

Question 24

Describe in detail the FOUR stages of infection.

Answer 24

1. Incubation period: the time between the initial exposure to the infecting Organism and the appearance of the first signs of symptoms it produces
2. Prodomal period: This is the interval from the non specific symptoms such as malaise and fever fatigue to more specific acute symptoms related to that particular infecting agent.
3. Acute period: this is when the quantity of pathogen peaks and this associated with very pronounced symptoms specific to the disease
4. Chronic Infection: infection with insidious or slow onset of long duration.

Question 25

List FOUR ways in which a host can provide resistance against microbes.

Answer 25

**First Line: Inate** * Active skin and mucous membranes * Body secretions - stomach acid, tears etc **Second Line: Inate** * Phagocytosis * Interferon production * Effective inflammatory response **Third Line - Adaptive** * Effective inflammatory response * Effective immune system

Question 26

List FOUR ways in which a microbe displays ‘virulence’ against a host.

Answer 26

* Production of invasive and destructive enzymes * Production of endo or exo toxins * Spore formation * Entry of a large number of organisms but formed colonies * Presence of bacterial capsule and Pillai * Ability to mutate Eg; MRSA, HIV

Question 27

State THREE methods to reduce the spread of infection.

Answer 27

1. Reduce the reservoir. 2. Stop droplet transmission — covering the mouth (not with the hand). 3. Block the method of transmission - hand washing, gloves, condoms 4. Kill the organism. 5. Sterilisation.

Question 28

Explain how the following ‘infection control’ processes work: a. Sterilisation b. Pasteurisation

Answer 28

a. Sterilisation All microorganisms and their spores are destroyed. There are two methods: Hot air - 30 minutes of 180°C Steaming - 20 minutes at 120°C b. Pasteurisation 71.7°C for 15 to 25 seconds. It will kill most pathogenic microbes but not their spores Note: Disinfectants and antiseptics will destroy/ reduce the number of organisms but not their spores

Question 29

With regards to natural anti-microbials, name TWO examples for each of the following: a. Anti-bacterial b. Anti-fungal c. Anti-viral d. Anti-parasitic

Answer 29

a. Anti-bacterial * Oregano. * Grapefruit seed extract. * Colloidal silver. b. Anti-fungal * Oregano * Garlic * Cinnamon. * Berberine. c. Anti-viral * Elderberry * Olive leaf. * St John’s Wort * Lemon balm (Herpes simplex). d. Anti-parasitic * Garlic. * Berberine. * Goldenseal. * Oregano.

Question 30

Explain briefly how ‘sepsis’ develops in the body.

Answer 30

It occurs when the pathogen has infected the blood. It arises when the body’s response to the infection causes injury to the body’s own organs, potentially leading to multi-organ failure. Symptoms include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, coughing, etc.

Question 31

List TWO groups of individuals at higher risk of developing sepsis.

Answer 31

* Elderly populations [over 75] * The very young * Alcoholics * Diabetics * Chemotherapy patients

Question 32

Using definitions, describe the difference between ‘cellulitis’ and ‘erysipelas’.

Answer 32

Both are bacterial skin infections Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection creating inflammation of dermal and subcutaneous layers. Erysipelas is a more superficial bacterial skin infection of the dermis and upper subcutaneous layer, producing a well-defined edge.

Question 33

List ONE bacterial cause of cellulitis.

Answer 33

Staphylococcus Aureus

Question 34

Name TWO characteristic signs / symptoms of cellulitis.

Answer 34

Very red inflamed skin Fever Malaise

Question 35

Miss X displays the following signs and symptoms. Which pathology do you suspect? ‘Pustules with round oozing patches and golden yellow crusts that grow larger daily. Mostly affects hands and face or in skin folds’.

Answer 35

Impetigo

Question 36

Explain why an immune-compromised patient is at increased risk of oral candidiasis.

Answer 36

It is a superficial fungal yeast infection of the mucous tissue. It often presents after broad spectrum antibiotics or in immune compromised patients because the skin and mucous membranes are not able to provide as good a physical barrier with support of the CD4 cells. CD4 cells are T-Helper cells and T-Regulatory Cells (I think)

Question 37

Name the organism that cause cold sores

Answer 37

Herpes simplex virus type 1

Question 38

List TWO causes / triggers of genital candidiasis.

Answer 38

Although you would expect it to be so, it is not sex related. As with oral candidia it relates to immune comprise that reduces the effectiveness of physical barriers, namely mucous tissue. Triggers include antibiotic treatment; Diabetes mellitus; Pregnancy; Immune system disorders

Question 39

Describe TWO characteristic signs/symptoms of genital candidiasis.

