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Micro Final Exam > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 categories of skin flora

A

Diphtheroids
Staphylococci
Yeasts

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2
Q

Example of diphtheroid

A

Propionibacterium acnes

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3
Q

What causes hair follicle infections

A

Staph aureus

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4
Q

Causes scalding skin syndrome

A

Staph aureus

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5
Q

Causes impetigo

A

Step pyrogenes

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6
Q

Causes rocky mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

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7
Q

Causes Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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8
Q

How does s aureus avoid host defenses

A

Has a capsule that prevents phagocytosis

Produces enzymes that degrade tissue

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9
Q

What is folliculitis

A

Follicle plugged with necrotic tissue

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10
Q

What does inflammation response signal

A

Attraction of neutrophils

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11
Q

What happens if an infection spreads to adjacent tissue

A

An abscess forms

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12
Q

What is a small skin lesion called

A

Furuncle

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13
Q

What is a skin lesion called when it involves multiple follicles

A

Carbuncle

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14
Q

How do you treat hair follicle infections

A

Drain boil

Antibiotics

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15
Q

What is s aureus resistant to

A

Penicillin

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16
Q

What is streptococcal impetigo

A

Superficial skin infection involving epidermis

From infected non apparent wound

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17
Q

What is a key detail of impetigo

A

Blisters that break and release plasma

The plasma looks yellow when dry

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18
Q

Details about step pyogenes

A

Gram pos
Beta hemolytic
Group A
Produces extra cellular products

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19
Q

What can s pyogenes be treated with

A

Penicillin

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20
Q

Why is s pyogenes called group A strep

A

Group A cell wall polysaccharide

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21
Q

What is a product pyogenes can produce

A

Protease

Flesh eating

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22
Q

Causes measles

A

Rubeola virus

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23
Q

Causes rubella or German measles

A

Rubella virus

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24
Q

Causes fifth disease

A

Parvovirus b 19

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25
Q

Causes roseola

A

Herpesvirus type 6

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26
Q

What causes varicella

A

Varicella zoster virus

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27
Q

How is chickenpox transmitted

A

Respiratory secretions and skin lesions

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28
Q

What is incubation of varicella

When is it infective

A

2 weeks

Infective 1-2 days before rash until they crust over

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29
Q

Describe pathogenesis of varicella

A 
Enter through respiratory route
Reliplicates and moves to skin via blood stream
Infects living layers of skin
Moves to adjacent cells causing lesions
Cells lyse
Release virus to sensory nerves
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30
Q

What is shingles

A

Latent infection

Herpes zoster

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31
Q

What allows herpes zoster virus to replicate

A

Decline in cell mediated immunity

Old age or immunocompromised

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32
Q

Shingles appears in what area

A

Anywhere

Restricted to area supplied by a sensory nerve

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33
Q

How does body respond to shingles

A

Inflammation reaction
Memory cells respond
Shingles disappear

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34
Q

What cause cutaneous mycoses

A

Dermatophytes

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35
Q

What do dermatophytes do

A

Dissolve keratin in skin for nutrients

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36
Q

What are the 6 steps of wound repair

A

Vascular spasm to prevent blood loss
Circulating platelets form plug to seal wound
Coagulation
Fibroblasts multiply and form granulation tissue
Granulation tissue is replaced

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37
Q

What type of clotting factors are circulating in blood

A

Inactivated clotting factors

Like inactivated fibrogen

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38
Q

What causes clotting factors to become activated

A

Tissue damage

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39
Q

What does fibrinogen convert to

And what causes it to convert

A

Fibrinogen becomes fibrin

The activation of clotting factors converts fibrinogen

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40
Q

What does fibrin do

A

Form a mesh

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41
Q

What digests fibrin mesh

A

Plasmin

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42
Q

Where does plasmin come

A

Inactivated plasminogen is convert to active plasmin by tissue plasminogen activator

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43
Q

What is pus

A

Dead neutrophils microorganisms and degraded tissue

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44
Q

Pyogenic means

A

Pus forming

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45
Q

Pyrogenic means

A

Fever forming

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46
Q

What helps separate an abscess from normal tissue

A

Inflammation and clots

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47
Q

Why can having a walled of abscess be bad

A

It can prevent antimicrobials from reaching the area
Pressure can increase and pathogens can go into blood stream
Area become anaerobic

