Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Antimicrobial selection

A
  1. Clinical diagnosis
  2. Obtain cultures/specimens
  3. Microbial diagnosis based on most likely organism or culture/test result
  4. Select appropriate medication
  5. May need to change drug based on culture/sensitivity test results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Empiric therapy:

A

treatment of an infection before specific culture information has been reported or obtained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definitive therapy:

A

antibiotic therapy tailored to treat organism identified with cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prophylactic therapy:

A

treatment with antibiotics to prevent an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inhibit Cell Wall Synthesis

A

Beta-lactams [Penicillins (+/- Beta-lactamase inhibitors); Cephalosporins (3 generations); Monobactams; Carbapenems]
Glycopeptides
Fosfomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inhibit Protein Synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides Ansamycins
Tetracyclines Glycylcyclines
Macrolides & Ketolides Oxazolidinones
Lincosamides Phenicols
Streptogramins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inhibit Membrane Functions

A

Leptopeptides

Polymyxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anti-metabolites

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inhibit Nucleic Acid Synthesis

A

Fluoroquinolones

Furanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Beta-lactams

A
Penicillins
Cephalosporins (3 generations)
Monobactams
Carbapenems
Glycopeptides 
Fosfomycin
All antibiotics in this category contain a beta lactam ring that is essential for activity, but is also susceptible to hydrolysis by beta-lactamases, destroying the antimicrobial action of the compound. Beta-lactamase-producing staphylococci cause about 80% of community-acquired staph infections.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Penicillins

A

Inhibit the biosynthesis of peptidoglycan bacterial cell wall
Well-absorbed from GI tract, but several are unstable in acid
Bound to proteins, therefore have good distribution to most tissues
Small amount is metabolized, most excreted as unchanged drug in the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Natural penicillins:

A

Streptococcus, some Enterococcus strains, some non-penicillinase-producing Staphlococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aminopenicillins

A

Greater activity against gram-negative bacteria due to enhanced ability to penetrate the outer membrane organisms
Used for gram-negative urinary and gastrointestinal (GI) pathogens E. coli, Proteus mirabilis, Salmonella, some Shigella species, and Enterococcus faecalis; active against the common gram-negative respiratory pathogens Moraxella catarrhalis (and Haemophilus influenzae type B)
Aminopenicillins have a broader spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Combination with beta-lactamase inhibitors to broaden their spectrum:

A

Clavulanate, sulbactam, tazobactam
Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) combination is an antibiotic that belongs to the group of medicines known as penicillins and beta-lactamase inhibitors. It works by killing the bacteria and preventing their growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Probenecid

A

Gout medication =

Prolongs the half-life of PCNs and cephalosporins and increases risk for toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a patient has a failed amoxicillin course

A

If a patient has a failed amoxicillin course and the infection does not resolve or recurs within a few weeks, you would then order Amoxicillin-clavulanate (to add the beta-lactamse inhibitor).
Amoxicillin is the antibiotic of choice unless the child received it within the previous 30 days, has concurrent purulent conjunctivitis, or is allergic to penicillin; in these cases, clinicians should prescribe an antibiotic with additional β-lactamase coverage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amoxicillin is first-line therapy

A

For acute otitis media (AOM), pharyngitis, and sinusitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Penicillin (PCN) is first-line therapy

A

For streptococcal pharyngitis & syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) is first-line therapy

A

For infection following bites, including human.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Additional uses of PCNs

A

Sinusitis is treated with a penicillin if the mucopurulent drainage and cough have not improved after 10 days. Pneumonia, STIs, UTI, and Wound Infections
Endocarditis prophylaxis
Helicobacter pylori
Lyme Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinical Uses of Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor

A
Human and animal bites
Aspiration pneumonia
Foot infections in diabetic patients 
Sinusitis
Resistant otitis media
Lung abscess
Does not cover MRSA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Piperacillin and tazobactam(Zosyn):

A

About as broad as you can get

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of PCNs

A

May cause serious immediate allergic reactions. Reactions occur within 2 to 30 minutes of administration.
Patients may be given desensitization therapy.

