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DrFeelGood Stuffs > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What type of organism causes rabies?

A

RNA rhabdovirus (specifically lyssavirus)

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2
Q

How does rabies result in death?

A

Causes encephalitis by virus travelling up nerve axons towards CNS in retrograde fashion

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3
Q

What are 4 clinical features of rabies?

A
  1. Prodrome: headache, fever, agitation
  2. Hydrophobia: water-provoked muscle spasms
  3. Hypersalivation
  4. Negri bodies: cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in infected neurons
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4
Q

What should be done in the instance of an animal bite in countries at risk of rabies?

A
  • wash wound
  • if individual already immunised: 2 further doses of vaccine
  • if not previously immunised: give human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) + full vaccination course (dose should be administered locally around wound)
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5
Q

What is first line management of syphilis?

A

IM benzathine penicillin

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6
Q

What are 4 types of clostridia?

A
  1. C. perfringens - gas gangrene (myonecrosis)
  2. C. botulinum - canned foods/honey - flaccid paralysis
  3. C. difficile - pseudomembranous colitis
  4. C. tetani - tetanus, spastic paralysis
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7
Q

What type of bacteria are clostridia?

A

gram positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli

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8
Q

What is C. perfringens?

A
  • produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, causes gas gangrene (myonecrosis) and haemolysis
  • features include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic (black) blebs and bullae.
  • Crepitus on palpation
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9
Q

Where is C. botulinum classically found?

A

canned foods and honey

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10
Q

How does C. botulinum produce its effects?

A

prevents acetylcholine (ACh) release - leads to flaccid paralysis

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11
Q

How does C. tetani produce its effects?

A

produces exotoxin (tetanospasmin) that prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, causing spastic paralysis

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12
Q

Which organism is most commonly the cause of malaria in travellers returning to the UK?

A

Plasmodium falciparum protozoa

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13
Q

What are 6 examples of drugs which are used as malaria prophylaxis?

A
  1. atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone)
  2. chloroquine
  3. doxycycline
  4. mefloquine (Lariam)
  5. Proguanil (Paludrine)
  6. Proguanil + chloroquine
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14
Q

Which type of malaria prophylaxis is taken weekly? 2 types

A
  • mefloquine (lariam)
  • chloroquine
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15
Q

Which type of malaria prophylaxis is contraindicated in epilepsy (2 types)?

A
  1. chloroquine
  2. mefloquine
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16
Q

Which type of malaria prophylaxis is contraindicated in depression?

A

mefloquine

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17
Q

What is a key side effect of atovaquone + proguanil (malarone)?

A

GI upset

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18
Q

What is a key side effect of malaria prophylaxis drug chloroquine?

A

headache

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19
Q

What are 2 key side effects of doxycycline?

A
  1. photosensitivity
  2. oesophagitis
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20
Q

What are 2 key side effects of mefloquine (malaria prophylaxis)?

A
  1. dizziness
  2. neuropsychiatric disturbance
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21
Q

How long after travel should most types of malaria prophylaxis be stopped?

A

4 weeks (except Malarone - 7 days)

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22
Q

How long before travel should most types of malaria prophylaxis be started?

A

1 week (Malarone + doxy 1-2 days; mefloquine 2-3 weeks)

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23
Q

Which 2 types of malaria prophylaxis can be used in pregnancy (if travel cannot be avoided)?

A
  1. chloroquine
  2. proguanil - need folate supplementation alongside
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24
Q

What are 2 types of malaria prophylaxis recommended for use in children?

A
  1. diethyltoluamide (DEET) 20-50% - to repel mosquitoes (in children >2 months)
  2. doxycycline - children >12y
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25
Q

How many doses of tetanus-containing vaccine does the childhood vaccination programme give in total?

A

5

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26
Q

What are 3 groups into which wounds can be classified when decided about tetanus vaccination?

A
  • clean wound - < 6 hours old, non-penetrating, negligible tissue damage
  • tetanus prone - puncture-type injuries in contaminated environemnt e.g. garden, foreign bodies, compound fractures, wounds/burns with sepsis, animal bites and scratches
  • high-risk tetanus prone - heavy contamination e.g. soil, manure, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, wounds/burns requiring surgical intervention
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27
Q

In a patient with a wound, what course of action should be taken regarding tetanus vaccination?

A
  • if full course of vaccines with last dose <10 years ago - no vaccine or Ig
  • if full course of vaccines with last dose >10 years ago - if tetanus prone, give booster; high-risk: booster +tetanus immunoglobulin
  • if vaccination history incomplete / unknown - booster, if tetanus prone / high risk - tetanus immunoglobulin
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28
Q

What is considered the number of tetanus vaccine doses that confers lifelong protection?

A

5

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29
Q

What causes infectious mononucleosis?

A

HHV-4: EBV

less frequently CMB and HHV-6

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30
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms / signs in infectious mononucleosis?

A
  1. sore throat
  2. lymphadenopathy - anterior / posterior triangles of neck
  3. pyrexia
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31
Q

In addition to the classic triad what are 7 other features of infectious mononucleosis?

A
  1. malaise, anorexia, headache
  2. palatal petechiae
  3. splenomegaly
  4. hepatitis, transient ALT rise
  5. lymphocytosis
  6. haemolytic anaemia secondary to cold agglutins (IgM)
  7. maculopapular, pruritic rash when take amoxicillin
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32
Q

How long does it typically take symptoms of infectious mononucleosis to resolve?

A

2-4 weeks

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33
Q

How is a diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis made?

A

Monospot test - during 2nd week of illness

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34
Q

When should monospot test be performed during infectious mononucleosis?

A

2nd week of illness

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35
Q

What is the management of infectious mononucleosis / what advice must be given?

A
  • supportive, analgesia, fluids, avoid alcohol
  • avoid contact sports for 4 weeks afterwards - risk of splenic rupture
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36
Q

What is the link with EBV and socioeconomic groups?

A
  • higher rates of seropositivity in lower economic groups
  • higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis in higher socioeconomic groups - acquire EBV in adolescence rather than early childhood
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37
Q

How long should a child with mumps be excluded from school?

A

5 days from onset of swollen glands

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38
Q

What are 7 conditions where children don’t need to be excluded from school?

A
  1. conjunctivitis
  2. fifth disease (Slapped cheek)
  3. roseola
  4. infectious mononucleosis
  5. head lice
  6. threadworms
  7. hand, foot and mouth
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39
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for scarlet fever?

A

24h after commencing antibiotics

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40
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for whooping cough?

A

2 days after commencing abx or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no abx

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41
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for measles?

A

4 days from onset of rash

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42
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for rubella?

A

5 days from onset of rash

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43
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for chickenpox?

A

all lesions crusted over

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44
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for impetigo?

A

until lesions crusted and healed, or 48h after commencing abx

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45
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for scabies?

A

until treated

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46
Q

What is the school exclusion advice for influenza?

A

until recovered

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47
Q

Which virus most often causes the common cold?

A

rhinovirus

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48
Q

What pathogen is most likely to cause a pneumonia in a 45-year old smoker?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

49
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis exacerbations?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

50
Q

Which pneumonia is associated with deranged LFTs and hyponatraemia?

A

Legionella

51
Q

When should antiretroviral therapy be started in HIV?

A

should be initiated in all individuals with HIV-1 infection regardless of CD4 count

52
Q

What is the usual antiretroviral therapy drug regime in HIB?

A

3 drugs:
* 2x nuceoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)
* protease inhibitor (PI) OR non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)

53
Q

What are 2 examples of entry inhibitors (drugs for HIV)?

A
  1. maraviroc (binds CCR5)
  2. enfuvirtide (binds gp41)

prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells

54
Q

What are 8 examples of nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)?

A
  1. zidovudine (AZT)
  2. abacavir
  3. emtricitabine
  4. didanosine
  5. lamivudine
  6. stavudine
  7. zalcitabine
  8. tenofovir
55
Q

What is a side effect commont o many nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A

peripheral neuropathy

56
Q

What are 2 adverse effects of tenofovir?

A
  1. renal impairment
  2. osteoporosis
57
Q

What are 3 adverse effects of zidovudine?

A
  1. anaemia
  2. myopathy
  3. black nails
58
Q

What is a key side effect of didanosine?

A

pancreatitis

59
Q

What are 2 examples of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A
  1. nevirapine
  2. efavirenz
60
Q

What are 2 side effects of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)?

A
  1. P450 enzyme interaction
  2. rashes
61
Q

What are 4 examples protease inhibitors?

A
  1. indinavir
  2. nelfinavir
  3. ritonavir
  4. saquinavir
62
Q

What are 5 side effects of protease inhibitors?

A
  1. diabetes
  2. hyperlipidaemia
  3. buffalo hump
  4. central obesity
  5. P450 enzyme inhibition
63
Q

What are 2 side effects specific to indinvair (PI)?

