Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What parasites are associated with hypnozoites? Where are they found in vivo and what is their effect?

A

Plasmodium viva and oval; liver (but parasites are in the RBCs); relapsing infection (persists for months to years)

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2
Q

What phenotype(s) confer resistance to malaria(s)?

A

Sickle cell heterozygotes resistance to P falciparum; Duffy blood group antigen negative confers resistance to P vivax

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3
Q

Maltese cross RBCs

A

Babesia

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4
Q

Babesia vector and host(s)

A

Ixodes tick (same vector as Lyme disease, coinfections common); white footed mouse (primary) and humans (“dead end” host)

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5
Q

Types of Babesia and endemic areas

A
  • B divergens: North America
  • B microti: Europe
  • B ducredi: CA and WA
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6
Q

What type of babesia is almost always seen in splenectomy?

A

B microti (leads to severe hemolytic anemia)

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7
Q

African trypanosomiasis types and symptoms

A
  • Rhodesiense (East Africa): weight loss, lethargy, inattentiveness, sleeping during day and staying up at night, seizures
  • Gambiense (West African sleeping sickness): sleep disturbances, unable to be awoken, diffuse rash that starts as a sore, serious confusion
  • Both: fever, Winterbottom’s sign (posterior cervical chain lymphadenopathy
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8
Q

Define Romana’s sign, what disease is it associated with?

A

Unilateral periorbital swelling; acute phase of Chagas Disease (American trypanosomiasis)

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9
Q

Where are microfilarae found in lymphatic filariasis? Where are the adult parasites found?

A

Bloodstream; lymphatics

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10
Q

Types of lymphatic filariasis and endemic regions

A
  • Wuchereria: worldwide
  • Bancrofti: worldwide
  • Brugia: asia
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11
Q

Lymphatic filariasis symptoms

A

Adenolymphangitis (can start as LE, scrotal swelling), nocturnal wheezing, red line under skin, fevers (“filarial fevers”)

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12
Q

Onchocerciasis mechanism of disease

A

Dying microfilarae elicit an immune response

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13
Q

Onchocerciasis vector

A

Black fly (“day biters”)

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14
Q

What disease is associated with “nodding syndrome”

A

Onchocerciasis

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15
Q

Onchocerciasis symptoms

A

Subcutaneous nodules, vision loss (via corneal lesions or optic n. inflammation), “hanging groin,” “leopard skin rash”

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16
Q

Loiasis symptom(s)

A

“Eyeworm” - there will be a visible worm in the eye; also Calabar swellings (swellings that completely resolve before reappearing somewhere else)

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17
Q

How do all retroviridae enter cells

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis

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18
Q

3 genes common to all (replication-compent) retroviridae

A
  • Gag - encodes structural substances (matrix, capsid, nucleocapsid)
  • Pol - encodes integrase, reverse transcriptase, protease
  • Env - encodes surface glycoprotein (“SU,” fx adsorption) and transmembrane glycoprotein (“TM,” fx fusion of virus with plasma membrane)
19
Q

Cancer associated with HTLV-1?

A

Adult T cell Lymphoma/Leukemia

20
Q

Disease(s) associated with Pautrier’s microabscesses?

A

Adult (CD4) T cell lymphoma/leukemia, Sezary syndrome, Mycosis fungoides

21
Q

HTLV-2 clinical presentation

A

Hairy cell leukemia, sensory neuropathies, motor abnormalities

22
Q

What mutation protects against HIV-1?

A

CCR5-delta32 mutation (recall CxCR-4 and CCR5 are coreceptors on CD4+ T cells for HIV-1)

23
Q

What are gp41 and gp120?

A

Transmembrane and exposed (respectively) glycoproteins on HIV viral envelope; remember gp41 is a target for fusion inhibitors

24
Q

What is p24?

A

Matrix protein associated with HIV-1

25
What is the "window period" associated with HIV-1?
When virus RNA detectable in blood but anti-HIV-1 Ab are not yet detectable (< 2 weeks?)
26
AIDS OIs at CD4 count > 500
Acute HIV syndrome, TB, lymphadenopathy (also Kaposi's)
27
AIDS OIs at CD4 count 200-500
Bacterial pneumonia, Herpes zoster infection, Kaposi's sarcoma, B cell lymphoma, Oral hairy leukoplakia, Salmonellosis
28
AIDS OIs at CD4 count <200
Pneumocystis jiroveci, atypical (i.e. disseminated) TB, cryptococcus, candida, cryptosporidium, toxoplasmosis (< 100)
29
AIDS OIs at CD4 count <50
MAC, CMV (but also cryptococcal meningitis)
30
"Most important" AIDS-defining condition
CD4 T cell count < 200
31
"ring enhancing lesions with surrounding edema" on head CT in AIDS patient
Toxoplasma gondii
32
Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC) symptoms
Fever, wasting, pancytopenia, adenopathy
33
Predictors of poor adherence to ART (HIV)
Treatment competence, co-morbidities, side effects, fear of side effects, patient beliefs/behaviors, cognitive/organizational barriers, psychosocial barriers, structural barriers (e.g. transportation issues)
34
HIV-associated malignancies to be aware of in primary care
Invasive cervical cancer, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, Kaposi's
35
Pathogen associated with "chlamydospores"
Candida
36
Candida diagnosis
KOH wet mounts (look for ovoid budding yeast cells), also pseudohyphae (and/or true hyphae)
37
What is the only encapsulated human fungal pathogen? What test is uniquely used in diagnosis?
Cryptococcus neoformans; India ink stain - will see ovoid encapsulated yeast but not hyphae (not dimorphic)
38
"foamy alveolar exudate, 'honeycomb' appearance"
Pneumocystis jiroveci (aka carnii, aka PCP)
39
"Septate hyphae" fungus
Aspergillus fumigatus
40
Fungal pathogen associated with prolonged antibiotic therapy
Candida
41
Fungal pathogen associated with Hodgkin's lymphoma
Aspergillus
42
Medications you need to avoid if treating Dengue
ASA + NSAIDs
43
Which plasmodium spp is associated with "cerebral" malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum