Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Infectious disease buzz words > Infectious disease buzz words > Flashcards

Infectious disease buzz words Flashcards

PANCE

1
Q

Common illnesses d/t H. influenza

A

1 epiglottitis, #2 CAP, sinusitis and otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Coxsackie A sxs

A

Hand/foot/mouth and aspetic meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tx of H. influenza

A

Beta lactams (amoxicilin); Epiglotitis/CAP/Meningitis tx = ceftriaxone (prophylaxis for close contacts with rifampin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

rabies prodrome

A

pain and parasthesia at initial bite site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tx for cryptococcus

A

fluconazole if CD4 < 50 (aids defining illness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia MC in…

A

HIV/immunocompromised pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MCC of pericarditis

A

Coxsackie virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bird/bat droppings near cave

A

Histoplasmosis capsulatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cat scratch disease organism

A

bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Kawasaki MC in which age group

A

kids<5yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tx of small pox

A

supportive; isolation and vaccine for close contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vector for Brucellosis

A 
Farm animals (goats, cows, sheep)
Also, ingestion of unpasteurized milk/cheese
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

common clinical manifestations of MAC

A
  1. Pulmonary infxn in immunocompetent (bronchiectasis), 2. Disseminated (in HIV pts), 3. Lymphadenitis in kids (cervical, submandibular and maxillary)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

break bone fever

A

Dengue fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dx for osteomylitis

A

MRI is most sensative early, bone bx is gold standard. X-ray shows periosteal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adult presentation of rubella

A

arthritis and lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

coronavirus causes

A

atypical pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bubonic plague organism

A

Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TX of rubella

A

NONE!!! MMR vaccine available (given after delivery if prego, HIV pts if CD4 >200)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

5th dz complications in pts with sickle cell dz

A

aplastic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

common manifestions of chagas

A

acute (3wks-3mo) - asymptomatic or unilateral periorbital edema
Latent - cardiomyopathy, CHF, megacolon and megaesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

common manifestations of Leprosy

A

skin lesions with poorly defined boarders (coolest parts of the body, ie face, ears, wrists), loss of eyebrows/eyelashes, facial deformities and symmetric nerve involvement (stocking glove neuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tx of Q fever

A

doxycycline (typically self limiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

well-demarcated margins of cellulitis

A

erysipelas (MCC strep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MCC gas gangrene

A

clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Common sites of involvement for mycobacterium leprae

A

SF tissues (skin and peripheral nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Complications of mumps

A

orchitis (unilateral), oophoritis, encephalitis and aseptic meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

smallpox sxs

A

flu like prodrome with severe head/back pain –> skin eruptions in the same stage simulataneously (palmar and plantar lesions common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hanatavirus MC in which location

A

SW united states (young healthy adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Rabies Resp phase

A

resp muscle paralysis –> death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

bunon-pitting edema with sharp irregular margins extending peripherally BUT clearing centrally; limited to hands/fingers/webspaces

A

erysipeloid (erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rubella

A

German Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Head –> toe flaccid paralysis

A

botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Coxsackie B sxs

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy and MCC of pericarditis and pleurodynia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

EBV is part of which family

A

Herpes (HHV 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

post-exposure prophylaxis for subsequent rabies exposures

A

HDCV (Rabies vaccine) days 0 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

zoster vaccine given to

A

adults >60yo or if CD4 >200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MC locations for chagas

A

latin america and texas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Romana’s sign

A

unilateral periorbital swelling (seen in chagas dz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tx of Karposi sarcoma

A

HAART therapy (radiation prn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what traits are protective against malaria

A

sickle cell dz and thalassemia traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

phases of rabies

A

prodrome, CNS phase and resp phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tx of gas gangrene

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

vector for lyme dz

A

ixodes deer tick, MC in northeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Kernig sign

A

hip/knee bent 90 and painful knee extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hantavirus causes

A

hemorrhagic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Tx of toxoplasmosis

A

sulfadiazene + pyrimethamine (spiramycin if prego)

Prophylaxis give bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MC sx of pinworm (enterobiasis)

A

nocturnal anal itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tx of dengue fever

A

volume support, pressors and TYLENOL (NOT NSAIDS) - reduce the bleeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Dx of babesiosis