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48
Q

Are pathogens actively multiplying in an abscess

A

No

They are not multiplying

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49
Q

What are 4 common bacteria that infect wounds

A

Staph aureus
Staph epi
Step pyogenes
Pseudomonas eaeuginosa

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50
Q

What is the leading cause of woud infections

A

Staphylococci

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51
Q

What factors increase the virulence of staph aureus

A

Coagulase causes clotting to evade phagocytosis
Clumping factor aids in attachment to fibrin
Protein A hide bacteria
Alpha toxin produces hole in host cell membrane

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52
Q

What do staph epi do

A

Sometimes produce biofilm to prevent phagocytosis

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53
Q

How do you treat wound infections

A

Methicillin or vancomycin

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54
Q

What does not have a lot of antimicrobial resistance

A

S pyogenes

Can be treated with penicillin

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55
Q

What are some severe infections caused by streptococci

A

Pneumonia
Meningitis
Puerperal
Necrotizing fasciitis

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56
Q

What is puerperal

A

Childbirth fever

Bacterial infection of uterus

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57
Q

What causes necrotizing fasciitis

A

2 virulent s pyogenes strains
2 extra cellular products produced
Pyrogenic exotoxin A
Exotoxin B

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58
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of necrotizing faaciitis

A

Colonization enhanced by tissue binding proteins
Subcutaneous fascia is destroyed
Muscle tissue can also be destroyed
Organisms multiply and produce toxins
Organisms and toxins enter blood stream and cause shock

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59
Q

What does pryogenic exotoxin A do

A

Cause streptococcal toxic shock

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60
Q

What does exotoxin B do

A

Destroy tissue trough protein breakdown

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61
Q

How do you treat necrotizing faaciitis

A

Surgery to prevent toxin spread
Maybe amputation
Penicillin if given early doesn’t help against toxins or dead tissue

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62
Q

What is an opportunistic wound pathogen

A

P aeruginosa

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63
Q

What is p aeruginosa the major cause of

Specifics

A

Nosocomial infections
Lung infections from contaminated respirator water
Burn infections that turn skin green

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64
Q

What makes aeruginosa virulent

A

Toxins

And multi drug resistance

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65
Q

Some examples of anaerobic wound infections

A

Tetanus
Gas gangrene
Lumpy jaw

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66
Q

What causes tetanus

A

Clostridium tetani

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67
Q

Causes gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

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68
Q

Causes lumpy jaw

A

Actinomycosis israelii

Gram pos filamentous anaerobe

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69
Q

What are the symptoms of tetanus

A

Painful uncontrolled muscle spasms

Often start with jaw

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70
Q

Describe clostridium tetani

A

Gram pos
Anaerobe
Rod shaped
Endospore forming

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71
Q

Is tetanus fatal

A

Yes not in developed world though

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72
Q

Why is tetanus pathogenic

A

Due to toxin production

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73
Q

What is the path that tetanus toxins take

A

Blood stream to CNS

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74
Q

What do tetanus toxins do

A

Block inhibitory neurons so muscles spasm

If inhibitory neurons of brain first affected jaw spasms firsts

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75
Q

Why does tetanus cause death

A

Paralysis of respiratory muscles

Stomach contents go into lungs

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76
Q

What is tetanus vaccine

A

Inactivated toxin

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77
Q

What is passive tetanus immunity

A

Tetanus antibodies

Tetanus immune globulin

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78
Q

What causes swelling in gas gangrene

A

Gas production

Tissue breakdown

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79
Q

Describe c perfringens

A 
Gram pos
Anaerobic
Rod
Endospore forming
In soil
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80
Q

What does c perfringens produce

A

Alpha toxin which attacks host membranes

Spreads in blood stream leads to red blood cell destruction

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81
Q

What are the areas of upper respiratory system

A 
Ear
Eye
Sinuses
Nasal cavity
Tonsils
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82
Q

What are tonsils made of

A

Lymphoid tissue

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83
Q

What is the role of the mucociliary escalator

A

Cilia propels mucus up so you can swallow it

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84
Q

Where does the lower Respitory system start

A

Below epiglottis

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85
Q

What does lower respiratory system include

A 
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveoli
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86
Q

What is pneumonitis

A

Inflammation of lungs

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87
Q

What is pneumonia

A

Filling of alveoli with pus and fluid

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88
Q

List upper respiratory beacterial infections

A 
Strep throat
Pinkye
Diphtheria
Otitis media
Sinus infections
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89
Q

