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Hematology/Oncology > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What parasites are associated with hypnozoites? Where are they found in vivo and what is their effect?

A

Plasmodium viva and oval; liver (but parasites are in the RBCs); relapsing infection (persists for months to years)

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2
Q

What phenotype(s) confer resistance to malaria(s)?

A

Sickle cell heterozygotes resistance to P falciparum; Duffy blood group antigen negative confers resistance to P vivax

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3
Q

Maltese cross RBCs

A

Babesia

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4
Q

Babesia vector and host(s)

A

Ixodes tick (same vector as Lyme disease, coinfections common); white footed mouse (primary) and humans (“dead end” host)

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5
Q

Types of Babesia and endemic areas

A
  • B divergens: North America
  • B microti: Europe
  • B ducredi: CA and WA
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6
Q

What type of babesia is almost always seen in splenectomy?

A

B microti (leads to severe hemolytic anemia)

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7
Q

African trypanosomiasis types and symptoms

A
  • Rhodesiense (East Africa): weight loss, lethargy, inattentiveness, sleeping during day and staying up at night, seizures
  • Gambiense (West African sleeping sickness): sleep disturbances, unable to be awoken, diffuse rash that starts as a sore, serious confusion
  • Both: fever, Winterbottom’s sign (posterior cervical chain lymphadenopathy
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8
Q

Define Romana’s sign, what disease is it associated with?

A

Unilateral periorbital swelling; acute phase of Chagas Disease (American trypanosomiasis)

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9
Q

Where are microfilarae found in lymphatic filariasis? Where are the adult parasites found?

A

Bloodstream; lymphatics

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10
Q

Types of lymphatic filariasis and endemic regions

A
  • Wuchereria: worldwide
  • Bancrofti: worldwide
  • Brugia: asia
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11
Q

Lymphatic filariasis symptoms

A

Adenolymphangitis (can start as LE, scrotal swelling), nocturnal wheezing, red line under skin, fevers (“filarial fevers”)

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12
Q

Onchocerciasis mechanism of disease

A

Dying microfilarae elicit an immune response

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13
Q

Onchocerciasis vector

A

Black fly (“day biters”)

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14
Q

What disease is associated with “nodding syndrome”

A

Onchocerciasis

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15
Q

Onchocerciasis symptoms

A

Subcutaneous nodules, vision loss (via corneal lesions or optic n. inflammation), “hanging groin,” “leopard skin rash”

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16
Q

Loiasis symptom(s)

A

“Eyeworm” - there will be a visible worm in the eye; also Calabar swellings (swellings that completely resolve before reappearing somewhere else)

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17
Q

How do all retroviridae enter cells

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis

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18
Q

3 genes common to all (replication-compent) retroviridae

A
  • Gag - encodes structural substances (matrix, capsid, nucleocapsid)
  • Pol - encodes integrase, reverse transcriptase, protease
  • Env - encodes surface glycoprotein (“SU,” fx adsorption) and transmembrane glycoprotein (“TM,” fx fusion of virus with plasma membrane)
19
Q

Cancer associated with HTLV-1?

A

Adult T cell Lymphoma/Leukemia

20
Q

Disease(s) associated with Pautrier’s microabscesses?

A

Adult (CD4) T cell lymphoma/leukemia, Sezary syndrome, Mycosis fungoides

21
Q

HTLV-2 clinical presentation

A

Hairy cell leukemia, sensory neuropathies, motor abnormalities

22
Q

What mutation protects against HIV-1?

A

CCR5-delta32 mutation (recall CxCR-4 and CCR5 are coreceptors on CD4+ T cells for HIV-1)

23
Q

What are gp41 and gp120?

A

Transmembrane and exposed (respectively) glycoproteins on HIV viral envelope; remember gp41 is a target for fusion inhibitors

24
Q

What is p24?

A

Matrix protein associated with HIV-1

25
Q

What is the “window period” associated with HIV-1?

A

When virus RNA detectable in blood but anti-HIV-1 Ab are not yet detectable (< 2 weeks?)

26
Q

AIDS OIs at CD4 count > 500

A

Acute HIV syndrome, TB, lymphadenopathy (also Kaposi’s)

27
Q

AIDS OIs at CD4 count 200-500

A

Bacterial pneumonia, Herpes zoster infection, Kaposi’s sarcoma, B cell lymphoma, Oral hairy leukoplakia, Salmonellosis

28
Q

AIDS OIs at CD4 count <200

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci, atypical (i.e. disseminated) TB, cryptococcus, candida, cryptosporidium, toxoplasmosis (< 100)

29
Q

AIDS OIs at CD4 count <50

A

MAC, CMV (but also cryptococcal meningitis)

30
Q

“Most important” AIDS-defining condition

A

CD4 T cell count < 200

31
Q

“ring enhancing lesions with surrounding edema” on head CT in AIDS patient

A

Toxoplasma gondii

32
Q

Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC) symptoms

A

Fever, wasting, pancytopenia, adenopathy

33
Q

Predictors of poor adherence to ART (HIV)

A

Treatment competence, co-morbidities, side effects, fear of side effects, patient beliefs/behaviors, cognitive/organizational barriers, psychosocial barriers, structural barriers (e.g. transportation issues)

34
Q

HIV-associated malignancies to be aware of in primary care

A

Invasive cervical cancer, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, Kaposi’s

35
Q

Pathogen associated with “chlamydospores”

A

Candida

36
Q

Candida diagnosis

A

KOH wet mounts (look for ovoid budding yeast cells), also pseudohyphae (and/or true hyphae)

37
Q

What is the only encapsulated human fungal pathogen? What test is uniquely used in diagnosis?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans; India ink stain - will see ovoid encapsulated yeast but not hyphae (not dimorphic)

38
Q

“foamy alveolar exudate, ‘honeycomb’ appearance”

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (aka carnii, aka PCP)

39
Q

“Septate hyphae” fungus

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

40
Q

Fungal pathogen associated with prolonged antibiotic therapy

A

Candida

41
Q

Fungal pathogen associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Aspergillus

42
Q

Medications you need to avoid if treating Dengue

A

ASA + NSAIDs

43
Q

Which plasmodium spp is associated with “cerebral” malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

Hematology/Oncology (3 decks)

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