Infectious Diseases - Pre-reading Flashcards

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1
Q

What are transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs)?

A

a group of progressive, invariably fatal, conditions that are associated with prions and affect the brain (encephalopathies) and nervous system of many animals, including humans, cattle, and sheep.

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2
Q

What are prions?

A

An infectious agent made of misfolded proteins with the ability to transmit their misfolded shape onto normal variants of the same protein. They characterize several fatal and transmissible neurodegenerative diseases in humans and many other animals e.g. TSEs

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3
Q

What is “positive” in the bacterial gram testing?

A

Pepticoglycan wall - a massive, thick wall will stain positive.

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4
Q

What are the 3 types of fungi?

A
  1. Yeasts - single cells but many form biofilms, reproduce by budding, some can can form elongated filament like buds
  2. Moulds - grow as filaments (hyphae), produce spores
  3. Dimorphic fungi
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5
Q

What is the infectious cause of otitis externa?

Why is it difficult to treat?

A

Psuedomonas aeruginosa

Forms a protective biofilm, resistant to many abx

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6
Q

What is this organism?

A

Gram positive and in pairs = strep. pnuemoniae

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7
Q

Which is the most haemolytic and most virulent strep?

Give examples of each

A

Beta-haemolytic - strep pyogenes

Alpha-haemolytic - strep pneumoniae

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8
Q

What are the common colonisers of the upper airways, skin and urinary tract?

  • Pharyngitis
  • Pneumonia
  • Skin and soft tissue infections
  • Urinary tract infections
A
  • Pharyngitis: Group A strep
  • Pneumonia: S. pneumoniae
  • Skin and soft tissue infections: Beta-haemolytic streptococci (especially Group A Strep)
  • Urinary tract infections: Group B strep, enterococci
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9
Q

what gram positive cocci causes UTI in young women?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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10
Q

Name 3 invasive fungal infections from environmental fungi (collonise airway etc only transiently)

A
  1. Invasive aspergillosis
  2. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
  3. Cryptococcal meningitis
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11
Q

How many blood cultures do you need to take?

A

2 sets (of 2 bottles) from 2 different sites

Total blood volume 10-20ml

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12
Q

What is a test that if negative rules out candidaemia?

A

Beta-D-glucan test

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13
Q

What test is used to diagnose some resp viruses?

A

NAAT

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14
Q

What is the HIV window period?

how long is it nowadays?

A

The window period is time between potential exposure to HIV infection and the point when the test will give an accurate result.

2-3 weeks

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15
Q

What is initiation of treatment prior to determination of a firm diagnosis • typically broad-spectrum (wide wild guess) abx?

A

Empiric therapy

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16
Q

What are some bacterial causes of traveller’s diarrhoea? (yessc)

A

YESSC:

  1. Yersinia enterocolitica,
  2. E.coli O157:H7
  3. Shigella,
  4. Salmonella,
  5. Campylobacter

(e.coli and shigella → shiga toxin → HUS haemolytic anaemia + AKI + thrombocytopaenia)

17
Q

What is dysentry?

A

intestinal inflammation, primarily of the colon.

It can lead to mild or severe stomach cramps and severe diarrhea with mucus or blood in the feces.

Without adequate hydration, it can be fatal.

18
Q

What is the most common cause of dysentry?

A

Infection with the Shigella bacillus

19
Q

What is Guillan-Barre Syndrome?

A

a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system.

The initial symptoms are typically changes in sensation or pain along with muscle weakness, beginning in the feet and hands.

20
Q

Where is the most common source for candidaemia?

A

Gut flora

Candida can translocate from the gut into the bloodstream if the epithelial lining becomes damaged microscopically (sepsis) or macroscopically (perforation, obstruction, necrosis).

21
Q

How are fungal infections classified? Give an example of each

A

Superficial

These infections can occur in anyone and are common. People with immunocompromise are however more at risk and can have a more severe presentation. Examples include patients with HIV or diabetes.

  • Oral and vaginal thrush - caused by Candida sp.
  • Tinea, for example athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) or ringworm (tinea capitis) - caused by the dermatophyte group.
  • Fungal nail infection (onychomycosis) - caused by the dermatophyte group.
  • Pityriasis versicolor - caused by Malessezia furfur.

Subcutaneous

These infections are not common in the UK and occur mainly in tropical countries. They affect the dermis, subcutaneous tissue and adjacent bones and there is often some degree of immunocompromise.

Deep

These infections occur in people who are immunocompromised. They may be receiving drugs to suppress their immune systems e.g. cancer chemotherapy and infliximab, or may have advanced HIV.

  • Invasive Candida sp. - e.g. candidaemia in ICU patients with central lines that have bypassed the barrier made by the skin.
  • Invasive Aspergillus fumigatus - patients who have had transplants or chemotherapy.
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) - patients who have HIV or low lymphocytes.
  • Cryptococcal meningitis - patients who have HIV or other severe immunosuppression. Caused by Cryptococcus neoformans.
22
Q

What is the scientific name for chicken pox?