Rash: maculopapular rash occurs 9% of time that is not allergic in origin, appears 7 to 10 days into treatment.
GI: diarrhea, nausea/vomiting (n/v), addition of clavulanate increases risk of diarrhea
Fungal overgrowth
C. difficile colitis

Most are pregnancy category B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anaphylactic shock Type I

A

Most serious, urticaria, pruritus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anaphylactic shock Type II

A

Hemolytic anemia, neutropenia (nafcillin), thrombocytopenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Anaphylactic shock Type III

A

Serum sickness (rare-urticaria, fever joint swelling, angioneuroticedema, pruritus, bronchospasm-7-12 days after), interstitial nephritis(methicillin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Anaphylactic shock Type IV

A

Contact dermatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sinusitis Common Pathogens

A
Strict criteria: persistent, not improving for at least            10 days.
Common pathogens
S. pneumoniae: 30%
H. flu: 20%
Moraxella catarrhalis: 20%
Rarely, Staphylococcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Antibiotic Choices for Sinusitis

A

Amoxicillin first line:

80 to 90 mg/kg/day in high-risk children;
45 mg/kg/day in low-risk children

Adults: 500 mg three times/day, or high-dose Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Antibiotic Choices for Sinusitis for penicillin-allergic patients

A

Children: cefdinir, cefuroxime, or cefpodoxime
Adults: doxycycline or respiratory fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sinusitis: If started on Augmentin & worsening symptoms:

A

Children: consider cefdinir, cefuroxime, cefpodoxime
Adults: consider respiratory fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cephalosporin pharmacodynamics

A

Structurally and chemically similar to PCNs
Inhibit mucopeptide synthesis in the bacterial cell wall. Bactericidal

All cephalosporins penetrate poorly into ICF and the vitreous humor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cephalosporins First Generation

A

Cefazolin (Ancef), Cephalexin (Keflex), Cefadroxil
Used for gram positive skin and soft tissue infections
Primarily active against gram-positive bacteria, S. aureus and S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cephalosporins Second Generation

A

Cefuroxime (Ceftin), Cefaclor

Active against same as first generation, plus Klebsiella, Proteus, E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cephalosporins Third Generation

A

Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime, Ceftazidime
Used for broader indications
More active against gram-negative bacteria; Does not cover MRSA; Treats community acquired bacterial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cephalosporins Fourth Generation

A

Cefepime (Maxipime)
Resistant to beta-lactamase
Primarily active against gram-positive bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Four generations of cephalosporins

A

Progression from 1st to 4th reflects an increase in gram – coverage and loss of gram + cover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cephalosporin pharmacokinetics

A

Oral formulations absorbed from GI tract
Widely distributed to most tissues
Some highly bound to proteins
Some are metabolized to less active compounds, most excreted via kidneys, as unchanged drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ADRs of cephalosporins

A

Allergies, skin rashes, arthralgia, coagulation abnormalities, anemia, neutropenia, leukopenia, thrombocytosis, fever, seizures, renal/hepatic failure

Monitor:
For diarrhea (C. difficile)
Renal function, if prolonged therapy
40
Q

Cephalexin (Keflix)

A

Strep pharyngitis
Skin infections
Second-line drug for UTI

41
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

GC/chlamydia

Cephalosporin Third Generation

42
Q

Cefexime

A

GC/chlamydia

Second-line drug for UTI

43
Q

Cefpodoxime

A

Community-acquired pneumonia

Second-line drug for UTI

44
Q

Cefuroxime

A

Community-acquired pneumonia

45
Q

Parenteral Ceftriaxone followed by oral Cefpodoxime

A

Community-acquired pneumonia

46
Q

Most cephalosporins are pregnancy category

A

B

47
Q

Cefazolin (Ancef)

A

Strep pharyngitis

Skin infections

48
Q

Cefadroxil

A

Strep pharyngitis

Skin infections

49
Q

Ertapenem (Invanz)

A

Carbapenem

Parenteral β lactamantibiotics, β lactamaseresistant. Broadest spectrum of activity.

50
Q

Doripenem (Doribax)

A

Carbapenem

51
Q

Imipenem (Primaxin)

A

Carbapenem

Parenteral β lactamantibiotics, β lactamaseresistant. Broadest spectrum of activity.

52
Q

Meropenem (Merrem)

A

Carbapenem

Parenteral β lactamantibiotics, β lactamaseresistant. Broadest spectrum of activity.

53
Q

Carbapenems

A

Bactericidal. Inhibits cell wall synthesis.
Very resistant to hydrolysis by most beta lactamases.

Most broad-spectrum agent available.
Gram + and Gram – coverage.
Great for polymicrobial infections.

54
Q

Adverse Effects of Carbapenems

A

Neurotoxicity, Seizure activity
Risk factors for seizures: impaired renal function, improper dosing, CNS disorder
If the patient has a h/o seizure disorder and this class is needed: choose Merrem over others.
GI side effects: N/V/D
Drug interactions: Don’t use with Probenicid

55
Q

Carbapenems treat

A
Streptococci (Including penicillin resistant S. Pneumoniae)
Enterococci
Enterobacteriaceae
Pseudomonas
Acinetobacter
Anaerobes, including B. fragilis

NOT effective against Enterococcusfaecium, MRSA and Clostridium difficile

Skin, bone, joint, intra-abdominal, and lower resp infections

56
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Interfere with enzymes required for the synthesis of bacterial DNA.
Extensive gram-negative activity.
Take on empty stomach for best absorption.

57
Q

ADRs of Fluoroquinolones

A

Black Box Warning: Tendonitis/tendon rupture. Can have delayed onset, 120 days to months after administration.
Elderly and children <18 y/o at higher risk.

GI: Pseudomembranous colitis
CNS: Sleep disorders, dizziness, acidosis. Do NOT prescribe for MG.
Renal/hepatic failure
CV: Angina, atrial flutter, prolonged QT

Pregnancy Category C.

58
Q

Clinical use and dosing of Fluoroquinolones

A
Complicated UTI
Pyelonephritis infections
Chronic bacterial prostatitis
Pneumonia/chronic bronchitis exacerbation 
PCN-resistant S. pneumoniae
Skin infections
Bone/joint infections
Complicated intraabdominal
Infectious diarrhea
59
Q

Clindamycin (Cleocin)

A

Lincosamide
Inhibits protein synthesis.
No gram-negative activity.
Gram-positive activity: corynebacterium acnes, gardnarella vaginalis, some MRSA
Oral dosing completely absorbed, not affected by gastric acid.

60
Q

Clindamycin (Cleocin) ADRs

A

Black Box Warning for severe colitis
Stop & to call provider diarrhea if severe.

Rash, burning, itching, erythema
Transient eosinophelia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

61
Q

Azithromycin

A

Macrolide
Unique; does not extensively inhibit CYP3A4
Very common causes of drug induced liver injury.
Chlamydia
Pertussis

62
Q

Clarithromycin

A
Macrolide
Eliminated mostly by kidneys
H. Pylori infections 
Cat C
Pertussis
63
Q

Erythromycin

A

Macrolide

Pertussis

64
Q

Telithromicin

A

Macrolide

65
Q

Fidaxomycin

A

Macrolide

66
Q

Macrolide

A

DOC for community-acquired PNA
Inhibits RNA-dependent protein synthesis.
Iinhibited by acids (require enteric coating)
Atypical and intracellular organisms resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics are often susceptible.
Potent inhibitors of CYP 450 3A4.
Metabolized by liver; excreted in bile & urine.

67
Q

ADRs of Macrolides

A

Dose-related GI: N/V, abdominal pain, cramping, diarrhea
Skin: urticaria, bullous eruptions, eczema, Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Cardiac: prolonged QT
Monitor for hearing loss

68
Q

Fidaxomicin

A

Not a typical macrolide

Specifically used for C Difficile

69
Q

Oxazolidinones

A

Inhibit bacterial ribosomal protein synthesis.
Most effective against gram-positive bacteria.
Well-absorbed orally. Does not use CYP 450 enzymes.
Avoid tyramine-rich foods.

70
Q

Linezolid

A

Oxazolidinone

71
Q

Tedizolid

A

Oxazolidinone

72
Q

Oxazolidinones ADRs

A

Diarrhea, HA, nausea

Myelosuppression reported-resolves w/ drug discontinuation. Check CBC if treatment > 2 weeks.

73
Q

Oxazolidinones Indications

A

Pneumonia
Complicated skin infections
Use less expensive drug first

Pregnancy Category C

74
Q

Sulfonamides

A

Block folic acid synthesis
Anorexia, N/V, diarrhea, abdominal pain
Jaundice/hepatitis
Avoid in G6PD deficiency. Can result in life-threatening bone marrow suppression.
Anti-metabolite, folate antagonist
Gram + and gram –
Does not cover pseudomonas, anaerobes, or group A strep
Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene): topical agent frequently used in treating burns

75
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

Anorexia, N/V, diarrhea, abdominal pain

76
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A

Inhibits acetyl coenzymes.
Inhibit gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria:
E. coli, S. pyogenes, S. pneumoniae, H. influenza, and some protozoa
Anorexia, N/V, diarrhea, abdominal pain
Jaundice/hepatitis

Long-term use check CBC

Pregnancy Cat B

77
Q

Fosfomycin

A

Inactivates enolpyruvyl transferase
Anorexia, N/V, diarrhea, abdominal pain

Pregnancy Cat B

78
Q

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

A

UTIs, MRSA, bronchitis, pneumocystis pneumonia
Acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis due to susceptible strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae or Haemophilus influenza: Bacterial meningitis, Pneumocystis (Carinii) Jiroveci Pneumonia; Sepsis; Shigellosis, Skin and soft tissue infection

Long-term use check CBC

Stomatitis, rashes, increased hypersensitivity reactions, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, photosensitivity
Headache, dizziness, peripheral neuropathy

Pregnancy Cat C

79
Q

Tetracyclines

A

Bind reversibly to the small subunit of the bacterial ribosome
Useful for gram positive, gram negative & intracellular organisms
Food decreases absorption. Milk and calcium decrease absorption.
Tetracyclines are Pregnancy Category X [except doxycycline (Pregnancy Cat D)].
Do not prescribe to pregnant women, lactating women, or children less than age 8 years (due to bone/teeth effects).
Most impacted by antacids & supplements

80
Q

Minocycline

A

Popular acne med in the tetracycline family.
Associated with pseudotremor cerebri (idiopathic intracranial hypertension).
Pt would c/o headache, blurred vision while taking minocycline. So, if pt c/o headaches while taking the med, should evaluate for this condition to protect against vision loss. Rare but notable ADR.

81
Q

Doxycycline

A

First-line therapy for Chlamydia.
Known to cause photosensitivity.
If treating chlamydia in woman of child-bearing age taking oral contraceptives, instruct to use a back-up method of birth control until her next menses.
Never use past expiration date as may cause toxicity.

82
Q

Vancomycin

A

Lipoglycopeptide. Inhibits cell wall synthesis.
Used for severe gram-positive infections, such as MRSA
Drug trough level is most commonly monitored especially if > 4 days of med needed, or receiving other nephrotoxic meds.
Trough drawn 30 minutes prior to next dose. Draw peak level of vancomycin at least 1 hour past dose administered.

83
Q

ADRs of Vancomycin

A

Ototoxicity (transient or permanent)
Nephrotocity
“Red Man” syndrome if infused too fast

84
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Inhibits Protein Synthesis
Excellent coverage against gram - (including pseudomonas).
Have synergy with PCN against Staph and enterococcus
Adverse events: Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Less toxic with once daily dosing
Monitor drug levels
Monitor kidney function
Auditory toxicity symptoms: hearing loss, tinnitus, nausea, vomiting, vertigo

85
Q

Gentamycin

A

Aminoglycoside

86
Q

Tobramycin

A

Aminoglycoside

87
Q

Amikacin

A

Aminoglycoside

88
Q

Aminoglycoside ADRs

A
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity  
Less toxic with once daily dosing
Monitor drug levels
Monitor kidney function
Hearing loss, tinnitus
N/V, vertigo
89
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A

Inhibits DNA and protein synthesis.
60-80% excreted via kidneys.
Treats both parasitical and bacterial infections.

Treat protozoal infections T. vaginalis, G. lamblia, Entamoeba histolytica, H. pylori, Clostridium difficile.

Pregnancy Category B

ADRs: Anorexia, nausea, abdominal pain. Dizziness, headache, metallic taste.
Avoid alcohol.

90
Q

Nitazoxanide (Alinia)

A

Interferes w/ PFOR enzyme-dependent electron transfer reaction
Excreted 66% in feces, 33% in urine.
Treat Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium. Treat protozoal infections T. vaginalis, G. lamblia, and E. histolytica.
Treats diarrhea caused by parasitic infection.

Pregnancy Category B

ADRs: Anorexia, nausea, abdominal pain.

91
Q

Tinidazole (Tindamax)

A

Inhibits DNA and protein synthesis.
Mostly excreted by liver, and lesser amount via kidneys.
Active against amebiasis, giardiasis, and trichomoniasis.

Pregnancy Category C

ADRs: Anorexia, nausea, abdominal pain.
Avoid alcohol.

92
Q

Isoniazid (INH)

A

Inhibit synthesis of mycolic acids.
Highly variable and dependent on acetylator status.
ADRs: Peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) given to treat neuropathy and also given prophylactically to prevent

93
Q

Ethambutol

A

Inhibit synthesis of mycolic acids.
Inhibits synthesis of arabinogalactan, an essential component of mycobacteria cell walls.
ADRs: optic neuritis

94
Q

Rifampin

A

Binds to the beta subunit of mycobacteria DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibits RNA synthesis.
Potent inducer of liver metabolism, be aware when using w/ other meds.
ADRs: hepatotoxicity, ^LFTs, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, orange secretion discoloration - tears, urine, sweat (harmless)
Inducer of CYP 450 enzyme.

95
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

ADRs: hepatotoxicity

96
Q

Streptomycin

A

Aminoglycoside, used to treat TB.

Watch for ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity.

97
Q

Capreomycin

A

Aminoglycoside, used to treat TB.

Watch for ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity.