Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is the common breed associated with Babesia canis and Babesia gibsoni infection, respectively?

A

Babesia canis: Greyhound
Babesia gibsoni: Pit Bull Terrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two common virus for feline upper respiratory tract diseases?

A

Feline Herpesvirus 1
Feline Calicivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False: For acute feline upper respiratory tract diseases, antibiotic is not recommended immediately. If patient declines with supportive care after 10 days, the first-line antibiotics is doxycycline or ampicillin.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False: 𝜷-lactam antibiotic is the first-line antibiotic for Bordetella bronchiseptica.

A

False

Not effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or False: For cats with chronic URI, If Pseudomonas aeruginosa is isolated in pure or nearly pure culture and believed to be the cause of a secondary infection, extensive flushing of the nasal cavity under anesthesia should be performed to remove loculated secretions.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If a cat with diagnosed URI develops mucopurulent discharge after treatment, what is recommended according to the ACVIM guidelines?

A

Restart the last effective antibiotic
If the treatment is ineffective in 48 hours, switch to another drug in the same class or different drug class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List 5 viruses that have been associated with CIRDC.

A

Canine adenovirus 2
Canine parainfluenza virus
Canine influenza virus
Canine distemper virus
Canine herpesvirus
Canine pneumovirus
Canine respiratory coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the first-line empirical antibiotics for CIRDC?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the recommended treatment duration for bacterial bornchitis?

A

If a positive response is obtained in the first 7–10 days, treatment should be continued to 1 week past resolution of clinical signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List 3 antibiotics that are effective to Mycoplasma spp

A

Enrofloxacin
Doxycycline
Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to the ACVIM guidelines, what is the recommended approach for canine and feline aspiration pneumonia?

A

If the dog or cat is acutely affected and has no evidence of systemic sepsis, the Working Group believes that either no treatment or parenteral administration of a beta-lactam antimicrobial like ampicillin, ampicillin-sulbactam, or the first-generation cephalosporin cefazolin might be sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

According to the ACVIM guidelines, what is the recommended antibiotic duration for bacterial pneumonia?

A

Re-evaluated in 10-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of bacteria is most common in canine pyothorax?

A

Mixed anaerobes

Prevotella spp., Peptostreptococcus spp., Propionibacterium acnes, Clostridium spp., Bacteroides spp., Fusobacterium spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of bacteria is most common in feline pyothorax?

A

oropharyngeal anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which breed is predisposed to systemic aspergillosis?

A

GSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the proposed mechanism for tick paralysis?

A

Holocyclotoxin

  • Impair ACh release at the NMJ by blocking Ca2+ influx at the axon terminal
  • impairs ACh at autonomic synapses, resulting in autonomic imbalance (predominantly sympathetic overdrive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is Clostridium botulinum a gram positive or gram negative anaerobic bacteria?

A

Gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which virus can cause corneal ulceration and keratitis, FHV-1 or FCV?

A

FHV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of virus is canine distemper virus?

A

Enveloped RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of virus are feline herpesvirus and feline calicivirus?

A

FHV-1: enveloped DNA virus
FCV: non-enveloped RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In feline panleukopenia, what are the three poor prognostic indicators?

A

Leukopenia
Hypokalemia
Hypoalbuminemia

22
Q

Where is canine distemper virus first infected in the body?

A

Monocytes within lymphoid tissue in the upper respiratory tract and tonsil

23
Q

What type of virus is FIP virus?

A

Enveloped RNA virus

24
Q

How long does it take for dogs with parvoviral infection to show clinical signs after infection?

A

4-10 days

25
Q

What findings in blood work is a positive prognostic indicators in paroviral infection?

A
  • Lack of lymphopenia on admission, at 24 and 48 hours post-admission (not leukopenia)
  • Presence of left shift
  • Lower total cholesterol
  • High-density lipoprotein cholesterol
26
Q

When do patients with parvoviral infection start to shed virus?

A

3-4 days after exposure

27
Q

In canine parvoviral infection, monitoring which WBC parameter may aid in the evaluation of bone marrow response?