A

parasites within the RBC (pathognomonic tetrads)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

most dangerous form of malaria

A

Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MCC of infectious blindness

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pain out of proportion

A
  1. nec fasc 2. intestinal ischemia 3. compartment syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CI for smallpox vaccine

A

eczema, dermatitis and burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Tzank smear showing multinucleated giant cells

A

HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Common sxs of mono (EBV)

A

fever, sore throat, POSTERIOR cervical lymphadenopathy, malaise, splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

primary herpes infxn in adults

A

acute herpetic pharyngotonsillitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tx of Aspergillus

A

Allergic bronchopulm = tapered steroids, chest PT and Itraconazole; Severe sinusitis = Voriconazole + high dose steroids; aspergilloma = surgical resection if symptomatic (nothing if asyptomatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

west nile virus caused by….

A

flavavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Tx of EBV

A

supportive; avoid trauma X 1 month to avoid splenic rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Dx of chagas

A

cardiac echo showing cardiomegaly with apical atrophy/aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

non-painful white plaque along lateral tongue or buccal mucosa. CANNOT be scraped off.

A

oral hairy leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tx of botulism

A

Botulinum IG and resp support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

MCC of pharyngitis

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MCC of encephalitis in US

A

HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Coxsackie infxn most common in which season

A

summer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

brudzinski

A

neck flexion causes involuntary flexing of the hip/knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Litseria tx

A

IV ampicillin + gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Jones criteria

A

Rheumatic fever (GAS) - 1. Joints 2. Carditis 3. nodules 4. erythema marginatum 5. sydenham chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

cause of rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF)

A

rickettsia rickettsii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

MC bacterial cause of pharyngitis

A

GABHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Q fever organism

A

coxiella burnetti (sheep, goat, cattle feces contain the spores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Bacillus anthracis commonly found in

A

animal wool/fur (sheep, goat, horse, swine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Tx of tetanus

A
  1. intubate prn 2. tetanus IG 3. Diazepam 4. Debride 5. flagyl or Pen G prn 6. BB prn
    Prophylaxis: Td vaccine q 10 years, IG if never vaccinated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Tx for candidiasis

A

antifungals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

pathophys of trichinosis

A

larvae cyst grow/replicate in the duodenum/jejunum. Adults excreted in stool and larva penetrate the intestinal wall and ENCAPSULATE IN STRIATED MUSCLE TISSUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Tx of 5th dz

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Congenital Varicella syndrome (TORCH vertical transmission)

A

develops during 1st and 2nd trimester; Limb hypoplasia, scarring, and blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

TX of cat scratch disease

A

self limiting (amox or doxy prn severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Tx of SARS

A

aggresive supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

dx of leprosy

A

skin bx and AFB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Q fever sxs

A

ACUTE - MC pneumonia (flu-like illness). HA, fever, hepatitis.
CHRONIC - endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Tx of yersinia pestis infxn

A

streptomycin (aminoglycosides) + tetracyclin
(killed vaccine available)
Tetracycline used for post exposure prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Tx of Pertussis

A

Erythromycin (macrolids) - does not alter course of disease, but decreases contagiousness. (alt - bactrim)
Prophylaxis for close contacts REGARDLESS of age or immunization status (macrolide).
Tdap booster for everyone!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Chicken pox begin on…

A

face and trunk –> extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Common HIV opportunistics infxns at CD4 <200

A

PCP, histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Tx of coccidiodes

A

Most are self limiting. CNS spread tx with Fluconazole (amp B if severe CNS dz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Tx of syphilis

A 
Pen G (desensatize if allergic)
**Jarisch-Herscheimer reaction once tx starts (fever/chills while spirochetes are dying d/t tx)**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Tx of erysipeloid (erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae)

A

Pencillin G, cephalosporin or clinda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is malaria

A

RBC dz caused by Plasmodium (falciparum, vivax, ovale, and malariae);
1. infects RBC 2. RBC lysis 3. cyclical fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Rubeolla

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

brown watery exudates with crepitus to palpation

A

gas gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Dx of trichinosis

A

Eosinophilia is hallmark
(triad: periorbital edema, myositis and eosinophilia)
Definitive dx: muscle bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Dx of gas gangrene