What is the most common complication?

A

Primary varicella zoster infection

Pneumonitis

23
Q

What are the 4 most important herpes viruses?

A
  1. Herpes simplex -1
  2. Herpes Simplex 2
  3. EBV
  4. cytomegalovirus
24
Q

What is significant about herpes viruses?

A

Following primary infection, herpesviruses are able to become latent and establish lifelong infection. They can periodically reactivate, often when a patient’s immunity is low.

25
Q

What cancer is EBV associated with?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

26
Q

Who does CMV (cytomegalovirus) infect?

A

CMV causes disease in patients who are immunocompromised, for example retinitis in patients with HIV , and

tissue rejection in transplant patients.

27
Q

What is the difference between shingles and chickenpox?

A

Chickenpox is the primary infection whereas shingles represents reactivation of latent VZV (varicella zoster virus).

Following primary infection, VZV lies dormant in single sensory nerves or dorsal root ganglia. Reactivation is usually triggered by immune compromise and leads to a rash in the area of skin supplied by these nerves - a dermatome. One or multiple dermatomes may be affected. Dermatomes do not cross the mid-line of the body.

28
Q

If a pregnant woman can’t remember if she’s ever had chickenpox / shingles then what should happen?

A

She should be tested for VZV IgG. If positive, no action is needed.

If negative, then the mother is at risk becoming infected and she should be given VZV immunoglubulin (antibodies), to provide her with temporary passive immunity.

29
Q

How are parasites classified?

A
  • Ectoparasites – parasites that live on the skin and hair (ecto – outside).
  • Endoparasites – parasites that live on mucosal surfaces such as the gut and in tissue (endo – within).
    • Helminths – worm-like parasites, mostly visible to the naked eye (e.g. pin worm)
    • Protozoan parasites – single-celled, eukaryotic organisms that are usually motile (e.g. malaria)
30
Q

Name 2 helminths you can catch in the UK

what will you see on the bloods?

A

Pinworm is caused by Enterobius vermicularis and is a common helminthic infection in school-age children. Even if asymptomatic, everyone in the same house as a patient infected with pinworm should be treated with mebendazole.

Diphyllobothrium latum or fish tape worm. Caught be eating undercooked fish or sashimi.

eosinophilia

31
Q

Name some ectoparasites you can catch in the uk

A

Scabies (Sarcoptes scabiei)

ticks

lice (pubic, head, body)

32
Q

What protozoa can you catch in the UK?

A

Toxoplasma gondii is a common protozoan infection. Primary infection in pregnancy can be harmful to the foetus - it is a “TORCH” microorganism. Kittens shed the cysts in their faeces hence the advice to pregnant women not to clean litter trays.

Giardia lamblia - The main symptom is watery diarrhoea and patients often complain of excessive flatulence. The symptoms can last for weeks without treatment and can sometimes cause malabsorption. The treatment for giardiasis is metronidazole or tinidazole.

Cryptosporidium parvum is another gastrointestinal protazoa that causes watery diarrhoea. It mainly occurs in young children and immunocompromised patients.

Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually-transmitted infection that causes vaginal and urethral discharge.

33
Q

What are TORCH infections?

A

vertically transmitted infections that are capable of significantly influencing fetal and neonatal morbidity and mortality

Toxoplasmosis

Others (e.g., syphilis, varicella, parvovirus B19 infection, listeriosis)

Rubella

Cytomegaly (CMV)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection

34
Q

What is Strongyloidiasis? aka threadworm

A

Strongyloidiasis is an infection caused by the intestinal nematode Strongyloides stercoralis. Transmission occurs widely in tropical and subtropical areas, but also in countries with temperate climates.[1] The primary mode of infection is through larvae penetrating the skin. Strongyloides larvae migrate from subcutaneous tissues into the venous circulation, then to the lungs. Larvae migrate up the airways, are swallowed, and establish chronic infection in the intestinal tract as adults. New larvae continue this cycle within the human host creating indefinite auto-infection; meaning that, without treatment, infection is lifelong.

35
Q

What are the tests for hep B, C and HIV?

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen

Hepatitis C antibody

HIV antibody

36
Q

What are the common bacterial pathogens causing infective endocarditis? x5

A
  1. Streptococcus viridans group (most common cause – 40-50%)
  2. Staphylococcus aureus (especially acute presentation, IVDUs)
  3. Staphylococcus epidermidis (mainly in prosthetic valves)
  4. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer
  5. Streptococcus mitis (viridans group streptococcus): following dental work
37
Q

What is the best choice antibiotic for empirical treatment of septic arthritis?

A

IV flucloxacillin

Septic arthritis is most commonly caused by gram positive cocci, especially Staphylococcus aureus. As the infection is in a deep site, intravenous flucloxacillin is the first line choice.