Answer 39

Vagina/genital itch, discomfort or irritation Thick, clumpy discharge (cottage cheese effect)

Question 40

Describe the rash associated with Lyme disease.

Answer 40

It looks a bit like something you would use for target practise - a circle within a circle within a circle. A circular pink or red rash at the site of the tick attachment that radiates from the bite, usually over 5 centimetres in diameter

Question 41

Name the bacterial cause of ‘diphtheria’.

Answer 41

Corynebacterium diphtheriae (gram-positive) transmitted by droplet.

Question 42

Describe the appearance of the tonsils in diphtheria.

Answer 42

A grey membrane grows across the tonsils/ pharynx or nose.

Question 43

Explain how complications develop in diphtheria.

Answer 43

Exotoxins from the bacteria cause endothelial necrosis by inhibiting protein synthesis. This can cause myocarditis and paralyse the diaphragm. Ultimately the grey membrane that is produced from necrotic cells can block the Airways

Question 44

Briefly describe the pathophysiology of scarlet fever (HINT — think bacteria).

Answer 44

Scarlet fever is an infectious disease resulting from exotoxins released by streptococci pyogenes bacteria. Streptococci pyogenes secrete haemolytic enzymes and exotoxins. It is the damage to capillaries this causes which leads to the red rash.

Question 45

Describe briefly the difference between a rash associated with ‘scarlet fever’ and ‘meningitis’.

Answer 45

Meningitis is non blanching meaning it is still there when you put pressure on it. In scarlet fever the rash blanches under pressure

Question 46

Describe the appearance of the tongue in scarlet fever.

Answer 46

The first two days you have a white tongue with red papillae (look like little red dots). After this it looks more raw and red

Question 47

Name ONE cranial nerve where the herpes simplex virus (Type I) remains dormant.

Answer 47

Trigeminal Nerve

Question 48

Describe the appearance of lesions associated with cold sores.

Answer 48

Painful fluid lesions around the mouth that scab and then heal. Prior to the lesions it often begins as a tingling on the lip as the virus travels down the nerve

Question 49

Using definitions, compare ‘chickenpox’ and ‘shingles’.

Answer 49

Both are i**nfectious viral diseases** caused by the **varicella zoster virus.** Chicken pox is a highly infectious viral disease caused by the varicella zoster virus. - Vesicular eruptions on the skin appear over three to five days mostly on the head, neck, and trunk. - It is very itchy. Shingles are also an infection by the varicella zoster virus but it is **following a chickenpox infection.** - For one to two days before the rash emerges you will see burning/ itching/ tingling. - Then eruptive phase, producing skin lesions similar to chicken pox and, - causing severe dermatomal pain, altered sensation and vesicular rash in the affected dermatome

Question 50

Describe the distribution of lesions / rash in ‘chickenpox’ and ‘shingles’.

Answer 50

Chicken pox: mostly on the head, neck and trunk Shingles: in the location that the infected nerve relates to on the dermatome. Commonly it is the thoracic nerve or trigeminal nerve so therefore affecting the thoracic region or the head and face.

Question 51

List ONE serious complication of chickenpox.

Answer 51

1. Infection because of scratching 2. Encephalitis 3. Viral pneumonia

Question 52

Using definitions, compare ‘whooping cough’ and ‘tuberculosis’.

Answer 52

Whooping Cough Vs TB * Both Bacterial Bordetella Pertussis Vs pus producing Mycobacterium tuberculosis * Cough with whoop on greathing in Vs chronic Cough + more systemic symptoms * Cough Vs lungs and other organs * Lasts 3-6 weeks Vs can attack straight away or lay dormant TB is a **chronic granulomatis disease** where bacteria can replicate within the macrophages and spread to nearby lymph nodes, leading to the formation of small granulomas, which are clusters of immune cells that wall off the bacteria. * If these clusters are not eliminated by the immune system they become active immediately, later or remain dormant

Question 53

List ONE bacterial cause of whooping cough.

Answer 53

Bordetella Pertussis One way to remember it is to associate the "Bordetella" part with the name of the bacteriologist who discovered it, Jules Bordet. The "pertussis" part is derived from Latin, meaning "intense cough."

Question 54

Describe the cough associated with whooping cough.

Answer 54

A desperate attempt to breathe in creates a whooping sound. The cough does not respond to usual cough medication and gets worse over three to six weeks, presenting in the form of attacks

Question 55

Describe briefly the pathophysiology of tuberculosis.