List lower respiratory bacterial infections

A

Pneumonia
Whooping cough
Tuberculosis
Legionnaires disease

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90
Q

What is strep throat

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis

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91
Q

What is strep throat caused by

A

Step pyogenes

Group A

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92
Q

What are 3 complications of strep throat

A

Scarlet fever
Acute rheumatic fever
Acute glomerulonephritis

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93
Q

What antibiotics treat step throat

A

Penicillin

Erythromycin

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94
Q

Upper respiratory viral infections

A

Common cold

Adenovirus sore throat

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95
Q

Lower respiratory viral infections

A

Influenza
Viral pneumonia( SARS )
Respiratory syncytial virus
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

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96
Q

What causes common cold

A

Rhinovirus

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97
Q

How does rhinovirus infect

A

Attaches to receptors on respiratory epithelial cells
Multiplies in those cells
Releases more viruses

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98
Q

What causes nasal secretions of cold

A

Inflammation of injured epithelial cells

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99
Q

When do nasal secretions have high levels of viruses

A

First 2 or 3 days of a cold

100
Q

Pneumococcal pneumonia is characterized by

A

Cough
Sputum
Fever
Chest pain

101
Q

Describe strep pneumoniae

A

Gram pos
Diplococci
Thick polysaccharide capsule prevents phagocytosis
80 different strains

102
Q

When does pneumonia infection develop

A

When bacteria inhaled into alveoli

103
Q

What are 3 pneumonia complications

A

Septicemia
Endocarditis
Meningitis

104
Q

What is endocarditis

A

Infection of heart valves

105
Q

Healthy individuals carry encapsulated strain in throat, why is infection often prevented

A

Mucociliary escalator prevents lung infection

Risk of infection rises with escalator destruction

106
Q

Describe the vaccine for pneumonia

A

Vaccine immunity against 23 strains

Conjugate vaccine for children against 7 strains

107
Q

What is another term for TB

A

Consumption

108
Q

How much of world is infected with TB

A

One third

Was leading cause of death in 20 the century

109
Q

How many global TB deaths each year

A

2 million

110
Q

How does TB get contracted

A

Inhalation of organism
Bacteria taken up by pulmonary macrophages in lungs
Resists phagocytosis

111
Q

When does an intense TB immune reaction occur

A

2 weeks after infection

112
Q

What happens to bacilli in TB

A

Bacilli are lodged in tissue

Then walled off making granulomas

113
Q

What is a TB granuloma called

A

Tubercles

Can persist for years

114
Q

What creates lung cavities

A

Lysis of macrophages that spill enzymes that degrade tissue

115
Q

What is the treatment for TB

A 
Attenuated vaccine from M bovis
BCG bacille calmette guerin
Not very effective
Or rifampin and isoniazid
Prolonged treatment
116
Q

What are the targets of rifampin and isoniazid

A

They target actively growing organisms and metabolically inactive intracellular organisms

117
Q

What is influenza caused by

A

Influenza type A

Belongs to orthomyxovirus

118
Q

Describe influenza type A

A

Single stranded RNA 8 segments

Spiked envelope

119
Q

Describe the spikes of influenza envelope

A

H spike hemagglutinin attached to sialic acids

N spikes neuramidase aids in viral spread by downregulation of sialic acids

120
Q

How does influenza attach to epithelial cells

A

H spikes

Spreads by N spikes

121
Q

How can influenza cause secondary infections

A

By destroying mucociliary escalator

122
Q

What are some treatments for influenza and what do they do

A

Amantadine and rimantadine block uncoating of influenza

Zanamivir and oseltamivir block neuraminidase

123
Q

What causes influenza pandemics

A

Major antigenic changes

124
Q

What occurs in influenza antigenic drift

A

Changes in hemagglutinin spike

Minimize effectiveness of previous immunity

125
Q

What occurs in influenza antigenic shift

A

More dramatic changes
Drastically different strains
Genetic reassortment

126
Q

What parts of respiratory system are normally sterile

A 
Sinuses
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveoli
127
Q

What opportunistic pathogen is in nose

A

Staph aureus

128
Q

Compare mycoplasm and mycobacterium

A 
Mycobacterium has mycolic acid in cell wall
Hard to treat
TB
Mycoplasm has no cell wall
can't be treated
Pneumonia type
129
Q

