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EXAM MCQ Sep 06 > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

The color of blood observed in nitrate poisoning is:

a. bright red
b. cherry red
c. slight brown
d. chocolate brown
e. dark, unoxygenated

A

D

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2
Q

The federal regulatory activities pertaining to animal drugs, medicated feeds and feed safety are performed under the provision of:

a. The Virus Serum and Toxin Act of 1913
b. The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
c. The Wholesome Meat & Poultry Inspection Act.
d. The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act
e. The Agriculture Marketing Agreement Act.

A

B

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3
Q

The regulatory control of animal biologics is vested in:

a. USPHS.
b. HHS.
c. FDA.
d. USDA.
e. NIH.

A

D

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4
Q

Which one of the following types of biologics is used to confer passive immunity?

a. Toxoid.
b. Bacterin.
c. Antitoxin.
d. Vaccine.
e. Bacterin-toxoid.

A

C

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5
Q

The duration of the depressant effect of pentobarbital sodium is prolonged by pretreatment with chloramphenicol. The mechanism of this effect is:

a. inhibition of the microsomal drug metabolizing system by chloramphenicol.
b. neuromuscular blocking effect of chloramphenicol.
c. adrenergic blockade.
d. competitive inhibition of pentobarbital antagonists.
e. cholinergic blockade.

A

A

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6
Q

Mass immunization of the animal population as a preventive technique provides:

a. the ability of the resistant individual to move freely, always carrying his protection with him.
b. lifetime protection against the disease organism.
c. perfect protection as afforded by all immunizing agents.
d. practically no problems of side reactions from the immunizing agent.
e. little or no possibility of the spread of the live viruses or other diseases.

A

A

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7
Q

The oldest tool of preventive Medicine is:

a. Immunization
b. Chemoprophylaxis
c. Quarantine
d. Education
e. Environmental hygiene

A

C

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8
Q

The definitive host for the adult stage of Taenia saginata is:

a. humans
b. cattle
c. swine
d. sheep
e. dogs

A

A

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9
Q

Correct and early diagnosis of Mucosal Disease is important because:

a. we have none in this country.
b. it closely resembles Rinderpest and Contagious Pleuropneumonia.
c. affected animals should be destroyed at once.
d. disease spreads to all species of animals.
e. disease is contagious to humans

A

B

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10
Q

The most frequently reported zoonotic disease in the United States is:

a. Tuberculosis.
b. Brucellosis.
c. Salmonellosis.
d. Anthrax.
e. Pasteurellosis

A

C

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11
Q

Leptospirosis in cattle:

a. lends itself to an eradication program because the vaccine is very effective.
b. is a reportable disease and federal indemnity is available in local control programs.
c. usually disappears entirely from a herd following an acute outbreak.
d. may spread from reservoirs in domestic or wild animals and is not easily eradicated.
e. has been eradicated

A

D

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12
Q

The market cattle identification program is most valuable for:

a. eliminating the need for health certificates.
b. indicating which herds of cattle are likely to be affected with brucellosis or tuberculosis.
c. determining the incidence of brucellosis and tuberculosis within a given marketing area.
d. removing infected animals from interstate commerce.
e. leptospirosis survey.

A

B

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13
Q

Pseudorabies virus can naturally or experimentally infect:

a. swine only.
b. cattle and sheep only.
c. most animals and birds but not man.
d. all mammals and some birds.
e. all vertebrates.

A

C

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14
Q

The serum neutralization test is currently used for diagnosis of Aujesky’s Disease. The chief disadvantage is:

a. too time consuming and expensive.
b. lacks sensitivity.
c. does not detect early infections.
d. too many other diseases cross-react.
e. lacks reliability

A

A

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15
Q

Which of the following disinfectants would be the one choice to destroy the viruses of Newcastle’s Disease, African Swine Fever, Duck Virus Enteritis, Fowl Plague and Hog Cholera?

a. Acetic acid.
b. Sodium hydroxide.
c. Ortho-phenylphenol.
d. Isopropyl alcohol.
e. Calcium hypochlorite

A

C

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16
Q

The causative agent of which of the following diseases is prohibited entry into the United States by law?

a. Contagious pleuropneumonia.
b. Rinderpest.
c. Foot and Mouth Disease.
d. African Swine Fever.
e. African Horse Sickness

A

C

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17
Q

Successful tracebacks to herds of origin of tuberculosis cattle found on regular kill are most dependent on:

a. extent of lesions found in the animal.
b. quality of the specimens submitted to laboratory.
c. collection submission of all man made identification.
d. which field veterinary medical officer investigates the case.
e. state in which cow was slaughtered.

A

C

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18
Q

Tissues for histopathologic examination for tuberculosis should be submitted to the laboratory:

a. on dry ice.
b. in chloramine-T solution.
c. in 10 percent formalin solution.
d. in saturated sodium borate solution.
e. in isopropyl alcohol

A

C

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19
Q

When an M. bovis herd is located, the herds of origin of lesion animals should be tuberculin tested using the:

a. single caudal test - 0.1 ml
b. single caudal test - 0.2 ml
c. single cervical test - 0.2 ml
d. comparative cervical test
e. single cervical test - 0.1 ml

A

A

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20
Q

A large tuberculin reaction is an indication of:

a. M. bovis infection.
b. sensitivity.
c. M. avium complicating infection.
d. a poor injection.
e. Johnne’s Disease

A

B

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21
Q

The most effective way of eliminating brucellosis infection from a commercial swine herd is by:

a. dividing the herd into isolated units and testing each at 60 day intervals and removing the reactors.
b. depopulating the herd and restocking with swine from brucellosis free herds.
c. moving the herd to new ground and preventing access to buildings until they have been thoroughly disinfected.
d. selecting only gilts for breeding and disposing all sows to slaughter.
e. adding a high level of chlortetracycline to the feed of infected sows for three weeks before they are bred to SPF boars

A

B

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22
Q

The most important routes of brucellosis exposure in swine are:

a. oral and venereal.
b. ocular and inhalation.
c. cutaneous and intrathecal.
d. ocular and oral.
e. streak canal and cutaneous

A

A

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23
Q

Most brucellosis diagnoses in the United States are based on:

a. recovery of the brucella organism.
b. serological tests based on the presence of agglutinins against brucella.
c. serological tests based on complement fixing antibodies against brucella.
d. serological tests based on antiglobulin serological tests against brucella.
e. clinical evidence such as abortion, retained placenta, metritis, mastitis, arthritis and sterility

A

B

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24
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the relationship between brucella infection and abortion in cattle?

a. Cattle that abort once can be expected to abort in succeeding pregnancies.
b. Abortion is seldom observed in infected herds maintained as a closed unit.
c. Up to 20% of pregnant, non-vaccinated, infected cattle never abort.
d. Animals introduced into an infected herd are quite resistant for the first year.
e. Possibly 80% of pregnant, non-vaccinated, infected cattle never abort.