A
  1. renal stones
  2. asymptomatic hyperbilirubinaemia
64
Q

What is a key side effect specific to ritonavir (PI)?

A

potential P450 inhibitor

65
Q

What is the mechanism of action of integrase inhibitors?

A

block action of integrase, viral enzyme that inserts viral genome into DNA of host cell

66
Q

What are 3 examples of integrase inhibitors?

A
  1. raltegravir
  2. elvitegravir
  3. dolutegravir
67
Q

In the absence of the erythema migrans rash, what is the first line test to diagnose Lyme disease?

A

ELISA to Borrelia burgdorferi

68
Q

What should be done if ELISA to Borrelia burgdorferi is negative and Lyme disease is still suspected?

A
  • repeat ELISA 4-6 weeks later
  • if still suspected in patients with symptoms 12 weeks or more - immunoblot test
69
Q

What are 4 causes of brain abscess?

A
  1. extension of sepsis from middle ear or sinuses
  2. trauma or surgery to the scalp
  3. penetrating head injuries
  4. embolic events from endocarditis
70
Q

What is the management of a brain abscess?

A
  • craniotomy + abscess cavity debridement
  • IVAB e.g. 3rd generation cephalosporin + metronidazole
  • ICP management e.g. dexamethasone
71
Q

What organism most commonly causes scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes - caused by Group A haemolytic streptococci

72
Q

What are the typical features of scarlet fever?

A
  • fever
  • malaise
  • headache
  • nausea / vomiting
  • sore throat
  • strawberry tongue
  • rash - fine punctate erythema (pinhead) first on torso (spares palms and soles) - sandpaper
73
Q

What is the treatment for scarlet fever (+ if pen allergic)?

A
  • 10 days penicillin V
  • allergy: azithromycin
74
Q

What are 6 complications of scarlet fever?

A
  1. otitis media
  2. rheumatic fever
  3. acute glomerulonephritis
  4. bacteraemia
  5. meningitis
  6. necrotising fasciitis
75
Q

What is the most common complication of scarlet fever?

A

otitis media

76
Q

When does rheumatic fever tend to occur after scarlet fever infection?

A

20 days after infection

77
Q

Which antibiotic should be prescribed after both human and animal bites?

A

co-amoxiclav

doxycycline + metronidazole if pen allergic

78
Q

What is the management of puncture wounds from animal bites?

A

should not be sutured closed unless cosmesis at risk

79
Q

What is the most common isolated bacteria from animal bites?

A

Pasteurella mutocida (but generally polymicrobial)

80
Q

What are 4 things that can triger bright red cheeks for several months after parvovirus B19 (erythema infectiosum) has resolved?

A
  1. warm bath
  2. sunlight
  3. heat
  4. fever
81
Q

What are the school exclusion rules for parvovirus B19 / slapped cheek diesase and why?

A

school exclusion not necessary because no longe rinfectious by the time rash occurs

82
Q

What is the guidance for a pregnant woman exposed to parvovirus B19 / slapped cheek in first 20 weeks?

A

seek prompt advice from provider of antenatal care - maternal IgM and IgG need to be checked

83
Q

When are patients with parvovirus B19 infection infectious?

A

3 - 5 days before appearance of rash

84
Q

What can parvovirus B19 infection cause in adults?

A

acute arthritis

85
Q

What can parvovirus B19 infection in pregnancy cause in the unborn fetus?

A

hydrops fetalis - causes severe anaemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, leading to heart failure secondary to severe anaemia, leads to accumulation fo fluid in fetal serous cavities e.g. asites, pleural and pericardial effusions

86
Q

What are 10 acute phase proteins?

A
  1. CRP
  2. procalcitonin
  3. ferritin
  4. fibrinogen
  5. alpha-1 antitrypsin
  6. caeruloplasmin
  7. serum amyloid A
  8. serum amyloid P component
  9. haptoglobin
  10. complement
87
Q

At what level is raised CRP after surgery suggestive of evolving complications?

A

150 at 48h post op

88
Q

What are 5 substances in serum that decrease in the acute phase response?

A
  1. albumin
  2. transthyretin (formerly prealbumin)
  3. transferrin
  4. retinol binding protein
  5. cortisol binding protein
89
Q

What is PEP For hepatitis A exposure?

A

human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or hepatitis A vaccine

90
Q

What PEP is given for hepatitis B in a HBsAg positive source?

A
  • booster dose of HBV if known responder
  • non-responder: hepatitis B immune globulin + booster vaccine
91
Q

What PEP is given for hepatitis B in an unknown source?

A
  • known responders to HBV vaccine: booster dose of vaccine
  • if in process of having vaccine or non-responder - hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) + vaccine
92
Q

What are the PEP Guidelines for hepatitis C?

A

monthly PCR - if seroconversion, interferon +- ribavirin

93
Q

What is given for PEP for HIV?

A

combination of oral antiretrovirals e.g. tenofovir, emtricitabine, lopinavir, ritonavir - ASAP (within 1-2 hours, up to 72h) for 4 weeks

94
Q

When should further testing be performed after HIV PEP is given?

A

12 weeks following completion of PEP

95
Q

When should VZIG be given?

A

pregnant women without IgG / immunosuppressed

96
Q

What is the classical route for spread of leptospirosis?

A

contact with infected rat urine

97
Q

What are 5 groups who are at risk of leptospirosis?

A
  1. sewage workers
  2. farmers
  3. vets
  4. work in abattoir
  5. recent travel to tropics
98
Q

What is Weil’s disease?

A

leptspirosis

99
Q

What are the 2 phases of leptospirosis?

A
  1. early phase - bacteraemia: fever, flu-like sx, subconjunctival suffusion / haemorrhage
  2. second immune phase (Weil’s disease): AKI, hepatitis, aseptic meningitis
100
Q

What are 3 investigations to perform in suspected leptospirosis?

A
  1. serology - antibodies to Leptospira
  2. PCS
  3. culture - takes several weeks
101
Q

What is the management of leptospirosis?

A

high dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

102
Q

How long is the course of doxycycline in Lyme disease?

A

14-21 days

103
Q

What type of bacteria are the Salmonella group?

A

aerobic, gram-negative rods (not normally present as commensals in the gut)

104
Q

What organisms cause typhoid and paratyhpoid?

A
  • typhoid: Salmonella typhia
  • paratyphoid: Salmonelal paratyphia (types A, B and C)
105
Q

How is typhoid transmitted?

A

faecal-oral route & in contaminated food + water

106
Q

What are 5 features of the presentation of typhoid / paratyphoid?

A
  • systemic upset - headache, fever, arthralgia
  • relative bradycardia
  • abdominal pain, distension
  • constipation > diarrhoea
  • rose spots on trunk
107
Q

What are 5 complications of typhoid / paratyphoid?

A
  1. osteomyelitis
  2. GI bleed / perforation
  3. meningitis
  4. cholecystitis
  5. chronic carriage
108
Q

What is the management of toxoplasmosis?

A

immunocompetent - no treatment
immunocompromised e.g. HIV: 6 weeks pyrimethamine + sulphadiazine

109
Q

How is toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

A

serology

110
Q

What is the commonest cause of meningitis in adults?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

111
Q

Which organism tends to cause severe malaria?

A

P Falciparum

112
Q

What is the criterion standard investigation for malaria?

A

Giemsa-stained thick and thin peripheral blood films/smears

113
Q

What are the features of the first, second and third week of typhoid, and fourth if patient survives?

A
  • 1st: GI (abdo pain, constipation from inflamed Peyer patches), and truncal maculopapules
  • 2nd: soft splenomegaly, bradycardia
  • 3rd: abdo distension, pea soup diarrhoea, bowel perf / peritonitis from necrotic Peyer’s patches
  • 4th: fever, mental state + abdo distension improve over a few days
114
Q

What is the gold standard investigation to diagnose typhoid?

A

culture isolation - 100% specific - blood + bone
culture of bone marrow 90% sensitive - very painful however

115
Q

Which vector transmits dengue?

A

Aedes mosquitoes - in subtropical + tropical areas

116
Q

What is a sensitive and specific symptom which is an indicator for dengue fever?

A

facial flushing

117
Q

What are 6 features of dengue?

A
  • high fever +- saddleback fever (abates for day then returns)
  • facial flushing
  • myalgias / arthralgias
  • haemorrhagic manifestations: bleeding from nose / gums, melaena, menorrhagia, haematemesis
  • abdo pain - if restless, confused, hypothermic + thrombocytopenic –> dengue haemorrhagic fever
  • cardiomyopathy
118
Q

What investigation is used to make a diagnosis of dengue?

A

serodiagnosis - rise in antibody titre in paired IgG or IgM specimens

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