Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of C diff colitis

A

C difficile produces an exotoxin that induces necrosis of the superficial mucosa.

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2
Q

Management of CDI Colitis

A

Mild-mod - Metronidazole

Severe or recurrent - PO Vancomycin

Multiple recurrences - faecal transplant

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3
Q

Polyenes (amphotericin B)

A

MOA: Bind to membrane egosterol causing pore formation, potassium efflux and cell death.

A/E: Renal toxicity, infusion reactions, hypoK, hypoMag, hepatotoxicity.

Few drug interactions.

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4
Q

Pyrimidine Analogues (5-fluorocytosine)

A

MOA: Binds to cytosine permease, imported into cell, converted to fluorouracil by cytosine deaminase, inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

Indication:
Pathogenic YEASTS (cryptococcus)

A/E:
Bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity.

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5
Q

Azole Antifungals

A

Imidazoles: Clotrimizole, ketoconazole, miconazole.
Triazoles: fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole, isavuconazole

MOA: Inhibit the enzyme C13-Alpha-Sterol demethylase, which causes build up of sterol precursors and inhibits ergosterol synthesis (integral for cell wall?)

Indications: Varies for each azole.
- Candidiasis - fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole
- Cryptococcosis - fluconazole, itraconazole
- Invasive Aspergillosis (voriconazole, isavuconazole)
- Mucormycosis - isavuconazole

A/E:
- Hepatoxocity, QT prolongation, CYP450 inhibition

Voriconazole causes photosensitivity, reversible photpsia, and bone marrow toxicity

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6
Q

Echinocandins (caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungi

A

MOA: Inhibit fungal cell wall polysaccharide B-1,3 glucan synthesis –> fungicidal. For aspergillus spp inhibits this at the hyphae tip which is fungistatic.

Indications:
- Invasive fungal infections (especially candida)

Well tolerated, minimal drug interactions.

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7
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Screen women <25year annually, and older women with risk factors.

Treat:
- Doxycycline 100mg BD for 7 days
OR
- Azithromycin 1g PO STAT (preferred in pregnancy)

Treat for LONGER if ANORECTAL INFECTION

Retest in 3 months after treatment.
Contact trace for 6 months

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8
Q

COVID-19

A

RNA virus
PCR Nasal swab has 70% sensitivity

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9
Q

Dengue Virus

A

Most common arthopod borne human disease, most common cause of febrile illness in travellers from Asia and South America.

Genus: Flavivirus
4 different serotypes.
Transmission: Aedes mosquito
Incubation: 3-14 days (usually 4-7). If fever starts >14 days after travel Dengue is very unlikely.
Symptoms: Fever, headache, back and extremity pain (breakbone fever)

Usually self-limiting disease.
If infected for a second time by a different serotype, at risk of “dengue hemorrhagic fever” with an untreated mortality rate of 50%

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10
Q

Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever

A

50% untreated mortality, 5% with supportive management.

Severe inflammatory response leads to leaky capillaries and extravasation of fluid.

Diagnosis:

Management:
- Fluid management to maintain organ perfusion
- Management of coagulopathy if significant bleeding - NO role for prophylactic transfusion.
- NO role for high dose steroids.

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11
Q

Phases of Dengue Infection:

A

Febrile phase
- lasts for 3-7 days with high fevers, headache, pain.
- Bloods often show thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, LFT derangement.

Critical Phase (more likely to occur with SECONDARY INFECTION, with a different serotype)
- around the time of defervescence (days 4-7), a small number of people develop a systemic vascular leak phase.
- increasing haematocrit, hypoproteinaemia, 3rd spacing of fluid (ascites pleural effusions).
- haemorrhage may occur in this phase, labs may show thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and APTT, low fibrinogen. But it is not DIC.

Recovery Phase:
- Critical phase usually resolves over 48-72 hours.

