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Fundamentals Semester 2 - Exam 1. > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bacteremia

A

laboratory-confirmed presence of bacteria in the bloodstream

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2
Q

What is a carrier?

A

person who has a pathogen without apparent signs and symptoms; one who is able to transmit an infection to others

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3
Q

What is colonization?

A

the presence of microorganisms in or on a host, without host interference or interaction and without eliciting symptoms in the host.

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4
Q

What virus was COVID-19 caused by?

A

SARS-CoV-2

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5
Q

Explain the meaning of emerging infectious diseases.

A

human infectious diseases with an increased incidence within the past two decades, or with a potential to increase in the near future

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6
Q

Explain what is meant by an health care–associated infection (HAI).

A

an infection not present or incubating at the time of admission to the health care setting; this term has replaced the term nosocomial infection.

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7
Q

What is a host?

A

an organism that provides living conditions to support a microorganism

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8
Q

What is the incubation period?

A

time between contact and onset of signs and symptoms

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9
Q

Explain what is meant by infection.

A

condition in which the host interacts physiologically and immunologically with a microorganism

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10
Q

What is meant by latency?

A

time interval after primary infection when a microorganism lives within the host without producing clinical evidence of disease

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11
Q

What kind of disease is MRSA?

A

Staphylococcus aureus bacterium that is not susceptible to extended-penicillin antibiotic formulas, such as methicillin, oxacillin, or nafcillin; MRSA may occur in a health care or community setting.

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12
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

any person, plant, animal, substance, or location that provides living conditions for microorganisms and that enables further dispersal of the organism.

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13
Q

What is meant by ‘standard precautions’?

A

strategy of assuming all patients may carry infectious agents and using appropriate barrier precautions for all health care worker–patient interactions.

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14
Q

What is transient flora?

A

organisms that have been recently acquired and are likely to be shed in a relatively short period

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15
Q

What is meant by ‘transmission based precautions’? And what are the 3 types of transmission based precautions?

A

precautions used in addition to standard precautions when contagious or epidemiologically significant organisms are recognized; the three types of transmission-based precautions are airborne, droplet, and contact precautions

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16
Q

What is vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE)?

A

Enterococcus bacterium that is not susceptible to the antibiotic vancomycin

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17
Q

What is meant by the term ‘virulence’?

A

degree of pathogenicity of an organism.

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18
Q

Name the elements necessary for the full chain of infection.

A

1) Causative organism
2) Reservoir of available organisms
3) A portal of exit from the reservoir
4) a mode of transmission from the reservoir to the host.
5) A portal of entry into a susceptible host.

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19
Q

What are causative agents?

A

The types of microorganisms that cause infections are bacteria, rickettsiae, viruses, protozoa, fungi, and helminths.

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20
Q

What is a portal of exit?

A

The organism must have a portal of exit from a reservoir. An infected host must shed organisms to another or to the environment for transmission to occur. Organisms exit through the respiratory tract, the gastrointestinal tract, the genitourinary tract, or the blood.

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21
Q

What are some routs of transmission?

A

Organisms may be transmitted through food intake, sexual contact, skin-to-skin contact, percutaneous injection, or infectious particles carried in the air.

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22
Q

How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis transmitted?

A

Airborne route. nurses does not “carry” this bacteria on their hands or clothing.

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23
Q

How is Staphylococcus aureus transmitted?

A

Easily transmitted to patients on the hands of health care providers.

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24
Q

What is the only portal of entry for Mycobacterium tuberculosis ?

A

The respiratory tract. This bacteria would not cause an infection if it only landed on skin.