A

C

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25
Q

Strain 19 vaccinated cattle that become infected under the same conditions of exposure as non-vaccinated cattle:

a. reveal the same incubation period as non-vaccinated cattle.
b. will reveal shorter incubation periods than non-vaccinated cattle.
c. have a higher abortion rate than non-vaccinated cattle.
d. have a longer incubation than non-vaccinated cattle.
e. will never abort

A

D

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26
Q

The brucellosis ring test:

a. is the primary test for screening market cattle samples.
b. will detect infected cows earlier than blood tests.
c. should be adjusted to compensate for different herd size.
d. has never been used in the United States.
e. is accurate regardless of condition of sample

A

C

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27
Q

Calfhood vaccination with strain 19 is approximately % effective.

a. 100
b. 40
c. 25
d. 60
e. 0

A

D

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28
Q

Brucellosis in cattle is transmitted:

a. as an aerosol.
b. by direct contact between a susceptible and infected animal.
c. only by contaminated feed and water.
d. by passage through an intermediate host, most species of ticks.
e. by sexual contact as a venereal disease.

A

B

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29
Q

Though anaplasmosis occurs in all states other than Alaska and Hawaii, the prevalence is higher in:

a. lower Mississippi delta.
b. New England.
c. Great Lakes states.
d. Pacific Northwest.
e. Atlantic coast states

A

A

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30
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae causes what percent of all mastitis in the United States?

a. 5
b. 25
c. 45
d. 65
e. 85

A

C

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31
Q

Which of the following diseases of livestock or poultry has never occurred in the United States?

a. Foot and mouth.
b. Hog cholera.
c. Rinderpest.
d. Fowl plague.
e. Scrapie

A

C

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32
Q

Aujesky’s disease is caused by which of the following:

a. myxovirus.
b. paramyxovirus.
c. herpesvirus.
d. adenovirus.
e. enterovirus

A

C

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33
Q

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by which of the following?

a. virus.
b. rickettsia.
c. mycoplasma.
d. protozoa.
e. helminth.

A

C

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34
Q

Which of the following is most likely to produce infection on man?

a. Sheep Pox.
b. Rift Valley Fever.
c. Foot and Mouth Disease.
d. Newcastle Disease.
e. Fowl Plague

A

B

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35
Q

Adrenergic drugs are commonly referred to as:

a. sympatholytic agents.
b. sympathomimetic agents.
c. adrenolytic agents.
d. blocking agents.
e. antagonist agents

A

B

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36
Q

The antibacterial action of penicillin is highest:

a. when administered concomitantly with a bacteriostatic drug.
b. during the period of greatest bacterial multiplication.
c. against bacteria in the resting phase
d. after metabolic activation.
e. when formulated with dihydrostreptomycin

A

B

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37
Q

The mechanism of action of sulfonamide drugs is:

a. competitive inhibition of PABA.
b. noncompetitive inhibition of PABA.
c. folic acid mediated.
d. stimulation of PABA metabolism.
e. host cell mediated

A

A

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38
Q

Four types of syndromes are commonly mentioned with regard to sulfonamide toxicity: which of the following is NOT associated with one of these syndromes?

a. Crystalluria.
b. Drug shock.
c. Aciduria.
d. Renal tubular obstruction.
e. Hypersensitivity

A

C

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39
Q

Which of the following mycotoxins is associated with prolonged estrus and vulvovaginitis?

a. Slaframine.
b. Aflatoxin B1.
c. Aflatoxin G1.
d. Rubratoxin.
e. Zearalenone

A

E

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40
Q

Diphenylamine blue is a sensitive and reliable field test for:

a. arsenic.
b. nitrate/nitrite.
c. cyanide.
d. lead.
e. strychnine

A

B

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41
Q

The poisonous plant whose toxic factors inactivate thiamine in the horse and depress bone marrow function in the cow is:

a. Pigweed.
b. Lupine.
c. Bracken Fern.
d. Senecio.
e. Dogbane

A

C

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42
Q

The specific mechanism of action of chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides is:

a. tie up of sulfhydryl enzymes.
b. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
c. inhibition of pseudocholinesterase.
d. unknown.
e. increased epinephrine production

A

D

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43
Q

What drug(s) can a licensed veterinarian order/prescribe for use in animal feeds for treating food producing animals?

a. None.
b. Any approved new animal drug premix for use in animal feeds.
c. Any drug premix which has been approved for food animal use which the veterinarian may legally obtain.
d. Penicillin and streptomycin only.
e. Any drug approved for veterinary use

A

C

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44
Q

If a feed manufacture holds approved medicated feed applications (Form FD 1800) for two different drugs for the same species of animal, the manufacturer can:

a. make a drug combination product providing he does not change the approved concentration of the drugs.
b. only make the two separate feeds as approved by the application.
c. manufacture the drugs in either separate or combination forms depending on the demand by the customers.
d. request approval from the food and drug administration for permission to make a combination feed to reduce feed inventory and record keeping.
e. None of the above

A

B

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45
Q

The sponsor of an investigational new animal drug (INAD) shall assure himself that the new animal drug is shipped only to clinical investigators who are:

a. affiliated with recognized colleges, universities or other institutions specializing in new animal research.
b. qualified by scientific training and/or experience to evaluate the safety and/or effectiveness of the new animal drug.
c. Qualified by possession of a degree in veterinary medicine from a recognized institution.
d. qualified by membership in at least one board certified medical speciality.
e. qualified by approval of the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council

A

B

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46
Q

A shipment or other delivery of a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug intended solely for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research purposes shall be exempt from section 512 (a) and (m) of the act if it is labeled as follows:

a. “Caution: for use only by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”
b. “Caution: contains a new animal drug for investigational use only in laboratory research animals or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.”
c. “Caution: contains a new animal drug for investigational use in all food-producing animals. Not for use in humans.”
d. “Caution: for veterinary research only. Follow label directions carefully. Not for use in humans.”
e. “Caution: for veterinary clinical trials only. Use only for species as stated on the labeling. Not for use in humans.

A

B

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47
Q

The toxic principles of Pigweed and Lamb quarter are respectively:

a. nitrate and alkaloid.
b. alkaloid and oxalate.
c. oxalate and nitrate.
d. cyanide and oxalate.
e. cyanide and nitrate

A

C

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48
Q

Molybdenosis is the result of excess molybdenum in the feed. There is a triad of feed constituents which is important to determining the response of cattle to excess molybdenum. These include molybdenum:

a. zinc and inorganic sulfate.
b. copper and inorganic sulfate.
c. copper and organic sulfate.
d. zinc and organic sulfate.
e. zinc and inorganic copper

A

B

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49
Q

The federal agency having regulatory jurisdiction over the marketing of animal drugs can utilize the regulatory tools of:

a. only by injunctions, written warnings and recalls.
b. only seizures and injunctions.
c. only prosecutions through the courts.
d. only by recalls from market channels of improper products.
e. injunctions, seizures, prosecution through the courts, written warnings, and recalls.

A

E

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50
Q

One of the following need NOT appear on the label of a federally licensed veterinary biologic:

a. True name of the product.
b. License number of the producer or permit number of the importer.
c. Name of the distributor.
d. Name and address number of the producer or permittee.
e. Serial number.

A

C

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51
Q

Which agency is responsible for testing licensed veterinary biologics?

a. National Bureau of Standards.
b. Veterinary Services Laboratories.
c. Centers for Disease Control.
d. Agriculture Research Service.
e. National Institutes of Health

A

B

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52
Q

Food producing animals which have been administered experimental biologic products must be:

a. destroyed and sent to a rendering plant.
b. buried.
c. held at least 14 days and are subject to the federal meat inspection regulations.
d. not used for human food.
e. sent to a licensed establishment for evaluation

A

C

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53
Q

Veterinary biological products presented for importation without a permit are:

a. tested before released.
b. held until a permit is issued.
c. returned to the country of origin or are destroyed.
d. used in experimental field trials.
e. sent to a licensed establishment for evaluation

A

C

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54
Q

Potency test of a licensed veterinary biological product containing more than one immunogenic fraction:

a. may be conducted on the weakest fraction.
b. is conducted using the same animals for each fraction for all products.
c. must be evaluated for each fraction.
d. are done in vitro.
e. are done in vivo

A

C

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55
Q

The master seed lot concept permits:

a. tests of each serial in vivo only.
b. tests of each serial in vitro only.
c. virus titrations in lieu of host animal tests for immunogenicity of each serial.
d. exemption from serial potency testing.
e. tests of every fifth serial for host animal potency

A

D

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56
Q

Ingredients used in licensed veterinary biological products:

a. must be sterilized before use.
b. are all subject to pasteurization.
c. must meet accepted standards of purity and quality.
d. must be derived from animal sources.
e. are evaluated by testing final products

A

C

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57
Q

USDA licensed virus vaccines and inactivated bacterial products:

a. must use formalin as the inactivating agent.
b. are exempt from purity tests.
c. must be tested to assure inactivation.
d. must contain preservatives.
e. cannot be used as diluents for live virus vaccines

A

C

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58
Q

Preservatives in licensed veterinary biologic products:

a. are limited to phenolic compounds.
b. are limited to mercurial compounds.
c. may consist of permitted combinations and antibiotics.
d. may include sulfonamides and corticosteroids.
e. are limited to multiple dose containers

A

C

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59
Q

Expiration dates of licensed veterinary products:

a. have no relation to potency of the product.
b. are determined by market demand.
c. are based on statistically acceptable stability records.
d. are computed from time of first sale.
e. are based on potency level at release

A

C

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60
Q

Which of the following conditions may be cause for the Secretary of Agriculture to informally suspend, without hearing, a U.S. Biologics Establishment License or a U.S. Biologics Product License?

a. The license is used to facilitate or effect the preparation, sale, barter, or shipment contrary to the virus-serum-toxin act, of worthless, contaminated, or harmful biologicals.
b. The licensee or permittee has violated or failed to comply with any provision of the virus-serum-toxin act or the Code of Federal Regulations.
c. The product is so labeled or advertised as to mislead or deceive the purchaser.
d. The methods of preparation of the product are faulty, or the product contains impurities or lacks potency.
e. In the case of willfulness or where the public health interest or safety so require

A

E

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61
Q

Which one of the following special directions for handling and use of desiccated modified live vaccines does NOT apply?

a. Store under refrigeration.
b. Shake well after rehydration.
c. Use immediately after rehydration.
d. Rehydrate only with potable water.
e. Avoid use of chemically sterilized syringes

A

D

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62
Q

Monkey B virus infection in man, causes:

a. shingles
b. Whartins papilliform eruptions.
c. Koplik’s spots.
d. ascending myelitis.
e. myositis.

A

D

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63
Q

Which of the following statements concerning sporotrichosis is correct?

a. Sporotrichum schenckii is the cause of disease of cattle known as Epizootic Lymphangitis.
b. Human sporotrichosis has never resulted from contact with infected animals.
c. Sporotrichum schenckii exist in nature where it has been isolated from soil, wood and plants.
d. sporotrichosis occurs mostly in large cities.
e. sporotrichosis occurs only in the United States

A

C

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64
Q

In nature the reservoir of Eastern Encephalitis virus is:

a. horses.
b. ticks.
c. wild and domestic birds.
d. wild rodents

A

C

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65
Q

Medication at intervals of NOT less than 80 or 90 days to control Fasciola hepatica infection in cattle and sheep by the use of anthelmentics is recommended because:

a. of the danger of developing drug resistance.
b. the available drugs have limited effectiveness and more frequent treatment intervals would be economically impractical.
c. it requires this time interval for the development and reingestion by the host of the encysted metacercariae following the elimination of the eggs from the host.
d. of the toxicity of the drugs used to destroy mature flukes in the bile ducts.
e. It requires this period of time for the flukes to become mature and enter the bile ducts where the drug can reach and destroy them

A

E

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66
Q

A diagnosis of Foot and Mouth Disease in a feed lot would require quarantine of:

a. only the infected cattle.
b. all animals, animal products, and feed on the premises and all adjoining farms.
c. all livestock until they have been examined and slaughtered.
d. only the cattle clinically diagnosed as having the disease.
e. No action needs to be taken because all cattle are held for slaughter.

A

B

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67
Q

The etiologic agent associated with Marek’s Disease of chickens is:

a. a rickettsial agent.
b. a chlamydial agent.
c. Herpesvirus.
d. Mycoplasma.
e. Salmonella pullorum

A

C

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68
Q

Of practical importance in the containment of Bacillus anthracis and prevention of further spread is the physiological characteristic of:

a. demand for gaseous oxygen in order to sporulate.
b. ability to grow under strict anaerobic conditions.
c. ability to form capsules.
d. chain formation in the blood stream.
e. swarming colonies on chocolate agar.

A

A

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69
Q

A diagnosis of North American Blastomycosis in a dog can be made by:

a. a skin test using blastomycin as antigen.
b. finding typical granular spheroids in sputum.
c. demonstration of granular cysts composed of branching ascuspolins.
d. demonstration of non-budding rhomboid, filamentous structures lined with small ectospores.
e. demonstration of large, spherical, thick walled budding forms in material from lesions or in tissue sections

A

E

70
Q

A chlamydia agent causes a disease in U.S. cattle characterized by sudden onset of fever, anorexia, nasal discharge, dyspnea, excessive salivation, cough and occasionally diarrhea. Recovery may occur or nervous symptoms may appear, often death follows. Which of the following diseases fits this description?

a. Malignant Catarrhal Fever.
b. Dung-lung Fever.
c. Shipping Fever.
d. Sporadic Bovine Encephalomyelitis.
e. Rabies

A

D

71
Q

The only two argasid ticks that cause significant and widespread damage to American livestock are:

a. Ornithodorus megnini and Boophilus annulatus.
b. Dermacenter albipictus and Argas persicus.
c. Argas persicus and Ornithodorus megnini.
d. Dermacenter venustus and Amblyoma maculatum.
e. Amblyoma americanum and Argas persicus

A

C

72
Q

Pediculosis due to Pediculus humanus var. corporis is principally important in a population because of:

a. anemia resulting from toxin induced cell damage.
b. irritation produced by the bites.
c. debilitation and secondary condition.
d. Louse Borne Typhus.
e. interaction with domestic animals

A

D

73
Q

Which of the following groups contains only virus induced diseases?

a. Q-fever, Cowpox, Distemper, Ecthyma, Rabies.
b. Atrophic Rhinitis, Q fever, Rabies, Vesicular Stomatitis.
c. Ecthyma (sheep), Infectious Hepatitis (dog), Blue Tongue, Ectromelia (mice).
d. Leptospirosis, Equine Infectious Anemia, Transmissible Gastroenteritis.
e. Fowlpox, Erysipelas of swine, African Swine Fever, Rabbit Myxomatosis

A

C

74
Q

The etiologic agent of Louping Ill of sheep has been transmitted by:

a. Culicoides.
b. ticks.
c. fleas.
d. mosquitoes.
e. mites

A

B

75
Q

In RNA viruses, the nucleic acid fraction represents the:

a. viral enzymes, such as thymidine kinase, which is associated with the herpesviruses.
b. specific elements required for type-specific qualities, such as hemagglutination and hemabsorption.
c. genetic information needed for virus replication.
d. phenotypic component of the virion.
e. the polymerase activity essential for assembly

A

C

76
Q

A definitive diagnosis can be made during the acute phase of canine leptospirosis through:

a. a liver function test.
b. an immunoprecipitin test.
c. a complete physical examination.
d. an agglutination test on blood plasma.
e. recovery of the organism from the blood

A

E

77
Q

Tuberculosis of primates is caused by:

a. the bovine types only.
b. the human type only.
c. avian and human types only.
d. human and bovine types only.
e. human, bovine and avian types

A

E

78
Q

To confirm a diagnosis of Pseudorabies, the laboratory animal of choice for inoculation with suspect material is the:

a. wet chick.
b. ferret.
c. hamster.
d. guinea pig.
e. kitten.

A

D

79
Q

Protein obtained by the offspring from the mother through the colostrum is frequently called:

a. active immunity.
b. innate immunity.
c. local immunity.
d. species immunity.
e. passive immunity

A

E

80
Q

An important factor in nonspecific viral immunity inherent in the host cell defense is:

a. Virolysin.
b. Complement.
c. Migratory Inhibition Factor.
d. Neuraminidase.
e. Interferon.

A

E

81
Q

Viruses within cells:

a. can only be neutralized by 19s antibody.
b. can be inactivated by phagocytized anti-DNA antibody.
c. can have phenotypic markers altered significantly by IG D
d. can readily be absorbed by non-neutralizing IG E.
e. cannot be influenced by specific antibody.

A

E

82
Q

In nature, the reservoir of Western Equine Encephalitis virus is:

a. horses.
b. rodents.
c. raccoons.
d. bats.
e. birds

A

E

83
Q

The principle vector of African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) is the genus:

a. Phlebotomus (sand flies).
b. Simulium (buffalo gnats).
c. Panstrongylus (“assassin” or kissing bugs).
d. Glossina (tsetse flies).
e. Chrysops (deer flies or mange flies)

A

D

84
Q

A farmer in an enzootic Anaplasmosis area should buy breeding bulls from:

a. stock from local ranches.
b. selected bulls negative to the Anaplasmosis test.
c. breeds resistant to Anaplasmosis.
d. herds tested free from Anaplasmosis.
e. known Anaplasmosis-free areas.

A

A

85
Q

Rickettsia have their primary pathogenic effect upon the:

a. lymphatic system.
b. integument.
c. endothelial cells lining blood vessels.
d. central nervous system.
e. urinary tract.

A

C

86
Q

Q-fever can be a diagnostic problem in animals because:

a. it is found so infrequently in livestock that it is rarely suspected.
b. there is no clinical signs of illness and no specific post-mortem findings.
c. the clinical signs of illness mimic Listeriosis closely.
d. no acute or convalescent serum antibodies are found.
e. large numbers of livestock may be found dead with severe hemorrhage as the only postmortem change

A

B

87
Q

A rash occurs in man infected with all but one of the following diseases:

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
b. Q fever.
c. Epidemic Typhus.
d. Tsutsugamushi Disease (scrub typhus).
e. Rickettsial pox.