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12
Q

Dengue Diagnosis:

A

PCR

ELISA for NS1 antigen

High titre IgM

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13
Q

Management of Human bite wounds:

A
  • Do not close, allow to heal by secondary intention.
  • X-ray to assess for fracture, foreign body or air in joint.
  • Do not need to swab, is usually polymicrobial with aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
  • Give prophylactic antibiotics with Amox/Clav
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14
Q

Flu Vaccine

A
  • becomes effective 10-14 days after administration.
  • 50% effectiveness against Flu A, 70% with flu B
  • High dose trivalent vaccine recommended for >65 years.
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15
Q

Influenza in pregnancy:

A
  • Can be vaccinated in any trimester
  • Recommend treatment with neurominidase inhibitors with infected
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16
Q

Listeria Monocytogenes

A

Small, gram positive, facultative intracellular bacteria.
Ubiquitous in nature, and therefore acquired from contaminated food products (unpasteurised dairy, meats, vegetables)

Vertical transmission across the placenta or during delivery can occur.

Clinical disease:
- menigoencphalitis
- sepsis
- gastroenteritis

Patients affected are older, immunocompromised, diabetics, pregnant or new borns.
Infection in pregnancy can lead to premature birth or foetal death.

Intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins
Treatment is with penicillin.

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17
Q

Species of Plasmodium causing Malaria in humans

A

Plasmodium falciparum - risk of severe disease

Plasmodium vivax - usually milder disease, can cause recurrent disease.

Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium wallikeri

Plasmodium knowlesi - can cause severe disease.

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18
Q

Malaria epidemiology

A

Transmission: Anopheles mosquito

Most common species:
- Africa (Falciparum)
- Asia/Oceana (Falciparum and Vivax)
- Americas (Vivax > Falciparum)

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19
Q

Malaria lifecycle

A
  • Sporozoites are inoculated by the bite of a ANOPHELES mosquito
  • Pre-erythrocytic phase is the liver which lasts for 1-2 weeks
  • Erythrocytic phase with serial cycles of asexual reproduction causes increasing levels of paracitaemia.
  • A subset of intra-erythrocytic paracites switch to sexual reproduction which produce male and female gametocytes which are transmitted back to the mosquito via a blood meal.

In Vivax and Ovale a some of the sporozoites lay dormant in the liver as hypnozoites and may cause relapse months or years later.

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20
Q

Pathogenesis of Malaria:

A

Symptoms occur once the paracitaemia passes a certain threshold (100 paracites per microL)

Incubation periods:
- Falciparum or knowlesi 10-14 days
- Vivax or Ovale 2-3 weeks
- Malariae >3 weeks
- But note some species of vivax can have incubation period up to 3-6 months.

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21
Q

Pathogenesis of Malaria:

A

Symptoms occur once the paracitaemia passes a certain threshold (100 paracites per microL)

Incubation periods:
- Falciparum or knowlesi 10-14 days
- Vivax or Ovale 2-3 weeks
- Malariae >3 weeks
- But note some species of vivax can have incubation period up to 3-6 months.

Falciparum is special. Erythrocytes with mature paracites sequester in small and medial blood vessels which causes endothelial dysfunction and obstruction:
- Brain - coma
- Lungs - respiratory disease
- pregnant women - placenta - foetal death

Anaemia caused by extravascular and intravascular haemolysis.

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22
Q

Clinical presentation of Malaria

A

Split into 2 disease presenations - uncomplicated or severe.

Uncomplicated:
- Non-specific symptoms - fever, headache, malaise, cough etc

Complicated - end organ dysfunction:
- Confusion, seizures
- Respiratory distress
- Bleeding
- jaundice
- Oliguria
- Shock

Lab criteria for complicated:
- Hb < 70, haemoglobinuria
- Hypoglycaemia
- Lactic acidosis
- AKI
- Asexual paracitaemia > 2%

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23
Q

Diagnosis of Malaria

A

Thick film - provide sensitivity

Thin film - provides quantification and speciation.

Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDT) - detect antigen

NAAT - highly sensitive

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24
Q

Management of Severe Malaria

A

Severe malaria
- IV Artesunate ASAP
- Monitor paracitaemia 6-12 hourly
- Supportive care
- Give for at least 24 hours, and then can change to PO ACT once able to eat and drink

Adjunctive therapy:
- Bacteraemia is common, give IV Ceftriaxone until blood cultures negative
- Paracetamol

2nd line is quinine loading.

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25
Q

Management of uncomplicated malaria

A

Artemisinin based combination therapy (ACT) is first line (except in 1st trimester pregnancy)
- Artemisin rapidly reduces paracitaemia
- Combination drug gradually removes residual paracites.

Artemether-lumefantrine is used in Aus.

2nd line is atovaquone + proguanil

Locations with artemisinin resistance is increasing:
- Vietnam
- Cambodia,
- Thailand
- Laos
- Myanmar

Vivax and Ovale must be treated concurrently with Primaquine for 14 days to eliminate hypnozoites (exclude G6PD prior to giving primaquine)

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26
Q

Management of malaria in pregnancy

A

In 1st trimester give quinine and clindamycin.

After 12 weeks treatment with ACT as per usual guidelines.

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27
Q

Malaria prophylaxis

A

Strongly recommended for children, pregnant women, people staying for >8 weeks, high risk areas, patients with hyposplenism.

Vector avoidance

Medications:
1 - Atovaquone + proguanil
- start 1-2 days prior, continue for 7 days on return

2 - Doxycycline
- Start 1-2 days before going, continue for 4 weeks on return
- Not recommended for < 8 years old

3 - Mefloquine (once weekly dose)
- start 2-3 weeks prior, continue for 4 weeks on return
- high resistance in Greater Mekong Subregion.

Why continue for so long on return?
Doxy and Mefloquine are not effective against pre-erythrocytic phase in liver.

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28
Q

Complication of malaria

A

Delayed anaemia

hyper-reactive splenomegaly

Neurological sequale

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29
Q

Meloidosis

A

Caused by bacteria Burkholderia pseudomallei
- aerobic, gram negative bacilli

Endemic in Northern Australia
Increased cases during Wet Season, transmission from direct contact with soil.
More common in immunosuppressed

Usually presents as pneumonia
But any organ can be affected - basically causes a bacterial infection +/- abscess formation of any organ.

Diagnosis:
Culture - will grow on normal media, send cultures from everywhere.

Treatment:
Intensive phase: IV Ceftazadime or Meropenem for 14 days
Eradication phase: PO Bactrim for 3months

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30
Q

Methenamine hippurate

A

In the presense of acidiic urine < pH 5.5, hiprex is hydrolysed to form fomaldehyde and ammonia. Formaldehyde is bacteriocidal to almost all pathogens.

It is not effective with:
- urinary catheters, as urine is drained immediately
- Urea splitting bacteria such a proteus

Some evidence that it reduces recurrence rate of UTI
Best given with something to acidify the urine - ascorbic acid, cranberry juice
also avoid in renal and hepatic failure

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31
Q

Splenectomy Guidelines - Vaccination

A

Patients with asplenia or hyposplenia are at high risk of fulminant sepsis:
- Streptococcus pneumoniae (most common)

Immunisation with pneumococcal, meningococcal, Hib, and influenza vaccine recommended.

If surgical splenectomy - vaccinated at least 2 weeks pre. If emergency, vaccinate at least 1 week after.

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32
Q

Splenectomy Guidelines - Antibiotic prophylaxis:

A

Who gets antibiotic prophylaxis:
- children less than 5
- Patients who have had a splenectomy - start prophylaxis post op and continue for at least 3 years.

Consider prophylaxis in other people who have asplenia/hyposplenia with additional risk factors:
- Incomplete vaccination
- immunodeficiency
- malignancy
- immunosuppressive therapy
- previous invasive pneumococcal disease

Amoxicillin 250mg daily
Duration:
- Until age of 5
- 3 years post splenectomy
- Ongoing if previous overwhelming post-splenectomy infection or if significantly immunosuppressed.

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33
Q

Other management of aslpenia

A

Sick day management:
- If develops fever take 2g amoxicillin and then 1 gram 8 hourly while awaiting urgent medial assessment.

Fpr children use Amox+Clavulanic acid

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34
Q

Definition of asplenia / hyposplenia

A

Asplenia:
- Anatomic asplenia due to splenectomy
- Functional asplenia due to Sickle cell disease

Hyposplenia:
- Considered significant (and therefore warrants antibiotic prophylaxis and vaccination) if sickle cell disease, recurrent infection with encapsulated organisms, or evidence of hyposplenia on bloods - Howell Jolly bodies.