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25
Q

For AIDS, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Human immune deficiency virus (HIV)
  • Transmitted sexually
  • Incubation period can be up to 10 years w.o effective therapy.
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26
Q

For anthrax, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Transmitted : Airborne, contact, ingestion
  • Incubation : 1-43 days (inhalation), 5-7 days (cutaneous), 1-6 days (GI).
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27
Q

For chickenpox, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Haemophilus ducreyi
  • transmission : airborne or contact.
  • 10-21 days
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28
Q

For C.diff, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Clostridioides difficile
  • Transmission : fecal, oral
  • Incubation : over 2 days
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29
Q

For Salmonella, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Salmonella species
  • Transmission : Contaminated food or drink.
    Incubation : 12-36h
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30
Q

For Ebola, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Ebola virus
  • Transmission : Contact w/ blood & bodily fluids.
  • Incubation : 2-21 days
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31
Q

For Gonorrhea, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeaea
  • transmitted sexually and perinatal
  • Incubation : 1-14 days
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32
Q

For Herpes simples, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Human herpes virus
  • contact w/ mucous membrane secretions
  • incubation 2-12 days
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33
Q

For influenzas, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Influenza virus A,B or C
  • Transmission : droplet spread.
  • Incubation : 24-72 hrs
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34
Q

For Meningitis, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Transmission : Contact with pharyngeal secretions; perhaps airborne
  • incubation 2-10 days
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35
Q

For Norovirus, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Norovirus
  • Transmission : fecal-oral by food or water or by person to person spread.
  • Incubation 10-48 hrs,
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36
Q

For Rotavirus, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Rotavirus
  • Transmission : fecal-oral route
  • incubation : 24-72 hrs
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37
Q

For West Nile Virus, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • West Nile Virus
  • Transmission : airborne
    Incubation : 2-10 wks to formation of primary lesion.
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38
Q

For Zika Virus, what organism causes this disease, how is it transmitted and what is the approximately incubation period (Infection to first symptom)?

A
  • Zika Virus
  • Transmission : bite of infected aedes mosquitoes
  • Incubation 3-14 days.
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39
Q

What are some types of microorganisms that can be classified as potential infectious agents?

A
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Viruses
  • Rickettsia
  • Protozoa
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40
Q

What are 3 types of potential reservoirs?

A
  • people
  • equipment
  • water
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41
Q

Name 4 types of ‘portals of exit’

A
  • Excretions
  • Secretions
  • skin
  • droplets
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42
Q

Name 4 types of ‘means of transmission”

A
  • Direct contact
  • Ingestion
  • Fomites
  • Airborne
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43
Q

Name 5 portals of entry.

A
  • Mucous membranes
  • GI
  • GU
  • Resp, tract
  • broken skin
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44
Q

What are the 5 most susceptible hosts for infection?

A
  • Immunosuppressed patients
  • diabetic patients
  • patients who’s had surgery
  • Burns
  • Elderly.
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45
Q

What diagnostic tests will generally provide us with the most helpful information as to what kind of infection the patient is experiencing?

A

Smear and stain because they describe the mix of cells present at the anatomic site at the time of specimen collection.

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46
Q

What information does the culture and sensitivity test provide us?

A

Which organisms are recognized and which antibiotic agents actively affect the bacteria.

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47
Q

Which are the two principal agencies involved in setting guidelines about infection prevention?

A

World health organization and CDC.

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48
Q

What is the role of the CDC?

A

The CDC provides timely recommendations about many of the situations that a nurse may face when caring for or educating a patient with an infectious disease and routinely publishes recommendations, guidelines, and summaries. Through its Internet site and its weekly journal, the Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR), the CDC reports significant cases, outbreaks (the occurrence of a disease within a population that exceeds normal expectations), environmental hazards, or other public health problems.

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49
Q

What is the most widely used system for tracking HAI’s?

A

The CDC National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN)

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50
Q

Are standard precautions meant to be used for all patients or only specific patients?

A

All patients. It is the main strategy in order to prevent HAI’s.

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51
Q

Are transmission based precautions meant to be used for all patients or only specific patients?

A

It is designed for care of patients with known or suspected infectious diseases spread by airborne, droplet or contact routes.

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52
Q

When should handwashing be done over hand decontamination with alcohol based products?

A
  • when hands a visibly soiled dirty or contaminated with biologic material from patient care
  • When health care workers doesn’t tolerate waterless alcohol products.
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53
Q

Should used needles be recapped?

A

No. They should be placed directly into a sharps container once they have been used.

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54
Q

When should a nurse wear goggles?

A

When the health care professional is involved in an activity in which body fluids may be sprayed or splashed.

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55
Q

When should a nurse wear a gown?

A

If the health care worker is involved in a procedure in which clothing may be contaminated with biologic material, a cover gown should be worn

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56
Q

What diseases require airborne precautions?

A

Diseases spread by very small respiratory particles that are suspended as aerosol.
TB, Measles, varicella, or other airborne pathogens such as COVID-19.

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57
Q

What diseases require droplet precautions?

A

those spread by larger respiratory droplets require droplet precautions.
influenza or meningococcus.

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58
Q

If a patient is on airborne precaution, what room do they need to be in? What other precautions must be taken?

A
  • Negative pressure room with the door closed.
  • Health care providers should wear an N95 respirator at all times in the room.
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59
Q

When caring for patients on droplet precautions, what should the nurse wear? What other precautions must be taken?

A
  • the nurse should wear a facemask within 3 to 6 feet of the patient
  • the risk of transmission is limited to close contact, the door may remain open.
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60
Q

What are two bacteria where we should use transmission based precaution?

A

antibiotic-resistant organisms or C. difficile.

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61
Q

With transmission based precautions, what precautions should the nurse take when caring for the patient?

A

Contact precautions are designed to emphasize cautious technique and the use of barriers. When possible, the patient requiring contact isolation is placed in a private room to facilitate hand hygiene and decreased environmental contamination. Masks are not needed, and doors do not need to be closed

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62
Q

What is the order to don PPE when caring for COVID patient?

A
  • Hand hygene
  • Gown
    *Mask
  • Goggles
  • gloves
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63
Q

What is the order to doff. PPE when caring for COVID patient?

A
  • Gloves
  • gown
  • HH
  • goggles
    *Mask
  • HH
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64
Q

Which catheters are more likely to be associated with bloodstream infections?

A

Central lines (vascular catheters where the tip ends in or near the heart)

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65
Q

What does the MMR vaccine protect against? When should it be given?

A

Measles, Mumps, and Rubella.

To maintain this effective public health strategy, routine MMR vaccination should be given to children at 12 to 15 months of age, with repeat dosing at 4 to 6 years of age. Adults who have not received the MMR vaccine should receive one to two doses

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66
Q

What diseases doe the Varicella zoster virus cause? How is it transmitted, and when is the patient no longer contagious?

A

chickenpox and herpes zoster.
Transmitted via the airborne or contact route.
The patient are no longer contagious when the lesions have crusted.

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67
Q

Which virus is the principal cause of cervical cancer?

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV).

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68
Q

When is the HVP vaccine recommended?

A

HPV vaccination at age 11 or 12 is recommended for both males and females.

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69
Q

What is the portal of entry pf diarrheal pathogens?

A

Oral ingestion.

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70
Q

Which virus is the most significant viral cause of diarrhea? What is it associated with?

A

Norovirus, a virus associated with outbreaks in long-term care facilities and cruise ships.

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71
Q

what urine output would indicate that a patient is dehydrated?

A

< 400 ml in 24 hrs.
or
< 00.5 ml/kg/h over 6 hrs.

72
Q

what is the reason for asking a patients what they’ve eating in the last 3-4 days is important when doing an assessment for diarrhea causing diseases?

A

because the incubation period for most diarrheal conditions is longer than the time interval between meals, the nurse must obtain detailed information about the meal preceding the illness as well as all food intake in the previous 3 to 4 days.

73
Q

What is a severe complication of diarrhea causing diseases?

A

Hypovolemic shock.

74
Q

When attempting to rehydrate a patient, which route is the preferred route?

A

PO.

75
Q

What rehydration methods are recommended by the WHO and UNICEF?

A

Zinc replacement and rehydration salts (ORS) solution for treatment of children and adults with dehydration and electrolyte imbalance r/t cholera and other diarrheal diseases.

76
Q

What does the ORS solution contain?

A

Sodium chloride, Glucose, Potassium, Trisodium citrate.

77
Q

Sports drinks are a good way to replace fluid loss if
True/False

A

False - they do not replace fluid loss correctly and should not be used unless nothing else is available.

78
Q

For Mild dehydration, what are the symptoms and what is the rehydration goal?

A

The patient exhibits dry oral mucous membranes of the mouth and increased thirst. The rehydration goal at this level of dehydration is to deliver about 50 mL of ORS per 1 kg of weight over a 4-hour interval

79
Q

For Moderate dehydration, what are the symptoms and what is the rehydration goal?

A

Sunken eyes, loss of skin turgor, increased thirst, and dry oral mucous membranes. The rehydration goal at this level of dehydration is to deliver about 100 mL/kg of ORS over 4 hours.

80
Q

For Severe dehydration, what are the symptoms and what is the rehydration goal?

A

Signs of shock (i.e., rapid thready pulse, cyanosis, cold extremities, rapid breathing, lethargy, or coma.
IV replacement until hemodynamic and mental status return to normal. When improvement is evident, the patient can be treated with ORS.

81
Q

What types of food should be encouraged for the patients to eat once dehydration has been corrected?

A

Recommended foods include starches, cereals, yogurt, fruits, and vegetables.

82
Q

What types of food should be discouraged for the patients to eat once dehydration has been corrected?

A

Foods that are high in simple sugars, such as undiluted apple juice or gelatin, should be avoided.

83
Q

For fish and whole cuts of meat, what temperature should they reach?

A

Fish and whole cuts of meat must reach a temperature of 145°F (63°C)

84
Q

For ground beef, what temperature should they reach?

A

Ground meat must reach 160°F (71°C)

85
Q

What are the most common infectious diseases in the US?

A

STIs - More than 2 million STIs reported annually, however many cases go unreported

86
Q

What are the 4 stages of untreated Syphilis?

A

Primary - 2-3 weeks, painless chancres appear, will resolve on their own after 3-12 weeks w/o treatment,

Secondary- hematogenous spread leading to generalized infection. Rash occurs from 1 w - 6 months after chancres - transmission can occur.

Latency - no symptoms

Tertiary - slowly progressive inflammatory disease, most common manifestations are aortitis & neurosyphilis which presents as : dementia, psychosis, paresis, stroke or meningitis.

87
Q

What diagnostic testing are done to determine Syphilis?

A

By direct identification of the bacteria obtained from the chancre lesions of primary syphilis.

Secondary : Nontreponemal and treponemal
.

88
Q

What is the medical treatment for Syphilis?

A

Penicillin G for early and latent ( <1 yr) syphilis via a single IM injection.
Late or latent : 3 injections at a 1- week interval.

89
Q

What are the 2 most commonly reported infectious diseases in the US?

A

Gonorrhea and Chlamydia.

90
Q

Which demographic carries the highest risk of contacting Chlamydia?

A

Women aged 15-24 yrs of age.

91
Q

How do we prevent the spread of Syphilis?

A
  • Complete full core of therapy
  • Refrain from sex until partners have been treated
  • Condoms
  • Multiple sex partners increases risk of acquiring the disease.
92
Q

What is mucopurulent cervicitis?

A

an inflammation of the cervix characterized by the presence of a thick, white, yellow, or green discharge. This is often one of the symptoms of Chlamydia and Gonorrhea.

93
Q

Are women of men more likely to experience symptoms of Chlamydia and Gonorrhea?

A

Men

94
Q

For gonorrhea and chlamydia, what symptoms may men experience?

A

Burning during urination and penile discharge. Patients with N. gonorrhoeae infection may also report painful, swollen testicles.

95
Q

For women who have contracted Gonorrhea or Chlamydia, what are the most common complications that may occur?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), ectopic pregnancy, endometritis, and infertility

96
Q

For men who have contracted Gonorrhea or Chlamydia, what are the most common complications that may occur?

A

Epididymitis, a painful disease that may lead to infertility, may result from infection with either bacterium.

97
Q

With Gonorrhea, what is a complication that can happen in both men and women?

A

Arthritis or blood stream infection.

98
Q

What does the CDC recommend for all pregnant patients?

A

Chlamydia testing. Because as many as 70% of chlamydial infections are asymptomatic

99
Q

When obtaining a sexual history, the CDC recommends the following systematic interview of whihc key areas?

A

” The five P’s”
partners, prevention of pregnancy, protection from STIs, practices, and past history of STIs.

100
Q

Name some examples of emerging infectious diseases.

A

COVID-19, Zika virus, West Nile virus, Ebola virus disease, Legionnaires disease, and pertussis.

101
Q

For COVID-19, what is the fatality rate estimated to be?

A

5.6%

101
Q

Who are at greater risk of COVID-19 complications?

A
  • Men 65+
  • Patients in nursing facilities
  • History of chronic diseases
  • Immunosuppressed
101
Q

How does the SARS-CoV-2 gain entry into the host cells?

A

through the angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) cellular surface receptors

102
Q

What are the symptoms of the West Nile Virus?

A

West Nile Fever : HA, Fever, persistent fatigue that may continue for several months.

102
Q

Less than 1% of patients infected with the West Nile Virus develop severe disease, however if they do, what are the symptoms?

A

Severe neuroinvasive illness, meningitis, encephalitis, and paralysis or poliomyelitis.

103
Q

Is there a treatment for the West Nile Virus?

A

No.

104
Q

What are the natural reservoir for the West Nile Virus?

A

Birds, however mosquitoes can become infected when feeding off birds and can transmit the virus to animals and humans.
human to human transmission is rare.

105
Q

How is Ebola spread?

A

Via blood or body fluid such as urine, vomit, feces, saliva, sweat, semen and breast milk.

106
Q

When and how is Ebola detected?

A

Ebola virus is only detected in blood after the patient becomes symptomatic and viral levels rise significantly as the disease progresses.

107
Q

When a person has become infected with Ebola, what symptoms normally happen on the 5ht-6th symptomatic day?

A

The patient often develops severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. Patients are at great risk for severe dehydration at this point as many produce over 5 L of liquid stool per day.

108
Q

Is there a vaccination for Ebola?

A

Yes, for adults 18 y.o and up.

109
Q

How is Legionnaires Disease transmitted?

A

Aerosol

110
Q

What are some places that a person may contract Legionnaires Disease from?

A

Because incidence appears to increase in the summer and autumn months, vacation-related exposure to hotel or cruise ship plumbing and air-conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, and decorative fountains may be the causative risk.

111
Q

Can legionnaires disease be transmitted from person to person in a hospital setting?

A

No.
Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by the aerosolized route from an environmental source to a person’s respiratory tract. In hospitals, patients may be exposed to aerosols created by cooling towers, water exposure from in-room plumbing, and respiratory therapy equipment.

112
Q

What are the risk factors for contracting Legionnaires Disease?

A

Diseases that lead to severe immunosuppression, such as AIDS, hematologic malignancy, end-stage kidney disease, or the use of immunosuppressive agents. Other factors associated with increased risk include diabetes, smoking, exposure to whirlpool spas, and recent travel

113
Q

For diagnostic tests for Legionnaires disease, what does the CDC recommend and why?

A

The greatest limitation of the test is that it detects only one subgroup of one of the several species of Legionella. The CDC recommends using multiple tests when Legionnaires disease is suspected because none of the tests is completely accurate.

114
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat Legionnaires disease?

A

The antibiotic agents of choice are azithromycin or moxifloxacin. Doxycycline may also be used.

115
Q

Would a patient with Legionnaire’s disease require isolation? Why, why not?

A

Isolation is not required because Legionella is not transmitted between humans.

116
Q

What is Pertussis better known as?

A

Whooping cough

117
Q

How is Pertussis transmitted?

A

Droplets

118
Q

What are some severe complications to whooping cough?

A

Pneumonia is the most common consequence of infection, but the disease can also lead to seizures, encephalopathy, and, rarely, death.

119
Q

Which antibiotic agents are used to treat Pertussis?

A

azithromycin, erythromycin, or clarithromycin

120
Q

Should a patient w/ Pertussis be isolated? Why, why not?

A

Yes.
Patients who are hospitalized with pertussis should be isolated in droplet precautions until they have received 5 days of appropriate therapy. Household members should receive antimicrobial prophylaxis and should be advised to report any symptoms of an upper respiratory infection.

121
Q

What is the vaccination for Pertussis called when given for infants and children younger than 6 y.o.?

A

DTap

122
Q

What is the teen and adult formula of the Pertussis vaccination called?

A

Tdap

123
Q

Differentiate between colonization, infection, and infectious disease, providing an example of each.

A

Colonization: Microorganisms present without causing disease (e.g., normal skin flora).

Infection: Host interaction with microorganisms (e.g., positive culture with symptoms).

Infectious Disease: Decline in wellness due to infection (e.g., pneumonia from bacterial infection).

124
Q

Which component of the chain of infection must be interrupted to prevent disease transmission?

A

Breaking any link in the chain of infection (e.g., hand hygiene, vaccination, PPE use).

125
Q

What is the primary goal of standard precautions in infection control?

A

To prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)

126
Q

Explain the role of federal, state, and local resources in providing information about infectious diseases

A

Resources: CDC, state/local health departments, WHO.

127
Q

What are the benefits of recommended vaccines for healthcare workers?

A

Vaccines protect healthcare workers from exposure and prevent disease transmission to patients.

128
Q

What is the difference between standard and transmission-based precautions?

A

Standard precautions apply to all patients, while transmission-based precautions are for specific infections.

129
Q

A patient with tuberculosis requires which type of precaution, and what PPE is necessary?

A

Airborne precautions; N95 mask, gloves, gown, eye protection, negative pressure room

130
Q

When should healthcare workers use an N95 respirator?

A

When caring for patients with airborne infections like TB, measles, or varicella

131
Q

Which type of precaution is used for Clostridium difficile, and why is soap and water preferred over hand sanitizer?

A

Soap and water are necessary for C. difficile because alcohol-based hand sanitizer does not kill spores.

132
Q

What patient placement considerations should be made for someone on airborne precautions?

A

Place in a negative pressure isolation room with the door closed

133
Q

How do Gram stains assist in diagnosing bacterial infections?

A

Gram stains differentiate bacteria by cell wall properties, aiding in antibiotic selection.

134
Q

What is the significance of a culture and sensitivity test in treating infections?

A

Culture identifies organisms, and sensitivity tests determine effective antibiotics

135
Q

What factors determine an individual’s susceptibility to infection?

A

Age, immune status, comorbidities, and vaccination history.

136
Q

What type of laboratory test is most useful in identifying a viral infection?

A

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) or viral cultures

137
Q

Why is a blood smear important in diagnosing infectious diseases?

A

Identifies infection presence and severity (e.g., WBC count, differential).

138
Q

Name three common organisms responsible for healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).

A

C. difficile, MRSA, VRE, Candida auris.

139
Q

What is the role of hand hygiene in preventing HAIs?

A

Hand hygiene prevents direct and indirect transmission of pathogens

140
Q

Why is it important for hospitals to implement antimicrobial stewardship programs?

A

Antimicrobial stewardship programs prevent antibiotic resistance by promoting appropriate antibiotic use.

141
Q

What are some of the key strategies to reduce catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI)?

A

Proper line insertion, daily assessments for removal, and strict aseptic technique.

142
Q

How does proper handling of patient linens contribute to infection control?

A

Prevent cross-contamination by handling soiled linens carefully and using appropriate PPE.

143
Q

What are two key vaccination programs promoted by the CDC?

A

Vaccination programs for children and adults (e.g., MMR, influenza, HPV, shingles)

144
Q

Why is it important for school nurses to educate children about vaccination?

A

School nurses provide education on immunization importance and prevent outbreaks.

145
Q

What role does food safety play in preventing infectious diseases?

A

Proper food handling and cooking prevent foodborne illnesses.

146
Q

Explain how the public health response changes during a pandemic

A

Public health responses include quarantine, vaccination, and public education

147
Q

What infection control measures are crucial in preventing the spread of respiratory illnesses in the community?

A

Wearing masks, hand hygiene, and staying home when sick.

148
Q

What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?

A

Fever, hypotension, tachycardia, altered mental status, elevated WBCs

149
Q

Describe the nursing interventions for a patient with severe dehydration due to infectious diarrhea.

A

IV fluids, electrolyte monitoring, and rehydration therapy.

150
Q

Why is it essential to rehydrate patients with diarrheal diseases, and what is the recommended oral rehydration solution (ORS) regimen?

A

Prevents hypovolemia and shock; ORS 50 mL/kg over 4 hours for mild dehydration.

151
Q

What factors should nurses assess when evaluating a patient with a suspected infectious disease?

A

Assess history, physical exam, recent exposures, and travel history.

152
Q

Explain the role of contact tracing in preventing the spread of infectious diseases.

A

Contact tracing identifies and notifies exposed individuals to prevent further spread.

153
Q

Why is it important to test for HIV when diagnosing other STIs?

A

Coinfections are common, and HIV may be undiagnosed

154
Q

What are the “Five P’s” of STI assessment?

A

Partners, prevention of pregnancy, protection from STIs, practices, past history of STI

155
Q

Describe the symptoms and potential complications of untreated Chlamydia in women.

A

PID, infertility, ectopic pregnancy.

156
Q

Which treatment is recommended for syphilis, and why is it considered a reportable disease?

A

Penicillin G IM; syphilis is reportable due to public health concerns.

157
Q

What are common nursing interventions for patients with STIs?

A

Education, confidentiality, contact tracing, appropriate antibiotic treatment.

158
Q

What factors contribute to the emergence and re-emergence of infectious diseases?

A

Global travel, climate change, antibiotic resistance, zoonotic transmission

159
Q

How is Ebola transmitted, and what precautions should healthcare workers take?

A

Blood and body fluids; requires full PPE, including face shields and impermeable gowns

160
Q

What are the key symptoms of Zika virus, and why is it a concern for pregnant women?

A

Zika causes microcephaly in newborns if transmitted in pregnancy.

161
Q

Why has pertussis re-emerged, and how can it be prevented?

A

Vaccine hesitancy and reduced childhood immunization rates.

162
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for West Nile virus?

A

Mosquito bites.

163
Q

A patient with neutropenia is admitted to the hospital. What specific infection control measures should be implemented?

A

Hand hygiene, no fresh produce, no live plants, limit visitors, avoid sick contacts.

164
Q

A 75-year-old patient presents with fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. The physician suspects pneumonia. What laboratory and diagnostic tests should be ordered?

A

Chest X-ray, CBC, sputum culture, blood culture, ABG if respiratory distress is present.

165
Q

A nurse sustains a needlestick injury while caring for a patient with hepatitis B. What immediate steps should be taken?

A

Wash site, report incident, follow-up testing, and consider post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).

166
Q

A patient with HIV is experiencing a fever and night sweats. What opportunistic infections should be considered?

A

Tuberculosis, pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), Kaposi’s sarcoma, cytomegalovirus (CMV).

167
Q

A cruise ship reports an outbreak of acute gastroenteritis. What is the likely causative agent, and what infection control measures should be implemented?

A

Likely norovirus; implement isolation, hand hygiene, and disinfect contaminated surfaces

168
Q

A patient refuses a recommended vaccine due to personal beliefs. How should the nurse approach this situation?

A

Provide evidence-based education and respect autonomy.

169
Q

What are the legal and ethical responsibilities of a nurse when reporting communicable diseases?

A

Nurses must report diseases like tuberculosis, syphilis, and COVID-19 per state laws.

170
Q

How can nurses ensure confidentiality while educating patients about STIs?

A

Use private consultations, avoid judgmental language, ensure consent before disclosure.

171
Q

A healthcare worker refuses to care for a patient with HIV due to fear of contracting the disease. How should this situation be addressed?

A

Education on standard precautions, infection control training, ethical duty to provide care.

172
Q

A nurse is teaching a community about infectious disease prevention. What key points should be included in the presentation?

A

Fundamentals Semester 2 - Exam 1. (5 decks)

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