A

Monocyte count

28
Q

For puppies who get colostrum with parvo antibodies, how long will the protection last?

A

12-20 weeks

29
Q

What kind of drug pH will help to trap the drug in the milk?

A

Weak base

  • Milk is weak acid
30
Q

Name the three class of drugs that can be used to treat mastitis and are safe for the neonates.

A

Penicillin
Cephalosporins
Macrolides

31
Q

In blastomycosis, what antigen cause the cell-mediated immune response?

A

Blastomyces adhesion 1 (BAD-1) antigen

32
Q

What is the most common clinical signs for blastomycosis?

A

Respiratory signs

33
Q

Where can you collect sample for histopasma cytology?

A

Rectal mucosal scraping
Lymph node aspirate
Dermal nodule cytology
Fluid analysis
Bone marrow
Liver, splenic aspirate
BAL

  • Most common form is disseminated form
34
Q

What is the most and second most common fungal infection in cats?

A

1) Cryptococcosis
2) Histoplasmosis

35
Q

True or False: Compared to dogs, cats are relatively resistant to coccidioidomycosis.

A

True

36
Q

True or False: For dogs with coccidioidomycosis, about 65% has concurrent bone involvement.

A

True

37
Q

What are the 4 types of necrotizing soft tissue infection?

A

Type I: polymicrobial
Type II: monomicrobial
Type III: associated with G (-), often marine-related organisms
Type IV: associated with fungal infection

38
Q

Fill out the blank:
The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is defined as “the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that will __________ of a given bacteria.”

A

inhibit the visible growth

39
Q

What is the pathogen of lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

40
Q

What is the immunosuppressive drug of choice for lyme nephritis? When should it be given?

A

Mycophenolate
When immune-complex glomerulonephritis (ICGN) is confirmed via biopsy or if patient deteriorates rapidly despite other medical management

41
Q

What is the proposed mechanism of leptospirosis-induced polyuria?

A

Decreased vasopressin responsiveness of the inner medullary collecting ducts

42
Q

True or False: Thrombocytopenia is common in dogs with leptospirosis.

A

True

43
Q

What does leptospirosis microagglutination test (MAT) test for?

A

The antibodies in the blood target certain serovars

44
Q

In leptospirosis microagglutination test (MAT) test, what result is considered positive?

A

1) titer ≥ 1600 in the absence of vaccination
2) A 4-fold change in titer (blood collected at acute infection phase and then 2-4 weeks later)

45
Q

True or False: In the 1st week of illness, dogs frequently have negative MAT results.

A

True

46
Q

If you want to perform leptospirosis PCR tests, when should you collect blood sample and urine sample, respectively?

A

First week: blood sample
Second week: blood + urine sample

  • In the first 10 days of infection, organism numbers are highest in blood, and thus blood is the sample of choice during the first week of illness. After that time, organisms are present in highest concentration in urine.
47
Q

True or False: In a recent study published by Zamagni and colleagues in The Veterinary Journal in 2020, dogs with AKI secondary to leptospirosis had significantly increased fraction excretion of K as well as more frequent positive dipstick glucosuria than dogs with AKI secondary to other causes

A

True.

  • In the same studies, frequency and severity of granular cast as well as urinary NGAL did not differ significantly between two groups.
48
Q

List 3 mechanisms of leptospirosis causing kaliuresis.

A

1) Inhibit Na,K-ATPase
2) Increase aldosterone and cortisol production
3) Inhibit NKCC2 on the thick ascending loop of Henle

49
Q

In dogs with leptospirosis, which immunoglobulin can be detected earlier, IgM or IgG?

A

IgM

  • Presence of igM indicates recent/current infection. It appears as early as 4–6 days after infection and remains detectable for only a few months.
  • Witness test → 10 days
50
Q

Which antibiotic can clear the leptospires in the blood and the organs?

A

Doxycycline

Dose: 5 mg/kg PO q12h x 2 weels
* Usually start with ampicillin at the beginning if animal cannot tolerate doxycycline