Encapsulated organisms are usually cleared by the spleen:
- Pneumococcus
- Hib
- Neiserria meningitidis

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35
Q

5 Categories of Fungi:

A

YEASTS (unicellular, white, asexual reproduction = budding, smooth round colonies)
- Candida
- Crytptococcus

MOULDS (Multicellular, organised into hyphae, variety of colours, reproduce by spore formation (asexual or sexual), Colonies appear fuzzy)
- Aspergillus
- Mucorales

DIMORPHIC FUNGI
- Can act as yeast or mould
- Mould in soils, form spores and can be inhaled, form capulated lesions in lungs
- Hystoplasma, Blastomyes, Coccidiodes, Sporothrix

DERMATOPHYTES:
- Collection of fungi that share the ability to metabolize and live on keratin from skin
- names after body part involved.

PNEUMOCYTIS
- originally thought to be parasite, now recognised to be fungi

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36
Q

Fungal Cell Wall

A

Phospholipid bilayer
Ergosterol
Chitin
B 1-3 Glucan
Glucans
Glycoprotein

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37
Q

Polyene Antifungal Spectrum

A

Amphotericin
MOA: binds to ergosterol and forms pores in fungal cell wall
Extremely broad spectrum against basically all species of fungi including yeast (most candida and crptoccus), mould (most aspergillus spp and mucorales, and the dimorphic fungi

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38
Q

Fluconazole Spectrum

A

Effective against candida albicans, but not other candida species.

1dt line for cryptococcus
Effective against dimorphic fungi

NOT effective:
- non albicans candida species
- Moulds - aspergillus or mucorales

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39
Q

Itraconazole

A

Not recommended for systemic infections.

Used for ABPA against aspergillus

1st line for mild mod disease with dimorphic fungi

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40
Q

Voriconazole

A

1st line against invasive aspergillus disease

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41
Q

Posazonazole

A

Mould active with activity against both aspergillus and mucorales.

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42
Q

Echinocandins Mechanism

A

Inhibit B 1,3 glucan synthesis which inhibits cell wall.

Results in cell lysis among Candida

Inhibits growth of aspergillus

43
Q

Echinocandins Use

A

Emperic therapy in candida infections

Second line agent in invasive aspergillus disease

Minimal activity against mucorales or dimorphic fungi

44
Q

Gram negative cocci

A

Neisseria sp
Moraxella

45
Q

Gram positive bacilli/rods

A

Clostridium sp
Actinomyces sp

46
Q

Coccobacilli

A

Gram positive coccobacilli - Listeria

Gram negative cocobacilli - Haemophilus, Legionella, Bordetella

Gram Variable/Pleomorphic - Acinetobacter

47
Q

Macrolides

A

Azithromycin and erythromycin

Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosome

48
Q

Clindamycin

A

Inhibits 50S Subunit ribosome

49
Q

Linezolid

A

Inhibit protein synthesis
Inhibits 50S Subunit Ribosome

50
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Gentamycin, Amykacin, Tobramycin

Inhibit Protein synthesis
Inhibir 30S Subunit Ribsome

Bactericidal

Contraindicated in MG

51
Q

Tetracyclines

A

Doxycycline

Inhibit protein synthesis, inhibiting 30S subunit ribosome

52
Q

Quinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Levofloxacin

Bactericidal
Highly bioavailability
Good tissue penetration (excluding CNS)

MOA: Inhibit DNA Gyrase/Topoisomerase

53
Q

Trimethoprim Sulfamethoxazole

A

Inhibit folate synthesis and therefore nucleic acid synthesis.

54
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A

Create free radicals, inhibit bacteria nucleic acid synthesis

55
Q

Metronidazole

A

Create free radicals, inhibit bacterial nucleic acid synthesis

NO aerobic effect
Never use as mono-therapy apart from C diff

Disulfram effect

56
Q

Bacterial Cell wall inhibitors

A

Beta-lactams

Glycopeptides: Vancomycin, Teicoplanin

Daptomycin

Polypeptides

57
Q

Inhibit Nucleic acid synthesis

A

Inhibit DNA Gyrase or Topoisomerase - Quinolones

Inhibit folate synthesis - Trimethoprim (inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, same as MTX but specific for bacterial enzyme), Sulfamethoxazole inhibit folate synthesis.