Where is most flora of digestive system

A

Oral cavity
Intestines
Esophagus has very little flora
Stomach kills flora

130
Q

Which intestine has more flora

A 
Large intestine
100 bill per grams of feces
Because of abundance of nutrients
Source of opportunistic infections
Synthesize many vitamins
131
Q

What bacteria is predominant in large intestine

A

E coli and other enterobacteria

132
Q

What 3 bacteria account for most intestinal infections

A

Vibrio species
Campylobacter jejuni
Enterobacteria

133
Q

What causes cholera

Details of agent

A

Vibrio cholerae
Gram neg
Bacillus
Salt tolerant

134
Q

How much of cholera must be ingested

A

Large numbers because sensitive to stomach acid

135
Q

Where does cholera multiply

A

In small intestine

Adheres to epithelial lining

136
Q

Describe cholera toxin

A

Has 2 parts responsible for symptoms
B fragment allows toxins to bind to cells
A fragment. Toxicity causes secretion of Cl and fluid

137
Q

What is source if cholera

A

Contaminated water

Crabs and veggies fertilized with human fecal mater

138
Q

How to prevent cholera

A

Safe water

Avoid water when traveling

139
Q

What does e coli cause

A

Gastroenteritis

Severity Depends on strain

140
Q

What does e coli produce

A

Enterotoxin

141
Q

What are e coli 2 virulence factors

A

Toxin production

Adherence to small intestine

142
Q

What are 4 groups of diarrhea causing e coli

A

Enterotoxigenic
Enteroinvasive
Enteropathogenic
Enterohemorragic

143
Q

Details about enterotoxigenic

A

Travelers diarrhea
Adhesins allow intestinal colonization
Some secrete toxins

144
Q

Details about enteroinvasive

A

Destruction of intestinal cells leads to bloody diarrhea

145
Q

Details about enteropathogenic

A

Outbreaks in hospital nurseries and bottle fed infants

Developing countries

146
Q

Details about Enterohemmoragic

A

Found in 1982
Produce toxins that interfere with protein synth
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
O157: H7

147
Q

What is hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation in kidney

148
Q

What causes e coli epidemics

A

Person to person
Contaminated food and water
Un pasteurized milk and juice

149
Q

What are sources of pathogenic e coli strains

A

Humans

Domestic and wild animals

150
Q

How to treat e coli in infants

A

Antibiotics

Antibiotics prolong illness in adults

151
Q

Causes salmonellosis

A

Salmonella species
Motile
Gram neg
Enterobacteria

152
Q

How many serotypes of salmonella are there

A

2400 serotypes

Most common typhinurium and enteritidis

153
Q

Where do salmonella adhere

How many are needed

A

Lower small intestine
Large number
Sensitive to stomach

154
Q

Where do salmonella multiply

A

Cell takes up bact in phagocyte
Within phagosome
Discharged through exocytosis

155
Q

What causes salmonella related dirrhea

A

Inflammation response increases fluid secretion

156
Q

What serotypes of salmonella is not easily eliminated

A

Typhi
Multiply in macrophages and brought to blood stream
Cause septicemia

157
Q

What serotypes is the exception to the animal source of salmonella

A

Typhi
Colonization of gall bladder
Typhoid Mary

158
Q

How do you prevent salmonella

A

Cook well
Vaccine against typhoid fever
Remove gallbladder of carrier

159
Q

When are people a symptomatic of hep A

A

Less than 6 years old

160
Q

How long does it take to recovery from hep a

A

2 months

29% of adults hospitalized

161
Q

Description of hep a pathogenesis

A 
From infected food or water
Reaches liver
Damages liver as it replicates
Virus into bile
Eliminated via feces
162
Q

What is a common source of hep a

A

Raw shellfish

Restaurants

163
Q

Describe hep a virus

A

Single strand RNA
Picornavirus
Only one serotype

164
Q

What is hep a vaccine for

A

Travelers
Sewer workers
Healthcare workers

165
Q

What is gamma globulin

A

Hep A antibody
Given to exposed individuals
Short term passive immunity

166
Q

Describe campylobacter jejuni

A

Gram neg
Rod
Motile
Causes Gillian barre syndrome

167
Q

What is role of kidney

A

Filter blood of waste

Create urine

168
Q

What part of genitourinal system is sterile

A

Urine and urinary tracts above bladder

169
Q

What flora are in urethra

A

Lactobacillus
Staphylococcus
Corynebacterium
Streptococcus

170
Q

What causes female genital Tract flora to vary

A

Hormonal status

171
Q

What happens to flora when estrogen present

A 
Lactobacillus create more acidic ph 
Increase resistance to pathogens
More glycogen
With lactobacillus ferments
Creates lactic acid
172
Q

What helps keep urinary tract clean

A

Flow of urine flushes bact out

Blocking urine increases risk of normal flora infection

173
Q

What causes e coli bacterial cystitis

A

Block urine flow

174
Q

What is cystitis

A

Inflammation of bladder

175
Q

What is nephritis

A

Inflammation of kidney

176
Q

What is pyelonephritis

A

Infection of kidney

177
Q

Describe toxic shock syndrome

A

S aureus can grow in absorbent tampons
Produces exotoxins
When TSST 1 enters blood stream causes. System wide inflammation
Drops BP = shock

178
Q

What are verereal genital system diseases

A

STDs

179
Q

What causes syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

180
Q

What causes chancroid

A

Haemophilis ducreyi

181
Q

Describe neisseria gonorrhea

A 
Gram neg
Diplococci
Transmitted through sex
Enzyme that degrades iga 
Avoids complement
Pili can vary antigenic ally
Women are asymptomatic reservoir
Has R plasmids
182
Q

Where does gonorrhea attach

A

Epithelial cells of urethra
Uterine cervix
Pharynx
Conjunctiva via pili

183
Q

What is used to treat gonorrhea

A

Cephalosporins

Like ceftriaxone

184
Q

What happens to some untreated women with gonorrhea

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease
Gonorrhea travels up Fallopian tube
Can then infect liver or other organs
Can cause sterility or ectopic pregnancy

185
Q

What is opthalmia neonatorum

A

Infected conjunctiva from asymptomatic gonorrhea infected birth canal
All infants receive drops to prevent this

186
Q

What causes genital herpes

A

Herpes virus simplex type 2

187
Q

What herpes virus causes cold sores

A

Simplex type 1

188
Q

How many are infected with HSV 2

A

One in five

45 million

189
Q

When do herpes symptoms occur

A

2 to 20 days post infection

Itching and blisters

190
Q

What causes herpes blisters

A

Lysis of epithelial cells

Caused by virus

191
Q

What 2 stages does herpes virus have

A

Lytic
Latent
Hides in nerve cells

192
Q

Where are body of motor neurons

A

In CNS

193
Q

Where are bodies of sensory neurons

A

In ganglion

194
Q

Examples of bacteria that cause meningitis

A

Haemophilus influenza
Neisseria meningitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae

195
Q

What can gram neg rods of mothers intestine cause

A

Meningitis in newborns

196
Q

What type of bact in vagina can cause meningitis

A

Group B streptococcus

197
Q

List examples of nervous system infections

A

Meningitis
Listeriosis
Leprosy
Botulism

198
Q

What is petechiae

A

Red splotches

199
Q

What is the source of meningococcal meningitis

A

Humans

Respiratory droplets

200
Q

How does meningitis infection occur

A

Bact adhere to mucous membrane via pili
Pass through respiratory epithelium into blood stream
Get into csf
Release exotoxin that drops BP

201
Q

Describe treatment for meningitis

A

Vaccine made of purified capsule
Conjugate vaccine for child’s
Can take antibiotics

202
Q

What causes leprosy

A

Mycobacterium leprea

203
Q

Symptoms of leprosy

A

Dulled sensation of skin
Infected area thickens
Nerves enlarge
Loose extremities

204
Q

Where does growth of Leprosy occur

A

Within macrophages

Slow growing

205
Q

Describe the two types of leprosy

A 
Tubercoloid leprosy
Doesn't progress
Not transmitted to others
Lepromatous leprosy
Immune system overwhelmed
Respiratory droplets
206
Q

What can treat tuberculoid leprosy

A

Dapsone and riframpin

207
Q

What does arbovirus cause

A

Viral encephalitis

208
Q

Lists the different types of arboviruses

A

Eastern equine encephalitis
Western equine encephalitis
St Louis encephalitis
West Nile

209
Q

Describe pathogenesis of west Nile

A 
Viruses multiply at site of bite and lymph nodes
Cause viremia
Virus cross BBB
Damage brain
Disabilities often remain after recovery
210
Q