Answer 55

**Granulomas** are the hallmark of TB infection. 1. TB is primarily transmitted through the air when the infected person coughs, sneezes or speaks, releasing tiny droplets containing the bacteria. 2. When inhaled the bacteria enters the lungs and replicates within the macrophages and spreading to nearby lymph nodes. 3. This leads to the formation of small granulomas which are clusters of immune cells that wall off the bacteria. 4. The immune system may be able to contain the infection in which case the bacteria remains dormant but if the immune system is weak or becomes weak it can progress to active TB. 5. The granulomas breakdown, releasing the bacteria into the lungs and potentially spreading to the other areas such as CNS, lymph, circulation, genitourinary, bones, joints and skin. The granuloma is the body's attempt to contain the bacteria and prevent the spread. However they can also contribute to tissue damage and inflammation

Question 56

List ONE bacterial cause of tuberculosis.

Answer 56

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 57

List TWO signs and / or symptoms more characteristic of tuberculosis.

Answer 57

Fever Chronic cough, Purulent/ bloody sputum Night sweats Severe malaise. Weight loss, anorexia

Question 58

Describe ‘Koplik spots’ seen in measles.

Answer 58

Small grey spots on oral mucosa opposite molar teeth These occur in the first phase along with non specific cold symptoms such as a cough, runny nose, red eyes and fever. Phase two is known as the eruptive phase and that is when we see the rash

Question 59

Name TWO glands affected by the mumps virus.

Answer 59

Parotid glands - the pair of salivary glands that sit in front of the ears. Usually starts with one and moves to the other. Other salivary glands

Question 60

List ONE complication of mumps.

Answer 60

Make sterility caused by testicular inflammation – in 30% of cases

Question 61

Name ONE major complication of the ‘rubella’ virus.

Answer 61

Abnormal foetal development [birth defects] Can cause miscarriage and foetal death

Question 62

Describe any TWO signs and / or symptoms associated with viral hepatitis in the following stages: a. Pre-icteric stage b. Icteric stage

Answer 62

Hepatitis is an acute viral infection of the liver a. Pre-icteric stage - malaise and diarrhoea b. Icteric stage - **jaundice**, pale stools, dark urine, **pruritic skin**, enlarged liver, impaired blood clotting

Question 63

List ONE serious complication of viral hepatitis.

Answer 63

Chronic liver disease - 85% of hep C becomes chronic

Question 64

Name THREE viruses that can cause hepatitis.

Answer 64

Hepatitis virus types A, B, C, D and E.

Question 65

Name which area of the brain is affected by the ‘polio virus’.

Answer 65

The polio virus targets anterior horn cells of the CNS (motor) and has no cure

Question 66

Describe in detail the pathophysiology of Human Immunodeficiency Viral (HIV) infection.

Answer 66

**Entry** * HIV binds to CD4 receptors which are found on T helper cells and macrophages * The viral envelope and cell membrane fuse and the viral RNA enters the cell **Replication** * Viral RNA is converted by an enzyme called reverse transcriptase into viral DNA * Using integrase it integrates into the host cell DNA * The viral DNA forces the host cell to produce viral DNA and proteins **Spread:** * Viral RNA and proteins are synthesised in the host cell cytoplasm and assembled into a new virus articles that bud off. **Immune system:** * Action leads to the gradual depletion of CD4 and T helper cells, impairing the immune systems ability to mount an effective response to pathogen leading to increased susceptibility to infections and other complications

Question 67

Name the T-cell affected by HIV.

Answer 67

T-Helper Cells

Question 68

Discuss the following statement: HIV is transmitted by casual contact’

Answer 68

This statement is false. HIV is not transmitted by casual contact such as toilet seats or sharing eating utensils. The HIV virus is fragile and easily destroyed outside the body so only active for a short time outside of the body. HIV is primarily transmitted through blood and semen and there is a low risk with saliva and vaginal secretions.

Question 69

Explain why a pregnant woman infected with HIV would choose to: a. Have a caesarean section b. Not breastfeed her baby

Answer 69

a. Have a caesarean section There is an increased risk of transmission during birth because it can be transmitted through blood and birth is a bloody business! b. Not breastfeed her baby The risk is not known but there may be a risk of transmission through breastfeeding

Question 70

Explain why diagnostic tests for HIV antibodies are often inaccurate in the first 2 weeks to 6 months of HIV infection.