Create free radials - Metro, Nitrofurantoin

58
Q

Bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors

A

50S subunit inhibitors:
- Macrolides
- Clindamycin
- Linezolid

Inhibit 30S subunit:
- Aminoglycosides
- Tetracyclines

59
Q

Beta-Lactams

A

Bacterio-CIDAL

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Monobactam - Aztreonam

60
Q

Glycopeptide Antibiotics

A

Vancomycin, Teicoplanin
- Inhibit cell wall synthesis

61
Q

Daptomycin

A

Depolarises cell membrane, bacteriocidal

Efffective against MRSA, VRE (faecalis and faecium)

Myopathy, neuropathy

62
Q

Linezolid

A

MOA: Inhibits 50S subunit RNA pol, inhibiting protein synthesis

Effective against MRA and VRE

Only PO MRSA agent

A/E:
- Myelosupression, lactic acidosis, neuropathy, optic neuritis, serotonin syndrome.

63
Q

4 highly resistant gram negative bacteria

A

Pseudomonas a
ESBL producing bacteria
Acinetobacter
Stenotrophomonas

64
Q

Antibiotics with anaerobic cover

A

Metronidazole
Carbapenems
Beta-Lactam + Beta Lactamase
Clindamycin
Moxifloxacin

How to choose:
- Above diaphragm - Clindamycin preferred (metronidazole misses actinomyces and micro-aerophilic strep)
- Below Diaphragm - Metronidazole preferred
- to cover everywhere - Amox/Clav, Pip-taz, Carbapenem, Moxifloxacin.

65
Q

Treatment of atypical infections

A

Macrolides - Azithromycin
Doxycycline
Quinolones

66
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staphylococcus sp

67
Q

Gram positive cocci in pairs and chains

A

streptococcus spp
enterococcus spp

68
Q

Gram positive diplococci

A

strep pneumoniae

69
Q

Gram negative coccobacilli

A

haemophilus influenzae

70
Q

UTI with negative nitrite test?

A

Enterococcus
Staph saprophyticus

71
Q

UTI with pH > 6.5

A

Suggests the organism produces a Urease:
- Proteus
- Klebsiella
- S saprophyticus

72
Q

Troponemal Tests for Syphilis

A

Highly sensitive and specific, however once positive generally stays positive for life making interpretation difficult.

Think T

FTA
TPPA
TPHA
Syphilis specific Ab (CMIA/EIA)

73
Q

Non-treponemal tests for Syphilis

A

Detects and QUANTIFIES Ab to non-specific antigens associated with ACTIVE syphilis infection.

Less sensitivity and specific than treponemal tests. But titre will decrease 4 fold with treatment, usually to 0.
However can also decline without treatment, making interpretation more difficult.

THINK NO T

RPR
VDRL

74
Q

Treatment of Syphilis

A

IM Benzathine penicillin (1.8g / 2.4million U)

Duration:
- Primary, Secondary or Early Latent (<2 years) = 1 single dose, or 2 doses one week apart in 3rd trimester pregnancy.

  • Late Latent = 3 x weekly doses
  • Tertiary = 14 days of benzylpenicilin

If penicillin hypersensitivity - desensitisation is recommended, 28 days doxycycline if not possible.

Follow-up:
- Repeat RPR titre at 3, 6, and 12 months
- Successful treatment with 4 fold (or 2 titre) decline in Syphilis.

75
Q

Algorithm for Syphilis Testing:

A

1 - Specific Treponemal Test - FTA, TPHA, EIA. If positive, you have been exposed to syphilis at some stage. proceed to non-treponemal test.

