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Infectious Disease > Infectious Disease MTB > Flashcards

Infectious Disease MTB Flashcards

0
Q

What Iv ABX cover staph aureus?

A

Oxacillin, nafcillin or cefazolin

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1
Q

What does staph aureus typically affect?

A

Bone, heart, skin, joint

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2
Q

What oral antibiotics cover MSSA?

A

Dicloxacillin or cephalexin

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3
Q

How do you treat a severe MRSA infection?

A

Vanc, linezolid dalton yon ceftaroline tigecycline or telavancin

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4
Q

What side effect does linezolid cause?

A

Thrombocytopenia

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5
Q

What side effect does dalton using cause?

A

Myopathy and a rising cpk

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6
Q

How do you treat a minor MRSA infection?

A

Bactrim, doxy or clinda

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7
Q

If a pt has a pcn allergy that causes a rash what ABX do you use to tx staph?

A

Cephalosporin

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8
Q

If a pt has a pcn allergy that causes anaphylaxis what do you use to treat staph ?

A

Macrolides ( azithro, clarithro) cLinda or bactrim

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9
Q

What medications are specific for the treatment of strep?

A

Penicillin, ampicillin, amoxicillin

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10
Q

What are examples of gram neg bacilli(rods)

A

E. coli, enterobacter,citrobacter, morganella,pseudomonas, serratia

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11
Q

What can you treat gram negs rods with?

A

Cephalosporins, penicillins, monobactam, quinolone a, amainoglycosides, and carbapenems

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12
Q

What are some examples of amino glycosides?

A

Gentamicin, tobramycin,amikacin

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13
Q

What is the only carbapenem that does not cover pseudomonas?

A

Ertapenem

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14
Q

What covers strep staph and anaerobes?

A

Piperciillin and ticarcillin

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15
Q

Gives 3 examples of excellent pneumococcal drugs

A

Levofloxacin gemifloxacin and moxifloxacin

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16
Q

What antibiotic works synergistically with other agents to treat staph and strep?

A

Amino glycosides ( gent, tobra, amikacin)

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17
Q

What antibiotic class is used for excellent anti anaerobic coverage including strep and MSSA. Give examples in class.

A

Carbapenrms ( imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem and doripenem)

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18
Q

What antibiotic covers MRSA and is broadly active against gram neg bacilli?

A

Tigecycline

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19
Q

What meds do you use for GI anaerobic tx?

A

Metronidazole ( DOC)

Carbepenems, piperacillin and ticarcillin

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20
Q

What are the only cephalosporins that cover anaerobes?

A

Cefoxitin and cefotetan

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21
Q

What is the adverse side effect of linezolid?

A

Low platelets

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22
Q

What is the adverse side effect of imipenem?

A

Seizures

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23
Q

What is the DOC for respiratory anaerobic strep?

A

Clindamycin

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24
Q

What are the medications no anaerobic coverage?

A

Aminoglycosides aztreonam fluoroquinolones oxacillin/nafcillin and all the cephalosporins except cefoxitin and cefotetan

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25
Q

What is the best long-term therapy for CMV retinitis?

A

Valganciclovir

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26
Q

What are side effects of valganciclovir and ganciclovir?

A

Neutropenia and bone marrow suppression

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27
Q

What is the side effect of foscarnet?

A

Renal toxicity

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28
Q

What antiviral agent do you use to treat. Influenza A and B?

A

Oseltamivirand zanamivir (neuraminidase inhibitors)

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29
Q

What is ribavirin used to treat?

A

Hepatitis C and RSVP

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30
Q

What antiviral a treat chronic hep b?

A

Lamivudine interferon adefovir tenofovir entecavir and telbivudine

31
Q

What is the best agent against aspergillus?

A

Voriconazole

32
Q

What is a side effect of voriconazole?

A

Visual disturbances

33
Q

DOC for neutropenic fever?

A

Echinocandins( capsofungin micafungin and anidulafungin)

34
Q

What 3 things is amphotericin effective against?

A

Candida cryptococcus and aspergillus

35
Q

DOC for aspergillus?

A

Voriconazole

36
Q

DOC for neutropenic fever?

A

Caspofungin

37
Q

DOC for candida?

A

Fluconazole

38
Q

What are adverse effects of amphotericin?

A

Renal tox/ inc cr
Hypokalemia
Met acidosis
Fevers shakes chills

39
Q

What is the earliest finding of osteomyelitis on x-ray?

A

Periosteal elevation

40
Q

What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Staph

41
Q

What is DoC for osteo for MSSA?

A

Oxacillin or nafcillin

42
Q

What is DoC for osteo for MRSA?

A

Vanc linezolid or dapto

43
Q

What is the only form of osteomyelitis I can successfully be treated by oral antibiotics?

A

Gram neg bacilli ( salmonella and pseudomonas)

44
Q

What is the cause of malignant otitis externa typically what patient presents with this?

A

Pseudomonas in a pt with diabetes

45
Q

What antibiotics are active against Pseudomonas?

A

Ciprofloxacin, pipercillin, cefepime, carbapenem or aztreonam

46
Q

If the treatment of choice amoxicillin is not effective for otitis media what antibiotics do you switch to?

A

Amoxicillin clavulanate, chef donor, ceftibuten, cefuroxime, cefprozil, cefpodoxime

47
Q

What are the most common causes of otitis media and sinusitis?

A

Streptococcus pna, h. Influ and moraxella catarrhalis

48
Q

What is the most accurate test for diagnosing sinusitis and what is the best initial test?

A

The most accurate test for diagnosing sinusitis is a sinus aspirate for culture and the best initial test is an x-ray

49
Q

The patient has strep throat but has a penicillin allergy what type of ABX do you give them?

A

Azithromycin or clarithromycin

50
Q

Which two antiviral agents work against both influenza a and b?

A

Oseltamivir or zanamivir

51
Q

What causes impetigo?

A

Strep pup genes or staph aureus

52
Q

What oral agents do you use for impetigo?

A

Dicloxacillinor cephalexin

53
Q

What causes erysipelas?

A

Group A (pyogenes) strep

54
Q

How do you treat erysipelas?

A

Oral dicloxacillin or cephalexin

If confirmed strep A beta hemolytic strep use penicillin VK

55
Q

What is the cause of cellulitis?

A

Staph aureus and strep pyogenes

56
Q

How do you treat minor, severe, and pcn allergic pts with cellulitis?

A

Minor: dicloxacillin or cephalexin PO
Severe: oxacillin, nafcillin, or cefazolin IV
PCN: if causes rashes use cephalosporins ie cefazolin
Anaphylaxis: vanc linezolid, daptomycin or if minor macrolides or clindamycin

57
Q

What antibiotics are safe in pregnancy?

A 
"A Pace" 
Aztreonam
PCN
axithromycin
Cephalosporins
Erythromycin
58
Q

What do you use to treat a pregnant woman with herpes?

A

Acyclovir

59
Q

How do you treat infective endocarditis?

A

With vanc and gent

60
Q

For endocarditis prophylaxis what is ABX of choice and if allergy what do you use?

A

Amoxicillin; clindamycin

61
Q

The only cardiac defects that need ppx are what?

A

Prosthetic valves
Unrepaired cyan optic heart dx
Previous endocarditis
Transplant recipient who develops valve dx

62
Q

What are the only procedures that need ppx?

A

Dental procedures causing bleeding
Resp surgery
Surgery of infected skin

63
Q

What are indications for valve replacement?

A 
Valve rupture 
Abscess 
Prosthetic valve
Fungal endocarditis 
Embolic event once started on ABX
64
Q

Start HIV therapy at what cd4 count?

A

500

65
Q

What non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor causes drowsiness?

A

Efavirenz

66
Q

What protease inhibitor causes kidney stones?

A

Indinavir

67
Q

What are two major side effects of protease inhibitors ( -navir)?

A

Hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia

68
Q

What is the major side effect of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A

Lactic acidosis

69
Q

What is a side effect of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor zidovudine?

A

Anemia

70
Q

What is a side effect of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor abacavir?

A

Rash

71
Q

What nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors cause pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy?

A

Didanosine and stavudine

72
Q

If pt is pregnant and finds out she has HIV when do you start HAART therapy?

A

Immediately

73
Q

What are you treating for if cd4 count is <200? What do you treat with and what do you change to if a rash develops?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Bactrim
Switch to atovaquone or dapson if rash develops
Watch out if g6pd no dapsone!!

74
Q

If cd4 <50 what are you treating for and what do you use?

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare

Azithtomycin once weekly

Infectious Disease (1 decks)

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