What can haut progression of west Nile

A

Neutralization antibody

211
Q

What causes most cases of encephalitis

A

Lacrosse encephalitis

212
Q

How fast do rabies patients die

A

Within 4 days

213
Q

Where does rabies virus multiply

A

In muscles cells of infection site
Reaches brain via axon
Once in brain multiplies extensively

214
Q

What forms at sites of rabies replication

A

Negri bodies

215
Q

What is included in blood and lymphatic system

A 
Heart
Arteries
Veins
Spleen
Lymph vessels
Lymph nodes
216
Q

What causes nodes to swell

A

B cells proliferating

217
Q

What causes septicemia

A

Gram neg in blood
LPS response
Septic shock

218
Q

What occurs in septic shock

A

Urine output drops
Respiration and pulse increase
Arms and legs become cool and dusky

219
Q

What characterized black plague

A

Large lymph nodes
Buboes
Bloody sputum if pneumonic

220
Q

What causes plague

Describe organism

A

Yersinia pestis
Facultative intracellular bact
Has 3 plasmids

221
Q

Name the plague plasmids

A

Pla
Tops
F1

222
Q

Describe pla

A

Causes protective clots to dissolve via plasminogen activator
Essential for spread from site of entey

223
Q

Describe yops

A

Codes for tops protein and regulates it
Yops interferes with phagocytosis
Produce yops when released from macrophage

224
Q

Describe F1

A

Becomes antiphagocyte capsule

Used in plague vaccine

225
Q

Describe plague pathogenesis

A 
Digestive tract of flea obstructed
Flea spits infected material into bite
Multiply in macrophage
Inflammation of nodes
Nodes become necrotic and cause septicemia
Can then infect lungs
226
Q

What is flea type that spreads plague

A

Oriental rat flea

227
Q

When is F1 capsule produced

A

While in macrophage

228
Q

Deceive plague treatment an prevention

A 
Killed vaccine can provide short term protection
Tetracycline to exposed individuals
Gentimicin 
Ciprofloxin 
Doxycycline 
All effective if given early
229
Q

Describe mononucleosis

A 
Long incubation
Sore throat dissapear then swollen lymph nodes
Begins in throat
Stays in saliva for months
Then latent in B cells
Can be productive or nonproductive
230
Q

What causes mono

A

Epstein Barr virus

231
Q

What does mono cause b cells todo

A

Produce multiple clones
Produce immunoglobulin
Random antibodies

232
Q

What is mono treated with

A

Acyclovir

Inhibits productive infection

233
Q

What was first sign of aids

A

Pneumocystis infections in healthy men

234
Q

How are HIV1 and 2 different

A

Antigenic ally distinct

HIV1 progresses slower

235
Q

Describe HIV

A 
Has glycoproteins 
120 for attachment to host cells
41 for fusion with host membrane
Has reverse transcriptase
Integrase
Protease
236
Q

What types of cells does HIV infect

A

Epithelium
Brain
Macrophages
Helper t

237
Q

What are receptors on t cells

A

CD4

CXCR4 coreceptor

238
Q

How does reverse transcriptase work

A 
RNA made into DNA
DNA
Integrated into host info by integrase
Tells lyse
Macrophages slowly release virus
239
Q

What happens as virus progresses

A

Cd4 count decreases
Symptoms appear when below 200
Development can be rapid or slow

240
Q

Describe modes of HIV transmission

A

Sex
Blood transfusion
Mother to infant

241
Q

Why is there no vaccine for HIV

A

Reverse transcriptase is error prone

High rate of genetic mutation

242
Q

How to treat HIV

A

Combo of reverse transcriptase inhibitors and protease inhibitors
HAART

243
Q

What are categories of reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A 
Nucleoside 
Zidovudine
Chain terminator
Non nucleoside
Nevirapine
Bind RT enzyme
244
Q

What do protease inhibitors do

A

Act late in infection to prevent packaging of viral proteins

245
Q

Theories for HIV vaccine

A

Prevention or therapeutic
Must produce both mucosa land blood stream immunity
Fr cellular an humoral immunity
Aka lie attenuated

246
Q

What would HIV vaccine have to do

A

Induce neutralizing antibodies against free virus and prevent spread from cell to cell

Micro Final Exam (2 decks)

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