2 - Proceed to RPR or VDRL (non-treponemal test)

If Non-treponemal is negative, then a second alternative treponemal test is performed:
- If negative, then the initial test was likely false positive.
- If positive, than likely indicates infection and treat accordingly

If history of previous infection:
- Compare previous VDRL/RPR titres to determine if successful treatment or re-infection. (fourfold titre or 2 dilution change)

76
Q

Staging of Syphilis:

A

Primary - Chancre
Secondary - systemic syndrome

Positive serology on test but no clinical symptoms/signs = Latent Syphilis
- Within 2 years - Early Latent Syphilis
- > 2 years - Late Latent Syphilis
(use previous serology, history of clear primary or secondary syphilis within 2 years, sexual debut)

Tertiary Syphilis:
- Gummatous disease
- Cardiovascular
- Neurological

77
Q

Q Fever Facts

A

Caused by Coxiella burnetti
Gram negative obligate intracellular pathogen

Route of Transmission: Inhalation of droplets released by infected animals (sheep, cattle, goats, dogs, cats, birds, rodents, ticks - shed in birth products, urine, faeces, milk). Can also get by drinking raw milk.

Presentation:
- Non-specific febrile illness, constitutional symptoms.
- Incubation period 20 days

Diagnosis: Serology

Treatment:
- Doxycyclines
- Chronic: Doxycycline + Hydroxychloroquine

78
Q

Exotic Infectins

A

Lyme DIsease - Borrelia burgforferi

Rickettsia autralis - Tick typhus

Brucellosis - Brucella

79
Q

Most common form of TB resistance

A

Isoniazid Resistance is most common - present in 10% of australian isolates.
Standard short course therapy is not appropriate for these patients.

80
Q

Standard Short Course TB Treatment

A

Intensive phase = 2 months of RIPE +/- pyridoxine (to prevent peripheral neuropathy)

Continuation phase = 2 months of RI

Only suitable if:
- bacteria are susceptible to RIP
- no meningitis or CNS disease, or complicated MSK disease.
- no extensive disease on CXR

81
Q

Definition of Multi-Drug Resistant TB

A

Resistance to at least Isoniazid and Rifampicin (1-3% of Australian isolates)

82
Q

Definition of Extensively drug resistant TB (XDR-TB)

A

MDR-TB + resistance to Quinolones and 2nd line parenteral drugs.

Usually treat with aminoglycoside amikacin

83
Q

Treatment of TB Meningitis

A

Complicated
May need higher doses of Rifampicin to penetrate CNS.
May need addition of Moxifloxacin for CNS penetration
Use steroids for 6-8 weeks
Treat for extended duration 12 months.

84
Q

Treatment of Extrapulmonary TB

A

Can have standard short course treatment except if:

TB Meningitis or CNS
Extensive MSK disease (Potts disease)
Miliary TB
HIV Infection

85
Q

Ethambutol

A

Optic Neuritis
Monitor visual acuity and colour vision at baseline and then monthly.
More likely in those with renal impairment.

86
Q

Rifampicin

A

Hepatitis
Orange Urine
Enzyme INDUCER - lowers efficacy of other drugs

87
Q

Isoniazid

A

Rash
Liver enzyme elevation / Hepatitis
Peripheral Neuropathy - Pyridoxine B6 may prevent

88
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

Hepatitis
Hyperuricaemia
GI upset

89
Q

HIV and TB

A

Risk of IRIS

Treat TB first and then add HART
- 2 weeks if CD4<50
- 8-12 weeks if CD4>50
- At least 8 weeks regardless if TB CNS disease

90
Q

Treatment of latent TB

A

Isoniazid monotherapy 9 months

Rifampicin monotherapy for 4 months

Rifampicin + Isoniazid for 3 months

90
Q

Treatment of latent TB

A

Isoniazid monotherapy 9 months

Rifampicin monotherapy for 4 months

Rifampicin + Isoniazid for 3 months

91
Q

Mechanism of Rifampicin

A

Inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase (same as rifabutin, rifaximin)

SImilar:
- Cytarabine - human RNA pol
- Aciclovir - viral RNA pol

92
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma

A

Ulcerated lesions typically on lower extremity

Caused by Kaposi Sarcoma associated herpes virus (KSHV) also known as Human Herpes Virus 8

HHV8 also associated with primary effusion lymphoma and Castlemans DIsease (giant lymph node hyperplasia)