A

B

88
Q

The chlamydia, which include the agent of psittacosis, differ from viruses in which of the following ways?

a. chlamydia have no protein coat.
b. chlamydia have both DNA and RNA.
c. viruses are responsive to broad spectrum antimicrobials while chlamydia are not.
d. chlamydia have no cell wall.
e. chlamydia possess no enzymes

A

B

89
Q

A relatively mild disease of man, which resembles chicken pox, but which is acquired from contact with mice and rodent mite vectors is:

a. Chagas, disease.
b. Rickettsial pox.
c. Rubella
d. Toxoplasmosis.
e. Q-fever

A

B

90
Q

A dermatophyte of the cat which is transmissible to man is:

a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes.
b. Trichophyton venucosum.
c. Trichophyton concentricum.
d. Microsporum canis.
e. Microsporum audonini

A

D

91
Q

A common factor in the pathogenesis of the cutaneous mycoses, of which Microsporum canis, (canine ringworm) is an example, is:

a. the organism has affinity for pulmonary alveoli and attacks cartilage.
b. organism is an opportunistic fungi which produces pseudo-membranes on mucosal surfaces.
c. organism infects only epidermis and appendages containing keratin.
d. organism infects bone and leads to production of sulfur granules.
e. organism infects soft tissue, especially muscle, causing collagen degeneration

A

C

92
Q

Candidiasis (Moniliasis) is classified as an “opportunistic” fungal disease because:

a. it produces severe fatal disease in man.
b. it only occurs in pet birds which have had close contact with man.
c. it is more frequently observed in individuals with some underlying health problems.
d. it has a many-host life cycle.
e. it never produces diseases in man

A

C

93
Q

The test for Equine Infectious Anemia, commonly known as the “Coggins Test” is:

a. an Ouchterlony precipitin test.
b. a hemagglutination inhibition test.
c. a tube agglutination test.
d. a serum neutralization test.
e. a latex agglutination test

A

A

94
Q

Many diseases such as Tuberculosis and Blastomycosis, characteristically produce a granuloma. The granuloma is characterized histologically by:

a. a caseous, necrotic center, surrounded by epithelial cells and presence of giant cells.
b. a raised edematous center surrounded by a ring of redness.
c. large amounts of fibrous connective tissue.
d. cartilage cells and matrix with some evidence of bone formation.
e. large concentrations of eosinophils and plasma cells surrounded by fibrous strands

A

A

95
Q

In order for the Brucellosis eradication efforts to be successful, transmission of the disease must be prevented or drastically reduced. Which of the following is considered the most common method by which infection is transmitted within cattle populations?

a. Direct or indirect contact with other species of infected animals.
b. Aerosol.
c. Ingestion of organisms from contaminated environment, such as streams, ponds, and pastures.
d. Natural service by infected bulls.
e. Direct cow to cow contact, usually by ingestion of contaminated vaginal discharge from an infected cow immediately preceding and subsequent to calving

A

E

96
Q

In reported nosocomial infections, which of the following pathogens is isolated least often?

a. Salmonella spp.
b. Pseudomonas spp.
c. Escherichia coli.
d. Group D Streptococcus.
e. Staphylococcus aureus

A

A

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recognized mode of transmission of Tularemia to man?
a. Inoculation of conjunctival sac while handling infected animals.
b. Inoculation of skin while dressing lagomorphs.
c Bites by ticks and arthropods.
d. Drinking contaminated water.
e. Drinking unpasteurized milk from infected cows

A

E

98
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT communicable to man?
a. Transmissible Gastroenteritis of swine.
b. Shigellosis of non-human primates.
c. Brucellosis canis infection in dogs.
d. Mycobacterium avium.
e, Toxoplasmosis

A

A

99
Q

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease commonly contracted by hunters of lagomorphs in the Western states?

a. Tuberculosis.
b. Pasteurellosis.
c. Tularemia.
d. Plague.
e. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

C

100
Q

It has been estimated that if Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) were to spread throughout the U.S. with no control, the cost to the livestock industry during the first year could reach 10 billion. One of the reasons the cost would be so high is the large number of species affected by the virus. Which of the following is NOT susceptible to FMD?

a. Sheep.
b. Goats.
c. Horses.
d. Swine.
e. Deer

A

C

101
Q

San Miguel Sea Lion Virus is similar to or identical with:

a. Vesicular Exanthema virus.
b. Contagious Ecthyma virus.
c. Vesicular Stomatitis virus (Indiana).
d. Vesicular Stomatitis virus (NJ).
e. None of the above

A

A

102
Q

The natural life cycle of St. Louis Encephalitis virus is principally:

a. rodent to mosquito to rodent, with man only rarely affected.
b. bird to mosquito to bird, followed by serious outbreaks in human populations.
c. horse to mosquito to horse, followed by serious outbreaks in human populations.
d. bird to mosquito to bird, with horse as the amplifying reservoir of infection to man.
e. rodent to mosquito to rodent, followed by serious outbreaks in human populations

A

B

103
Q

The epidemiology of California Encephalitis most closely resembles:

a. Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis.
b. Western Equine Encephalomyelitis.
c. Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis.
d. St. Louis Encephalitis.
e. Rift Valley Fever.

A

C

104
Q

The ten day quarantine period for rabies observation of biting animals is established for:

a. cow and horse.
b. dog and cat.
c. goat and sheep.
d. rodents.
e. All of the above

A

B

105
Q

Colic in horses is a clinical sign of disease seen in:

a. EEE, but not VEE nor WEE.
b. St Louis Encephalitis.
c. WEE, but not EEE nor VEE.
d. VEE, but not EEE nor WEE.
e. Japanese B Encephalitis

A

D

106
Q

The most common wild animal source of human rabies since 1980 has been the:

a. rat.
b. skunk.
c. turtle.
d. armadillo.
e. fox

A

B

107
Q

For pre-exposure immunization of man against rabies, a recommended basic immunization schedule consists of:

a. three doses of non-nervous tissue vaccine.
b. annual doses of non-nervous tissue vaccine as long as a person is at high risk.
c. a single dose of human rabies immune globulin followed by three daily doses of non-nervous tissue vaccine.
d. three doses of rabies immune globulin one month apart.
e. fourteen doses of non-nervous tissue vaccine at daily intervals

A

A

108
Q

You are the public health veterinarian in the state health department and a practicing physician calls you for consultation. He states the local paper in his town has reported an outbreak of pseudorabies in the area and that two dogs have died of the disease. The physician asks if he need be concerned about cases of the disease among the human population. You advise that:

a. several species of domestic animals and man are susceptible to this infection.
b. the disease only occurs in swine and dogs.
c. natural infections occur in swine, cattle, sheep, dogs and cats, but man is not considered susceptible.
d. man is an asymptomatic carrier of the etiologic agent and it is likely the local outbreak spread from man to animals.
e. the newspaper report is in error in that dogs are not susceptible to the disease

A

C

109
Q

The period of communicability of rabies in dogs and most biting animals is:

a. 10 to 12 days before the onset of clinical signs and during the course of the disease.
b. 3 to 5 days before the onset of clinical signs and during the course of the disease.
c. 3 to 6 weeks before the onset of clinical signs and during the course of the disease.
d. 21 days before the onset of clinical signs.
e. only while showing clinical signs

A

B

110
Q

Clinical symptoms of Yersinia enterolitica in children most often:

a. resembles those of an acute appendicitis attack.
b. resembles those of a chemical intoxication.
c. are normally limited to high fever and respiratory distress.
d. result in high fever, vomiting, diarrhea with or without blood.
e. None of the above

A

A

111
Q

Sylvatic Plague is transmitted between wildlife species by which of the following insect vectors:

a. flies.
b. mosquitoes.
c. lice.
d. fleas.
e. ticks

A

D

112
Q

Man is known to be vulnerable to infection by animal leptospiras. The most frequent route of transmission incriminated in human outbreaks of leptospirosis is:

a. transplantation.
b. ingestion.
c. inhalation.
d. transfusion.
e. skin penetration

A

E

113
Q

Which one of the following mastitis pathogens is totally dependent upon the mammary gland for survival in nature?

a. Corynebacterium pyogenes.
b. Escherichia coli.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Pseudomonas aureus.
e. Streptococcus agalactiae.

A

E

114
Q

The genus Clostridium, in which the organisms causing Botulism and Tetanus are included, is characterized by:

a. gram-negative cocci which are acid fast.
b. gram-positive non motile cocci.
c. gram-negative coccobacilli which are difficult to culture.
d. curved, slender, gram-negative, spore forming rods.
e. spore forming bacilli which grow in the absence of oxygen

A

E

115
Q

In which of the following species of wildlife has there been documented evidence that it may serve as a natural reservoir for Brucella abortus infection?

a. Deer.
b. Wild swine.
c. Raccoons.
d. Elk and bison.
e. None of the above

A

E

116
Q

The Brucella type most virulent for man is:

a. Brucella suis.
b. Brucella melitensis.
c. Brucella abortus.
d. Brucella hominis.
e. Brucella canis.

A

B

117
Q

The term “rice water” stool is generally associated with which of the following human disease entities?

a. Dengue Fever.
b. Bacillary Dysentery.
c. Cholera.
d. Amebiasis.
e. None of the above

A

C

118
Q

Which statement best describes and identifies Salmonellosis?

a. The disease is limited to mammals and birds.
b. Typhoid is infectious but not contagious.
c. Vaccination with killed bacterins is a routine end effectual measure for prevention and control.
d. Livestock, human beings and dogs may be carriers of two or more salmonella serotypes at one time.
e. Salmonellosis is an urban disease and is a rarity in rural or isolated areas.

A

D

119
Q

Enteritis necroticans an uncommon but often fatal food borne disease, is caused by which of the following etiologic agents.

a. Shigella flexneria.
b. Yersinia enterolitica.
c. Clostridium perfringens, Type A.
d. Clostridium perfringens, Type C.
e. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli

A

D

120
Q

Leptospiral abortions in cattle are caused by:

a. infection and death of the fetus from an actual in utero leptospiral infection.
b. toxic substances that are produced when the leptospira are lysed by antibody.
c. toxic substances which disturb the nutrition of the fetus by inducing pathological changes in the placentome.
d. toxic substances that are produced when the leptospira lyse erythrocytes.
e. toxic waste produced by the leptospira that are resting in the pregnant animal’s kidney tubules

A

A

121
Q

A significant percentage of human Leptospirosis cases are acquired by:

a. direct contact with urine of infected animals.
b. drinking contaminated water.
c. contact with infected humans.
d. eating contaminated foods.
e. drinking raw milk with serological positive cows

A

A

122
Q

Feral swine Brucellosis often results in:

a. endemnicity.
b. reservoirs for cattle infections.
c. human infections.
d. temporary infections in sows.
e. gross pathologic changes in sows

A

A

123
Q

Vaccination against Brucellosis in goats is best accomplished by the use of:

a. Rev. 1 (R) - registered trademark.
b. Strain 19.
c. 53H38.
d. 45/20.
e. an acetone fraction of Brucella melitensis

A

A

124
Q

Leptospirosis can best be diagnosed by:

a. a microscopic agglutination test.
b. a gel diffusion test.
c. a slide agglutination test using polyvalent antigen.
d. culture of leptospirae.
e. clinical symptoms

A

A

125
Q

Human cases of Brucellosis in the United States are contracted mostly by:

a. contact with infected animals or their tissues.
b. handling dogs infected with Brucella canis.
c. consuming unpasteurized milk and dairy products.
d. aerosol inhalation in research and diagnostic laboratories.
e. eating meat from infected animals

A

A

126
Q

Brucella abortus strain 19 vaccine is an effective tool in the control and eradication of Brucellosis because it:

a. produces a solid immunity when administered to dairy heifers.
b. established a relative degree of resistance against the disease when administered to young female calves.
c. can be used in both heifers and gilts.
d. is a killed product and causes no infection in man if accidentally injected.
e. produces agglutination titers that are easily differentiated from agglutinins due to field strains of brucella

A

B

127
Q

The major reason that Leptospirosis is NOT amenable to eradication is because:

a. adequate vaccines are not available.
b. there is a wide range of susceptible animal hosts.
c. no state-federal programs pay an indemnity for reactors.
d. new servovars are constantly being identified.
e. adequate antibiotics are not available to treat infected animals

A

B

128
Q

A single negative serological test for Brucellosis on an animal from a herd of unknown Brucellosis infection status:

a. indicates that the animal presents no significant hazard and can be safely added to a negative herd.
b. such an animal should be isolated and retested within 15 days and if negative then, can be safely added to the herd.
c. is of little significance unless the animal is from an established herd and all animals have been tested and found to be negative.
d. if culture negative, can be safely added to a negative herd.
e. the animal should be subjected to a battery of supplemental serological tests immediately and if negative can be safely added to a negative herd

A

C

129
Q

The Milk Ring Test (BRT) which is periodically conducted on composite milk samples from dairy herds under surveillance:

a. is used in lieu of collecting blood samples since this procedure does not require individual animal tests and it detects infection earlier than do blood tests.
b. Is used for reasons of economy but is not as efficient as a surveillance test as is the market cattle testing system.
c. a suspicious milk ring test is considered presumptive evidence of infection and is followed by a herd blood test.
d. is no longer in general use as a result of drastic increases in dairy herd sizes.
e. in FY 1977, approximately 80% of the herds tested in the U.S. as a result of suspicious milk ring tests disclosed infection on subsequent blood tests

A

C

130
Q

Tuberculosis in the horse is most commonly caused by:

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis.
c. Mycobacterium bovis.
d. Mycobacterium avium.
e. Mycobacterium fortuitum.

A

C

131
Q

Zoonoses may be classified according to life cycle of the pathogen Echinococcosus would be a:

a. cycle zoonosis.
b. direct zoonosis.
c. meta zoonosis.
d. sapro zoonosis.
e. simple zoonosis

A

A

132
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted from sylvatic and domestic animal hosts to man by several species of:

a. culex.
b. phlebotomus.
c. glossinia.
d. triatoma bugs.
e. None of the above

A

D

133
Q

For effective mosquito transmission of Malaria, which stage of the parasite must be ingested from the patient through the bite of a female anopheline mosquito?

a. Exoerythrocytic (liver) stage.
b. Sporozoites.
c. Sexual stage blood stage.
d. Asexual stage blood stage.
e. Any of the above

A

C

134
Q

The efforts of the U.S. Department of Agriculture to eliminate the cattle tick B. annulatus and thus bovine Babesiosis (Texas Tick Fever) by the systematic dipping of cattle in acaricide was successful because:

a. transovarial passage within the vector does not occur.
b. the vector feeds only on cattle.
c. the vector is a one host tick.
d. the life cycle of the vector (egg to egg) takes about one year.
e. the vector was eliminated in Mexico by a similar concurrent program

A

C

135
Q

Human infection with the tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium latum, is acquired by means of:

a. fecal contamination.
b. ingestion of poorly cooked pork or beef.
c. ingestion of cereal grains contaminated with rat feces.
d. ingestion of raw or partially cooked fish, especially pike.
e. children’s contact with dogs or cats

A

D

136
Q

The most recent discovery in the understanding of the life cycle and public health importance of Toxoplasma gondii is:

a. all animals susceptible to toxoplasmosis shed infective larvae in the feces.
b. the infective oocyst has only been found in the feces of infected felidae.
c. toxoplasmosis is not capable of congenital transmission to man.
d. salivary enzymes will destroy toxoplasma cysts in meat, so complete cooking is unnecessary.
e. All of the above

A

B

137
Q

Dirofilaria immitis infection in man is characterized by:

a. parasitemia, where microfilaria may be isolated from the circulating blood.
b. production of “Swimmer’s Itch”, where larval forms penetrate the skin.
c. production of solitary lung lesions resembling carcinoma or tuberculosis.
d. production of vitamin B-12 deficiency and anemia.
e. production of visceral larval migrans and eventual endophthalmitis.

A

C

138
Q

A unique finding in cases of human scabies contracted from the dog mite, Sarcoptes scabei, var. canis is:

a. no skin lesions occur in man.
b. canine scabies is not pathogenic for humans.
c. canine scabies causes severe systemic diseases in humans.
d. rarely can the scabies mite be isolated from humans in cases of scabies acquired from dogs.
e. None of the above

A

D

139
Q

Human Visceral Larval Migrans is caused by the canine helminth:

a. Ancylostoma caninum.
b. Toxocara canis.
c. Strongyloides stercoralis.
d. Trichuris vulpis.
e. Dirofilaria immitis

A

B

140
Q

Human Visceral Larval Migrans is caused by the canine helminth:

a. Ancylostoma caninum.
b. Toxocara canis.
c. Strongyloides stercoralis.
d. Trichuris vulpis.
e. Dirofilaria immitis

A

B

141
Q

Hydatosis in man is caused by:

a. Taenia solium.
b. Hymenolepis nana.
c. Hymenolepis diminuta.
d. Dipylidium caninum.
e. Echinococcus granulosus.

A

E

142
Q

The correct statement about canine scabies is that it:

a. resembles ringworm clinically.
b. is not pruritic.
c. is not transmissible to other dogs.
d. is self limiting.
e. is transmissible to man

A

E

143
Q

An example of viral infection transmitted by an arthropod vector is:

a. Brucellosis.
b. Rift Valley Fever.
c. Foot-and-Mouth Disease.
d. Shigellosis.
e. Anaplasmosis

A

B

144
Q

Exotic animal diseases pose a threat to the livestock and poultry industries of the United States. Which of the following is NOT exotic to the United States?

a. Swine Vesicular Disease.
b. Borna Disease.
c. Rinderpest.
d. Velogenic Viscerotropic Newcastle Disease.
e. Aujezsky’s Disease.

A

E

145
Q

Which of the following equine viral infections is most likely to cause abortion?

a. Arteritis.
b. Influenza.
c. Parainfluenza.
d. Equine Infectious Anemia.
e. Vesicular Stomatitis

A

A

146
Q

Viruses which are widespread among the horse population, but which rarely or only sporadically produce clinical disease, include:

a. Rhinopneumonitis.
b. Influenza A-2.
c. Equine Rhinovirus.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above

A

C

147
Q

Bovine Tuberculosis:

a. is capable of causing progressive disease in almost all warm blooded vertebrates.
b. has been totally eradicated from the United States.
c. does not affect humans.
d. lesions are restricted to the lungs.
e. radiological examination is the most frequently used means of diagnosis

A

A

148
Q

An acute or chronic, generalized or local, infectious disease of ducks and geese, often of sudden onset with high morbidity and mortality, with enteritis, submucous and subserous hemorrhages and vascular congestion; the diagnostician should immediately suspect:

a. Botulism.
b. Ornithosis.
c. Erysipelas.
d. Newcastle Disease.
e. Pasteurellosis or Fowl Cholera

A

E

149
Q

A disease occasionally reported in mink that have been fed contaminated pork product is:

a. Botulism.
b. Chastek Paralysis.
c. Transmissible Mink Encephalopathy.
d. Pseudorabies.
e. Viral Enteritis

A

D

150
Q

Which of the following statements about Anthrax is false?

a. Has worldwide distribution.
b. Caused by a gram-positive, non-motile, spore forming bacterium.
c. Outbreaks are commonly associated with acid soils which have become incubators for the organism.
d. Disease may affect humans as malignant pustules or as a fatal pneumonia.
e. Disease can be largely controlled by annual prophylactic vaccination

A

C

151
Q

Scrapie is being widely studied by the scientific community because it:

a. is an excellent model to study chronic neurologic degenerative diseases of man and animals.
b. has a short incubation period and therefore is used as a model to study similar diseases of man and animals.
c. has no human health threat and is known to be safe to work with.
d. provides a good contrast to chronic degenerative diseases of man and animals.
e. is the only known disease that has not been transmitted by laboratory procedures.

A

A

152
Q

Bluetongue is an arthropod borne disease caused by a filterable virus which affects:

a. only sheep.
b. only cattle.
c. cattle and sheep but not deer.
d. cattle, sheep and wild ruminants.
e. cattle, sheep and horses.

A

D

153
Q

Clinical manifestations of Bluetongue in cattle:

a. do not occur.
b. may be inapparent or resemble the signs observed in sheep.
c. are very different from those seen in sheep.
d. do not include foot and udder lesions.
e. are observed only in very young animals

A

B

154
Q

Bluetongue:
a. Has as its principle vector in the United States, the gnat Culicoides varripennis.
b. cannot be transmitted in cattle by natural breeding.
c. has not been transmitted by the sheep ked.
d. virus has not been isolated by the cattle louse.
infection does not produce an immunologic response

A

A

155
Q

Common cattle Scabies is caused by ectoparasites of the genus:

a. Dermanyssus.
b. Argas.
c. Antricola.
d. Psoroptes.
e. Ornithodorus

A

D

156
Q

Ectoparasites of the genera Bovicola, Haematopinus and Lonogathus are:

a. mites.
b. ticks.
c. lice.
d. fleas.
e. flies

A

C

157
Q

Equine piroplasmosis is clinically indistinguishable from:

a. Equine Encephalomyelitis.
b. Strangles.
c. Glanders.
d. Equine Infectious Anemia

A

D

158
Q

A causative agent of Equine Piroplasmosis is:

a. Trypanosoma equiperdum.
b. Theileria parve.
c. Babesia caballi.
d. Trypanasoma evansi.
e. Theileria lawrenci.

A

C

159
Q

Fowl Plague is caused by:

a. Type B influenza picornavirus.
b. Type A influenza orthomyxovirus.
c. an arbovirus.
d. Yersinia multocida.
e. Yersinia pestis.

A

B

160
Q

The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action is properly termed:

a. pharmacokinetics.
b. pharmacognosy.
c. pharmacodynamics.
d. physiopharmacology.
e. bioequivalency.

A

C

161
Q

The early serological diagnosis of an infectious disease would most likely be based on the detection of what class of antibodies?

a. Complement fixing.
b. Prexipitating.
c. IG G.
d. IG A.
e. IG M

A

E

162
Q

Cholera, a serious intestinal disease, has as its reservoir:

a. water.
b. soil.
c. man.
d. cattle.
e. rats

A

C

163
Q

Streptobacillary fever is commonly known as:

a. Lassa Fever.
b. Yellow Fever.
c. Breakdown Fever.
d. Rat Bite Fever.
e. Colorado Tick Fever

A

D

164
Q

Phlebotomus are associated with transmission of what zoonotic disease in man?

a. Herpes Simplex.
b. Leishmaniasis.
c. Plague.
d. Relapsing Fever.
e. Toxoplasmosis.

A

B

165
Q

A microorganism which causes a very severe disease is described as highly:

a. toxic.
b. virulent.
c. antigenic.
d. pathogenic.
e. immunogenic

A

B

166
Q

With respect to Tularemia, which of the following is NOT true?

a. The organism may enter through a break in the skin.
b. Wild carnivores are more often infected than wild rodents.
c. Arthropods may transmit the disease.
d. Waterborne outbreaks have been reported.
e. A vaccine is available for high risk laboratory or field workers

A

B

167
Q

Gambusia affinis has been effective in controlling:

a. rodents.
b. domestic flies.
c. sewage disposal.
d. mosquitoes.
e. ticks

A

D

168
Q

Food poisoning developing 5-30 minutes after eating the contaminated food is probably due to:

a. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
b. heavy metal toxicosis.
c. Salmonella spp.
d. Anasakidae.
e. Spirochetales

A

B

169
Q

The best method of determining if an Eschichia coli isolate is enteropathogenic for swine is:

a. cytopathic to hamster ovary cells.
b. ligated swine jejunal loops.
c. serotyping.
d. hemolysis on blood sugar.
e. presence of adherence fimbriae

A

B

170
Q

The microorganism responsible for Foot Rot in sheep is:

a. Actinobacillus pedis.
b. Clostridium novyi.
c. Streptococcus pyogenes.
d. Staphylococcus aureus.
e. Bacterioides nodosus

A

E

171
Q

Porcine Parvovirus infections in swine are associated with:

a. rhinitis.
b. reproductive failure.
c. diarrhea.
d. neoplasia.
e. central nervous system signs

A

B

172
Q

The “lentiviruses” form an important subgroup of retroviruses which include all the following viruses with the exception of:

a. Human T-lymphocytic virus type III.
b. Visna virus.
c. Feline Leukemia virus.
d. Equine Infectious Anemia virus.
e. AIDS virus

A

C

EXAM MCQ Sep 06 (1 decks)

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