A

air in tissues seen on x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

sxs of anthrax

A

MC - cutaneous (painless black eschar with surrounding edema and vesicles).
inhalation (flu-like sxs, mediastinum widening on CXR d/t to hemorrhagic lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

4 C’s of Rubeola (Measles)

A

Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis and Koplik spots (small red spots in buccal mucosa with blue/white pale center)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

MCC of nec fasc

A

GAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

violacious lesions on nose, extremities, and mucous membranes d/t proliferation of vasculature

A

Karposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Tx of chlamydia

A

oral azithromycin 1gm (alt doxy); oral NOT topical for neonate conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

sxs of Creutzfeldt-jakob dz

A

rapid progression in dementia, gait issues, and myoclonus when startled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Dx of syphilis

A

RPR, if + confirm with FTA Ab testing (false positive for autoimmune conditions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

EBV infects B cells, increasing risk of…

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma (Reed-Sternberg/owl eyes), Non-hodgkins lymphoma (burkitts lymphoma - large jaw lesions/swelling), nasopharyngeal carcinoma (MC in asians) and oral hairy leukoplakia (in HIV pts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Tx of nec fasc

A

surgical debridement and broad abx (zosyn, unasyn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Leading cause of CHF in Latin America

A

Chagas dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

organism responsible for “fish tank granulomas” seen in marine workers or fisherman

A

mycobacterium marinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

blue, hemorrhagic bullae

A

nec fasc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

painful genital lesion + painful inguinal LAD

A

Chancroid (d/t haemophilus ducreyi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Virus that causes 5th dz

A

parvovirus B-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Tx of kawasaki

A

IVIG + high dose ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Definition of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

minor ocular trauma, usually seen with swimming with contacts lens that become infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Tx of CMV

A

gancyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

vesicles in different healing stages

A

chicken pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Tx of RMSF

A

doxycycline (even for young children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

MCC of osteomylitis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Parasite for chagas dz

A

trypanosoma cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

MCC of sensorineural hearing loss

A

congenital CMV (TORCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Common HIV opportunistics infxns at CD4 <50

A

MAC and CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

rabid animals observed for how many days?

A

7-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Tx of GAS

A

Penicillin G or VK (alt macrolides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Tx of mumps

A

supportive, anti-inflammatories; pts are HIGHLY contagious for 9 days

121
Q

Tx of chancroid

A

azithromycin 1g X 1 (alt ceftriaxone)

122
Q

virus that causes smallpox

A

orthopox virus

123
Q

Complications of Measles

124
Q

Hantavirus vector

A

rodents (deer mouse)

125
Q

parasite for enterobiasis (pinworm)

A

enterobius vermicularis

126
Q

small deep ulcers seen on EGD

A

HSV esophagitis (immunocompromised pts)

127
Q

Dx of Cryptococcus

A

Antigen seen in CSF (India Ink stain)

128
Q

outdoor activities near decaying wood soils and near waterways (great lakes)

A

Blastomycosis (blastomyces dermatitidis)

129
Q

Tx of diphtheria

A
  1. diphtheria antitoxin + erythromycin (or penicillin) X 2 weeks
  2. prophylaxis tx for close contacts: erythromycin
  3. prevention: dtap (2,4,6 and 15 months, booster at age 4-6yo)
130
Q

common diphtheria sxs

A

pseudomembranes, bulls neck (cervical lymphadenopathy), myocarditis (blocks/arrhythmias) and neuropathy (posterior pharynx)

131
Q

EBV remains latent in the

132
Q

Dx of toxoplasmosis

A

ring-enhancing lesions on head CT

133
Q

Labs for Reactive arthritis (reiter’s syndrome)

A

+HLA-B27 (+chalmydia?)

134
Q

5th dz complications during pregnancy (1st and 2nd trimesters)

A

increased fetal loss due to hydrops fetalis (CHF and edema)

135
Q

Tx of babesiosis

A

Atovaquone and Azithromycin (OR clinda and Quinine)

136
Q

Sxs of Tularemia

A

Fever, HA, nausea –> single papule at site of inoculation (typically the hand/arm)

137
Q

Stages of lyme dz

A

Early - erythema migrans (central bullseye) and flu like sxs
Early disseminated - AV heart block and bell’s palsy (CN VII)
Late - migratory arthritis and encephalopathy

138
Q

HHV 8

A

karposi sarcoma

139
Q

MCC sxs of CMV (cytomegalovirus)

A

80-90% asymptomatic

140
Q

stages of african sleeping sickness

A

early: painless chancre at bite site.
late: persistent HA, daytime sleepiness with nighttime insomnia

141
Q

MCC of impetigo

A

GAS or Staph Aureus

142
Q

2 main complications of GAS if untreated

A

Rheumatic fever and Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

143
Q

Tx of chagas

A

nifurtimox X 3-4mo

144
Q

sticato cough in neonate

A

chlamydia pneumonia

145
Q

dx of rabies

A

negri bodies in brain of dead animal (hippocampus)

146
Q

rashes that involve the palms/soles

A

coxsackie, RMSF, secondary syphilis, kawasaki, measles, TSS, Reactive arthritis and janeway lesions

147
Q

Sxs of dengue fever

A

Biphasic fever, break bone pain, HA, flushed skin and hemorrhage (Touniquet test)

148
Q

Flavivirus causes

A

Dengue fever, yellow fever, west nile and hep C

149
Q

fifth dz, also known as…

A

erythema infectiosum

150
Q

Reservoir for Tularemia

A

Rabbits (francisella tularensis)

151
Q

rash presentation for RMSF

A

fever/chills/HA –> rash on wrist/ankles that spreads CENTRALLY. Face is spared.

152
Q

Common ADEs of NRTIs

A

bone marrow suppression (Zidovudine), agranulocytosis, anemia, peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, lactic acidosis, rash (Abacavir)

153
Q

Primary herpes infxn in kids

A

acute herpetic gingivostamatitis (vesicles in mouth, tongue and lips)

154
Q

ramsay-hunt syndrome

A

varicella zoster oticus - otalgia, lesions on ear, auditory canal and TM, facial palsy

155
Q

Dx of RMSF

A

clinical, do NOT delay treatment (can lead to coma, encephalopathy and organ failure)

156
Q

Def of kawasaki

A

medium and small vessel vasculitis

157
Q

Tx of impetigo

A

topical mupirocin

158
Q

maculpapular rash develops in mono infxn if…

A

Amoxicillin taken (mistaken for Strep throat)

159
Q

The “3 day rash”

160
Q

Leishmaniasis caused by…

A

female sandfly (common in mediterranean, central/south america, africa and asia)

161
Q

hutchinson sign

A

heralding lesion on nose prior to zoster ocular involvement

162
Q

Dx of aspergillus fungus

A

dusky, necrotic tissue on bx and seen in tissues

163
Q

complications of Varicella zoster

A

Adults - pneumonia; immunocompromised - encephalitis

164
Q

Tx of Histoplasmosis

A

Itraconazole (mild-mod); Amp B (severe); Prophylaxis if CD4 < 200 (Itraconazole)

165
Q

Tx of pasteurella

A

augmentin (alt doxy)

166
Q

Listeria associated with

A

premature labor, stillbirth and 3rd MCC of meningitis in infants <2mo

167
Q

Tx of lyme dz

A

doxycycline, amoxicillin if <8yo X 2-3 weeks; IV ceftriaxone if severe/late stages

168
Q

MC ogranism from dog/cat bite

A

pasteurella

169
Q

The great imitator

170
Q

mad cow dz

A

Creutzfeldt-jakob dz

171
Q

MC site of involvement for blastomycosis

A

Lungs (flu like sxs); MC dissemination into lungs, skin, bones (ribs/vertebral) and GU system

172
Q

pinworm infection MC in which age group

A

school-aged kids

173
Q

Grows in soil near desert/southwest/mexico regions

A

Coccidiodes (valley fever)

174
Q

congenital syphilis causes…

A

hutchinson teeth (notches in teeth), saber shins, saddle-nose deformity and DEAFNESS (TORCH)

175
Q

Travel to mississippi or Ohio river

A

Histoplasmosis capsulatum

176
Q

slap cheek and lacy reticular rash

177
Q

MCC of cellulitis

A

Staph aureus and GAS

178
Q

Tx of malaria

A

Chloroquine and quinidine (atovaquone with doxy if drug resistent)

179
Q

MCC of septic arthritis

A

Staph aureus; Gonorrhea in young sexually active

180
Q

Aspergillosis found in

A

garden and houseplant soils

181
Q

Tx of coxsackie

A

supportive

182
Q

Spirochet that causes syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

183
Q

friable gray/white membrane on pharynx

A

diphtheria (corynebacterium diphtheriae)

184
Q

MCC meningitis in college students

A

neisseria meningitidis

185
Q

MCC epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenza

186
Q

smallest DNA virus

A

parvovirus B-19

187
Q

Common HIV opportunistics infxns at CD4 <500

A

Thrush, Kaposi Sarcoma, TB, Zoster

188
Q

congenital CMV sxs

A

sensorineural hearing loss, blueberry muffin rash (TTP), mental retardation (MCC) and seizures

189
Q

TX of brucellosis

A

doxy + rifampine

190
Q

Reservoir for west nile

A

birds, MC in late summer or early fall

191
Q

common NRTIs

A

Zidovudine, Emtricitabine, Abacavir, Lamivudine, Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine and Tenofivir

192
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for 1st episode of rabies

A

HDCV (rabies vaccine) days 0, 3, 7 and 14 + rabies IG (within 6d of bite/exposure).
If immunecompromised, include day 28 in the HDCV vaccine schedule.

193
Q

common valley fever sxs

A

fever, arthralgia, erythema nodosum/multiforme

194
Q

MC sxs of bubonic plague

A

swollen and painful nodes (bubo) found in the groin/axilla/cervical regions

195
Q

Animals that commonly transmit rabies

A

BATS (#1), raccoons, skunks, foxes, wolves, and DOGS

196
Q

Dx of pinworm

A

scotch tape test

197
Q

zoster ophthalmicus involved which CN

A

1st division of CN 5

198
Q

sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue

A

scarlet fever (from GAS)

199
Q

common infectious dz associated with arthropathy

A

erythema infectiosum (older adults), rubella, and coccidiodomycosis

200
Q

Tx of anthrax

A

cipro (tx and exposure) (alt doxy +rifampin)

201
Q

invasive chronic sinusitis

A

acute invasive aspergillius

202
Q

cause of lyme dz

A

borrelia burgdorferi

203
Q

Tx of amebiasis

204
Q

rabies CNS phase

A

encephalitis, hydrophobia (painful laryngospasm with liquids), aerophobia and foaming at the mouth

205
Q

cause of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

A

coronavirus

206
Q

Whooping cough organism

A

Bordetella pertussis

“100 day cough”

207
Q

MCC of urethritis/prostatitis/orchitis

A

<30 = gonorrhea

208
Q

sxs of leishmaniasis

A

papules, plaques and ulcerations that continue to develop weeks-months after bite

209
Q

childhood Rubella presentation

A

postaricular and occipital lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash starting on face spreading inferiorly (3d)

210
Q

Manifestations of Babesiosis

A

hemolytic anemia and jaundice

211
Q

Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree

A

Reactive arthritis

212
Q

blocks release of Acetylcholinesterase –> sustained contraction

213
Q

High fever X 3-5d –> rose pink blanchable rash STARTS ON TRUNK and spreads to face

214
Q

Common NNRTIs

A

Efavirenz, Delaviridine, Etravirine, Nevirapine, Rilpivirine

215
Q

Common PIs

A

AtazaNAVIR, Darunavir, Lopinavir, Nelfinavir, etc (look for ending in NAVIR)

216
Q

Rubella common in which population

A

immigrants and non vaccinators

217
Q

Varicella remains latent in the

A

dorsal root ganglia

218
Q

stages of whooping cough

A
  1. catarrhal phase (URI sxs 1-2wks)
  2. paroxysmal phase (severe coughing fits with post vomiting emesis up to 6 wks)
  3. convalescent phase (sxs resolving, no longer contagious, lasts 1 month)
219
Q

Centor criteria

A

Strep throat (GAS) - 1. fever 2. pharyngotonsillar exudate 3. tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy 4. NO COUGH

220
Q

dendritic lesions

A

keratoconjunctivitis

221
Q

Common INTIs

A

Raltegravir and Dolutegravir

222
Q

Tx of blastomycosis

A

Itraconazole (Amp B if severe)

223
Q

complications of kawasaki

A

MI and coronary artery aneurysm

224
Q

allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis PC in pts with….

A

asthma and CF d/t airway hypersensitivity reaction to fungus

225
Q

Kawasaki dx

A

Warm (fever) + CREAM (4 out of 5)
C: conjunctivitis
R: rash (polymorphous)
E: extremity changes (desquamation, edema, etc)
A: Adenopathy (cervical)
M: mucous membrane involved (tongue, lips, pharnyx

226
Q

phases of Hantavirus

A

prodromal (fever chills and severe myalgias in back and legs) and cardiopulm phase (sudden resp distress, pulm edema, CV collapse and renal failure)

227
Q

Dx of SARS

A

CT scan (ground glass opacities or focal consolidation) and + stool test (14d)

228
Q

Tx of Leprosy

A

Dapsone + Rifampin + clofazimine X 2-3yrs

229
Q

vesicles on nail or finger

A

herpetic whitlow (common in dentists and kids)

230
Q

large septate hyphae

A

Aspergillosis (Aspergillus fungus)

231
Q

rhabdovirus infection of the CNS

232
Q

common phases of trichinosis

A

GI phase: abd pain, N/V/D.

Muscle phase: myositis and palpebral/circumorbital edema

233
Q

common times to suspect pseudomonas

A

conjunctivitis in contact wearer, puncture wound while wearing tennis shoes, and hot tubs folliculitis

234
Q

Painful parotid gland swelling

235
Q

Dx of HIV

A 
Ab testing (Elisa + within 4-12wks post-infxn); 
Western blot (confirmation); 
Viral load to check infectivity and treatment effectiveness
236
Q

Fornier gangrene

A

penis/scrotum infection d/t trauma (MC in diabetics)

237
Q

Varicella zoster virus is part of what family

A

Herpes (HHV 3)

238
Q

Tx of Roseola

A

Supportive

239
Q

Common ADEs of NNRTIs

A

TERATOGENIC, SJS, vivid dreams and CNS sxs (HA, dizzy, etc)

240
Q

gram stain of yersinia pestis shows

A

safety pin appearance of organism (gram negative)

241
Q

Common ADEs of PIs

A

GI, hyperlipidemia, lipodystrophy, hyperglycemia and renal stones

242
Q

prion-mediated degenerative brain dz –> rapidly progressive dementia (fatal within 1 yr)

A

Creutzfeldt-jakob dz

243
Q

Dx of CMV

A

owl’s eye inclusion bodies on bx of tissue

244
Q

sxs of cat scratch disease

A

regional lymphadenopathy (MC axillary) and fever

245
Q

Tx of staph aureus

A

nafcillin or vanco

246
Q

MC opportunistic pathogen (CD4 <100 typically)

A

Candida Albicans

247
Q

Clinical manifestations of Toxoplasmosis

A
  1. mono-like illness with cervical lymphadenopathy
  2. ENCEPHALITIS in immunocompromised pts (CD4 <100)
  3. TORCH infxn - blueberry muffin rash, hepatosplenomegaly, hearing loss and mental retardation
248
Q

Tx of trichinosis

A

mild (self-limiting), severe (albendazole)

249
Q

vector for african trypanosomiasis (african sleeping sickness)

A

tsetse fly (T. brucei)

250
Q

Def of AIDS

A

+ HIV and one AIDS defining illness (or CD4 <200)

251
Q

Tx of Tularemia

A

streptomycin (alt gentamicin or doxy)

252
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia caused by…

A

EBV (HHV 4)

253
Q

Bird (Pigeon) droppings

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

254
Q

RMSF mc in what region

A

south atlantic (dog/wood tick)

255
Q

What family does Roseola belong to

A

Herpes (HHV 6)

256
Q

Dx of amebiasis

A

stool ova and parasites

257
Q

Fungal ball on CXR

A

Aspergillus fungus (aspergilloma)

258
Q

Dx of malaria

A

Giemsa stain peripheral smear (thin and thick)

259
Q

HIV pts with CMV are at increased risk of what if CD4 <50

A

Retinitis (blindspots, unilateral), linear large SF ulcerations in esophagus, and colitis

260
Q

Dx of ascariasis

A

eosinophilia; stool O&P

261
Q

Tx for west nile

A

supportive

262
Q

MC intestinal helminth infxn worldwide

A

ascariasis (d/t ascaris lumdricoides - roundworm)