93
Q

Merkel Cell carcinoma

A

Rare neuroendocrine tumour of the skin caused by POLYOMA VIRUS

94
Q

Opportunistic Infections in HIV

A

CD$ 200-500:
- Herpes Zoster, Pneumococcla pneumonia, Oral Candidiasis, TB

CD4 < 200:
- PJP, Kaposi Sarcoma, NHL, PCNS Lymphoma
- Therefore give Bactrim <200

CD4 < 100
- - CNS Toxoplasmosis

CD4 <50
- Disseminated MAC - Therefore give Azithromycin 1gram weekly < 50
- CMV (retinitis)
- Crtyptocporidiosis

95
Q

Strategies for ART in HIV

A

Start as soon as safe to do so.
Use 3 drugs from at least 2 different classes (usually 2 x NRTI + and INSTI, NNRTI, or boosted PI.

Data also supports the use of 2 drug regimen Dolutegravir + Lamivudine

Think about:
- Tenofovir - avoid in renal impairment and osteopenia
- Abacavir - test for HLAB5701
- In the presence of hep B co-infection treat with Tenofovir (Emtricitabine and Lamivudine also have some activity).

96
Q

Initial Regimens for HIV

A

BIKTARVY = Bictegravir (BIC = INSTI), Tenofovir alafenamide (TAF = NRTI), emtricitabine (FTC = NRTI)

TRIUMEQ = Dolutegravir (DTG = INSTI), abacavir (ABC = NRTI), lamivudine (3TC = NRTI)
- Must be HLAB1507 negative and hepB negative

TRUVADA = Tenoforvir Disoproxil Fumarate (TDF) + Emtracitabine (FTC)

DESCOVY = TAF + Emtracitabine

DOVATO = Dolutegravir (DTG = INSTI), Lamivudine (3TC = NRTI)
- Not for individuals with HIV > 500 000c/ml, HBV co-infection, or before viral resistance testing has been done.

97
Q

Protease Inhibitors in HIV

A

Darunavir
Atazanavir

Always are boosted with Ritonavir or Cobicistat

Major A/E is Increased CVD Risk

98
Q

INSTIs in HIV

A

Raltegravir
Dolutegravir
Bictegravir
Cabotegravir - long acting injectable

Major A/E is Weight Gain

99
Q

HIV PrEP

A

Tenofovir disoproxil fumerate (TDF) + Emtracitabine (FTC)

Can be On demand - prior to sex, and then 2 time daily. Good for infrequent exposures.

Can be daily.
3 monthly HIV tests and STI checks

100
Q

Post Exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

A

Non-occupational exposure with KNOWN HIV status.
- Only recommended if source is not on treatment or has unknown viral load.
- If undetectable viral load known, then not recommended.
- Not recommended for any oral sexual exposure (low risk)

Non-occupational exposure to a source with UNKNOWN HIV Status:
- Not recommended for vaginal or oral intercourse. Not recommended for a non-intact skin or random needle stick injury.
- 2 drug regimen recommended for anal intercourse or needle sharing with MSM or from high prevalence country only.

101
Q

Prophylaxis in HIV

A

Primary - <200 Bactrim, < 50 Azithro

Secondary - continue prophylaxis after induction treatment for OI until immune restoration on ART.

Cessation of prophylaxis:
- PCP, Toxo, Crypto - CD4>200 for 3-6m
- MAC - CD4>100 for 3-6m
- CMV - CD4 >100-150 for 6m

102
Q

Japanese Encephalitis Epi

A

RNA Virus
Flaviviriadae family - along with Murrary Valley Encepnalitis, West Nile Virus

Viral life cycle involves CULEX mosquito transmitting virus between PIGS and WADING BIRDS. Humans are infected as end hosts.

103
Q

Japanese Encephalitis CLinical

A

Transmitted by CULEX Mosquito

Risk if working with pigs or live within 4km of piggery

1% of cases develop encephalitis - parkinsonian features, asyymetrical limb paralysis, SIADH. 20-30% fatality rate if develop encephalitis.

Diagnosis - PCR, igM, MRI (Deep lesions)

Supportive care

Vaccinate:
- IMOJEV - live attenuated
- JESPECT / IXARIO - inactivated