Answer 70

There is a delay in the appearance of HIV antibodies from anything between two weeks to six months. Therefore during this window tests are inaccurate

Question 71

List TWO signs / symptoms of HIV progression: a. 1‒6 weeks post infection b. Late stage

Answer 71

a. 1‒6 weeks post infection * 50% of people are symptomatic * Flu/glandular fever like ... sore throat, fever, malaise, muscle/joint pain, rash, swollen lymph nodes * Negative antibody tests likely but viral RNA an P24 core protein high b. Late stage * huge reduction CD4 count and rise in viral load * severely impaired immune function * opportunistic infections can cause disease * AIDS diagnosis based on T helper cell count (less than 14%) and presence of opportunistic infections such a pneumonia, TB, Candida, some cancers, Herpes zoster

Question 72

Name FOUR opportunistic infections which may occur with HIV infection.

Answer 72

* Current pneumonia * active TB * candida - oral and vaginal * lymphoma * herpes Zoster * Herpes simplex

Question 73

Describe ONE key difference between ‘HIV’ and ‘AIDS’ (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).

Answer 73

HIV Immunodeficiency virus that attacks white blood cells. Directly transmissible AIDS Develops from HIV and describes later stages of HIV when the immune system is severely impaired. Not transmissible.

Question 74

Define dysentery.

Answer 74

An infection of the intestines that causes diarrhoea containing blood and/or mucus

Question 75

List ONE characteristic sign and / or symptom of dysentery.

Answer 75

* Diarrhoea with mucus and blood * Cramping and possible nausea/vomiting

Question 76

Name the infective organism that causes malaria

Answer 76

Plasmodium Species – a protozoa

Question 77

Describe in detail how malarial infection develops in the human body.

Answer 77

There are three stages in the malaria life cycle: mosquito, human liver, erhtrocyte stage Mosquito: Infected female mosquito bites the human. Human Liver: Plasmodium parasites taken up by the liver where they proliferate and mature (and some varieties lie dormant for up to a year) Erythrocytes: * Spread to the erythrocytes and proliferate further. * Symptoms such as fever begin * Infected cells burst and spread infection Mosquito: Protozoan gamettes are formed and taken up by mosquito during a blood meal

Question 78

Describe the fever associated with malaria.

Answer 78

Cyclical fever attacks depending on the type of malaria. Chills/shivering >>> then fever for several hours >>> followed by extreme sweating >>> and then chills/shivering.

Question 79

List TWO key signs of malaria AND explain why they develop.

Answer 79

Splenomegaly Hepatomegaly Jaundice All of these occur because of excessive haemolysis.

Question 80

Using definitions compare ‘chlamydia’ with ‘gonorrhoea’.

Answer 80

Both are very common sexually transmitted bacterial infections that can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and subsequent risk of infertility. Chlamydia is caused by the Chlamydia Trachomatis bacteria.Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria Gonorrhoea bacteria.

Question 81

Describe TWO signs and / or symptoms in a male affected by chlamydia.

Answer 81

A male affected by chlamydia may have * a milky white or yellow discharge from the penis * epididymitis - Epidydimis is a tube that is attached to each of the testicles. Sperm cells move from the testicles into the epididymis, where they finish maturing and are stored. * dysuria but in 50% of cases it is asymptomatic. For females it is 80% is asymptomatic and one sign would be yellow vaginal discharge

Question 82

List ONE complication of chlamydia.

Answer 82

Inflammatory disease that can lead to infertility

Question 83

Describe THREE keys signs and / or symptoms of gonorrhoea in a female.

Answer 83

Female affected by gonorrhoea might have a yellow vaginal discharge, dysuria, irregular vaginal bleeding, lower abdominal pain and pain during sex. In 50% of cases they will be asymptomatic. 90% of males will be symptomatic and have yellow penile discharge and disurea

Question 84

Name the specific virus that causes genital herpes.

Answer 84

Herpes simplex virus - mostly type 2. Type 1 tends to be oral herpes

Question 85

Describe the lesions associated with genital herpes Vs Genital Warts

Answer 85

Genital Herpes: Initially painful vesicles and then shallow ulcers Genital warts: Flat lesions on the vagina, cervix, penis

Question 86

State ONE way in which ‘syphilis’ is transmitted.

Answer 86

Enters the body via damaged skin or mucous membranes. Examples of this could be through sexual contact or pregnancy if the bacteria cross the placenta

Question 87

Name the specific virus that causes genital warts.

Answer 87

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

Question 88

Name one sexually transmitted disease that is caused by (a) bacterium (b) Virus:

Answer 88

(a) bacterium * Gonorrhoea – Neisseria Gonorrhoea * Chlamydia – Chlamydia Trachomatis * Syphilis – Treponema Pallidum (b) Virus: * Genital warts – Human Papillomavirus (HPV) * Genital Herpes - Herpes Simples Virus – Type 11