263
Q

MCC of fungal meningitis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

264
Q

Common HIV opportunistics infxns at CD4 <100

A

Toxoplasmosis, cryptococcus

265
Q

HAART tx regimens

A
  1. 2 NRTIs + 1 NNRTI
  2. 2 NRTIs + 1 PI
  3. 2 NRTIs + 1 INSTI
266
Q

Tx of neisseria meningitidis

A 
Pen G (alt ceftriaxone);
Prophylaxis for those exposed - Rifampin or Cipro
267
Q

MCC of acute pancreatitis in kids

268
Q

CMV is part of what family

A

Herpes (HHV 5)

269
Q

Dx of pertussis

A

Nasopharyngeal swab if in catarrhal pahse

HIGH lymphocytosis

270
Q

Tx of pinworm

A

albendazole

271
Q

Tx of Hantavirus

A

ICU support

272
Q

sxs of brucellosis

A

undulant fever and anorexia

273
Q

Amebiasis sxs/presentation

A

GI colitis, bloody diarrhea, and amebic liver abscess

274
Q

dx of MAC (mycobacterium avium complex)

A

AFB and culture

275
Q

3 phases of syphilis

A

1: painless genital chancre (3-4wks)
2: rash on palms/soles and condyloma lata (weeks - 6 mo)
3: gumma (soft growth with necrotic center) and argyll robertson pupil (small irregular pupil that constricts for accommodation but NOT to light); neurosyphilis (demyleniation of posterior colums –> ataxia, gait, weakness and decreased propioception); cardiovascular (aortic regurg and aneurysm)

276
Q

vector for west nile

277
Q

parasite for amebiasis

A

entamoeba histolytica

278
Q

honey crusted

279
Q

Risk factors for H influenza

A

COPD, bronchiectasis, CF

280
Q

Tx of ascariasis

A

albendazole (pyrantel if prego)

281
Q

Tx of PCP

A

Bactrim (+prednisone prn O2 <80%)

282
Q

puncture wound involving raw fish/meat/poultry

A

erysipeloid (erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae)

283
Q

Tx of Measles (Rubeola)

A

Supportive and anti-inflammatory; vit A decreases morbidity and mortality; isolate for 1 week

284
Q

neonate conjunctivitis causes

A
  1. gonorrhea (1-3d), 2. chlamydia (5-7d), 3. HSV (2-4wks)
285
Q

Tx for human bites

A

augmentin (alt clindamycin)

286
Q

TX of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

biguanides (ie. metformin), chlorahexadine (antiseptic), propamidine (SU class) and neomycin-polymyxin

287
Q

sxs of measles

A
  1. Fever + URI sxs (2-3d), 2. mobiliform brick red rash on face (starting at hairline) spreading to extremities (7d)
288
Q

Trichinosis caused by…

A

undercooked meats (PORK) - parasitic round worm infxn

289
Q

MC manifestation of malaria

A

cyclical fever every 2-3 days (also leukopenia and thrombocytopenia)

290
Q

Presentation of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

keratitis (especially with contacts), ocular pain, photophobia, and corneal stromal ring infiltrate on PE

291
Q

Neonatal rubella (TORCH)

A

Teratogenic esp in 1st trimester; Congenital cataracts, PDA, sensorineural deafness, jaundice, mental retardation and blueberry muffin rash

292
Q

west nile sxs

A

encephalitis, meningitis and flaccid paralysis –> seizures and coma

293
Q

What is babesiosis?

A

malaria-like protozoa that attack RBC (history of tick bite from NE US area); common in long island and massachusetts

294
Q

Do you have to see bite marks to start tx for rabies

A

NO!!!!!!!!!! once sx occur, patient rarely survive

295
Q

tx of MAC

A

Clarithromycin + ethambutal X 12 months (+/- rifampin); prophylaxis if CD4 <50

296
Q

MC opportunistic infxn in HIV pts

A

PCP pneumonia (CD4 typically <200)

297
Q

Paramyxovirus causes…

A

Measles, Mumps, RSV and Parainfluenza

298
Q

Yersinia pestis transmission

A

fleas bit rodents then bite humans

Infectious disease buzz words (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions