Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Contact transmission: 2 types

      direct contact: 

      indirect contact:

Name some diseases associated.

A

direct contact: HIV/ AIDS, Hepatitis, mono, staph, salmonella, giardia

indirect contact: contaminated inanimate objects or spread of respiratory droplets

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2
Q

Airborne transmission

A

Evaporated droplets capable of surviving long periods of time outside body.
Only a few diseases are capable:

TB
Varicella (chicken pox)
Rubeola (measles)

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3
Q

Enteric (fecal-oral) transmission:

A

organisms are found in feces.

Ingesting contaminated food or water.

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4
Q

Vector-borne transmission:

A

intermediate carrier (vector) such as a flea or mosquito transfers the organism.

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5
Q

Droplet transmission

A

Droplets don’t travel far.

Influenza, rubella (German measles), strep pneumonia, RSV, SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)

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6
Q

chain of infection:

A
Infectious agent 
reservoir or host 
portal of exit 
mode of transmission
portal of entry 
susceptible host.
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7
Q

What is vertical transmission?

A

mother to fetus
May occur through the placenta
May occur during the birth process

Examples: HIV, rubella, herpes.

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8
Q

primary therapy for HIV infection includes 3 types of antiretroviral agents:
(And examples of each)

A
  • protease inhibitors (PIs), atazanavir (Reyataz), ritonavir (Norvir), fosamprenavir (Lexiva), darunavir (Prezista), saquinavir (Invirase); nucleoside reverse
  • transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), such as emtricitabine + efavirenz + tenofovir (Atripla), abacavir + zidovudine + lamivudine (Trizivir), lamivudine (Epivir), lamivudine + zidovudine (Combivir); nonnucleoside reverse
  • Transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), such as nevirapine (Viramune) and efavirenz (Sustiva)
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9
Q

Type A hepatitis

Causes, risk factors

A

Infectious or short-incubation hepatitis
On the rise in people with HIV infection.
No chronic form
Highly contagious
Usually transmitted by the fecal-oral route, commonly within institutions or families. Ingestion of contaminated food, milk, or water. Outbreaks of this type are often traced to ingestion of seafood from polluted water.

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10
Q

Type B hepatitis

Causes and risk factors

A

Serum or long-incubation hepatitis
Increasing among HIV-positive individuals.
Considered to be an STI because of the high incidence and rate of transmission by this route. Routine screening of donor blood for hepatitis B (HBsAg) has decreased the incidence of posttransfusion related cases but transmission via needles shared by drug users remains a major problem
Transmitted by the direct exchange of contaminated blood as well as by contact with contaminated human secretions and stools. Transmission also occurs through perinatal transmission.

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11
Q

Type C hepatitis

Causes and risks

A

Accounts for about 20% of all viral hepatitis cases
Type C hepatitis is a blood-borne illness transmitted primarily via sharing of needles by I.V. drug users, through unsanitary tattooing, and through blood transfusions. People with chronic hepatitis C are considered infectious.

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12
Q
Type D (delta hepatitis)
Causes and risk factors
A

Confined to people who are frequently exposed to blood and blood products, such as I.V. drug users and hemophiliacs. It’s transmitted parenterally and less commonly, sexually.
Occurs only in those who have acute or a chronic episode of hepatitis B. Requires the presence of HBsAg.
Depends on the double-shelled type B virus to replicate. For this reason, type D infection can’t outlast a type B infection.

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13
Q

What is fulminant hepatitis?

A

Life-threatening.
Can happen in all types of hepatitis.
Develops in about 1% of patients.
Causes liver failure with encephalopathy, progresses to coma and commonly leads to death within two weeks.

(Can also be caused by high doses of acetaminophen or other medications)

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14
Q

Primary liver cancer may develop after infection with which kinds of hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis B or C

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15
Q

What illnesses can also occur as complications of hepatitis?

A
Pancreatitis, 
cirrhosis, 
myocarditis, 
pneumonia, 
aplastic anemia, 
transverse myelitis, 
peripheral neuropathy
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16
Q

Symptoms are similar for the different types of hepatitis.

What are some signs and symptoms in the prodromal stage?

A

Fatigue, anorexia, headache, arthralgia, myalgia, photophobia and N/V. Fever.

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17
Q

What are signs and symptoms of the clinical jaundice stage of hepatitis? (Occurs after prodromal stage)

A

1 to 5 days before the onset of clinical jaundice, dark urine and clay colored stool.
Clinical jaundice: pruritus, Abdominal pain, indigestion anorexia jaundice which can last for 1 to 2 weeks.
Rash or hives. Palpation reveals abdominal tenderness in RUQ, enlarged and tender liver possibly splenomegaly and cervical adenopathy.

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18
Q

Recovery phase of hepatitis

A

Generally lasts from 2 to 12 weeks. Sometimes longer with hep B C or E.
Symptoms are decreasing or have subsided. Decrease in liver enlargement.

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19
Q

Diagnostic tests for the different hepatitis types:

A

hepatitis profile is routinely performed. This study identifies antibodies specific to the causative virus, establishing the type of hepatitis:

Type A: Detection of an antibody to hepatitis A virus confirms the diagnosis.

Type B: The presence of HBsAg and hepatitis B antibodies confirms the diagnosis.

Type C: Diagnosis depends on serologic testing for the specific antibody 1 or more months after the onset of acute illness. Until then, the diagnosis is principally established by obtaining negative test results for hepatitis A, B, and D.
Type D: Detection of intrahepatic delta antigens or immunoglobulin (Ig) M antidelta antigens in acute disease (or IgM and IgG in chronic disease) establishes the diagnosis.

Type E: Detection of hepatitis E antigens supports the diagnosis; however, the diagnosis may also consist of ruling out hepatitis C.

Type G: Detection of hepatitis G ribonucleic acid supports the diagnosis. Serologic assays are being developed.

Liver biopsy is performed if chronic hepatitis is suspected.

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20
Q

Hep A treatment / prevention

A

Persons believed to have been exposed to hepatitis A virus and the household contacts of patients with confirmed cases should be treated with standard immunoglobulin.
Travelers planning to visit areas known to harbor such viruses should receive hepatitis A vaccine.

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21
Q

Hep B treatment/ prevention

A

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin and hepatitis B vaccine are given to individuals exposed to blood or body secretions of infected individuals.
The immunoglobulin is effective but very expensive.
In addition to its administration as part of the routine childhood immunization schedule, hepatitis B vaccine is now recommended for everyone.

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22
Q

Hep c treatment

A

There is no vaccine against hepatitis C, but it is usually treated with interferon alpha-2b (Intron A) and the more recently Food and Drug Administration–approved peginterferon alpha-2a (Pegasys).

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23
Q

General nursing interventions for hepatitis

A

Patient is advised to rest and combat anorexia by eating small, high-calorie, high-protein meals. (Protein intake should be reduced if signs of precomalethargy, confusion, mental changes—develop.)

With acute viral hepatitis, hospitalization usually is required only for patients with severe symptoms or complications.
Parenteral nutrition may be required for persistent vomiting.
Antiemetics (trimethobenzamide [Tigan] or benzquinamide) may be given to relieve N/V.

For severe pruritus, the cholestyramine resin (Questran), which sequesters bile salts, may be given.

Explain that the liver takes 3 weeks to regenerate and up to 4 months to return to normal functioning.
Advise patient to avoid contact sports until the liver returns to its normal size.
Instruct the patient to check with the physician before performing any strenuous activity.

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24
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Standard Precautions
Caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a member of the herpes group.
Usually young adults and children, but some cases are so mild that the infection is overlooked.
SX: fever, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy. It may also cause hepatic dysfunction
The prognosis is excellent, major complications are uncommon.

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25
Q

Blood/ Labs for mononucleosis?

A

increased lymphocyte and monocyte counts, development and persistence of heterophile antibodies.

Circulating B cells spread the infection throughout reticular endothelial system, which includes the liver, spleen, and peripheral lymph nodes. Infection of B lymphocytes produces a humoral and cellular response to the virus. The T-lymphocyte response is essential in controlling the infection because this response determines the clinical expression of viral infection. A rapid and efficient T-cell response results in control of the infection and lifelong suppression of EBV, whereas an ineffective T-cell response may lead to excessive and uncontrolled B-cell proliferation, resulting in B-lymphocyte malignancies.

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26
Q

Nursing interventions for mononucleosis

A

During the acute illness, stress the need for bed rest. Warn the patient to avoid excessive activity, which could lead to splenic rupture. If the patient is a student, explain that undertaking less demanding school assignments and seeing friends are fine, but he or she should avoid long, difficult projects until after recovery.

Patients should avoid exposing other people to their affected body secretions because virus remains viable for months after the initial infection

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27
Q

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

Causes:

A

Contact Precautions
severe skin disorder
epidermal erythema, peeling, and necrosis that give the skin a scalded appearance.
Most prevalent in infants ages 1 to 3 months but may develop in children younger than age 5 years. Rarely, this disorder may affect adults undergoing immunosuppressant therapy.
most children recover fully; however, the mortality rate for adults with SSSS secondary to toxigenic Staphylococcus aureus in the blood is more than 60%.
Transmission usually from asymptomatic carrier. Predisposing factors may include impaired immunity and renal insufficiency, which are present to some extent in the normal neonate because of immature development of these systems.

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28
Q

Symptoms of Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

3 stages

A
  1. Erythema: Erythema becomes visible usually around the mouth and other orifices; may spread in widening circles over the entire body surface.
  2. Exfoliation (24 to 48 hours later): With the more common, localized form of the disease, superficial erosions and minimal crusting occur, usually around body orifices, and may spread to exposed skin areas. With the more severe form of SSSS, large, flaccid bullae erupt and may spread to cover extensive body areas. When they rupture, these bullae expose sections of tender, oozing, denuded skin. Intact lesions may not be found because the bullae are fragile; only the erosions may be visible. At first, the patient with this disorder may appear to be sunburned or to have scarlet fever, but inspection of the mouth shows the lack the oral lesions characteristic of scarlet fever.
  3. Desquamation: In this final stage, affected areas dry up & powdery scales form. Sheets of epidermis shed, and the skin appears reddish in 5 to 7 days. Residual scarring is rare.

During initial disease stages, palpation of affected areas results in Nikolsky sign (sloughing of the skin when friction is applied). Bullae are so fragile that minimal palpation produces tender, red, moist areas.

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29
Q

Treatment of Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

systemic antibiotic to treat originating infection.
Cloxacillin (a penicillinase-resistant antistaphylococcal antibiotic) is the drug of choice and is used to prevent secondary infection.
In severe cases, fluid and electrolyte replacement measures are also instituted to maintain balance.

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30
Q

Nursing considerations for Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

Maintain skin integrity. Use strict aseptic technique to preclude secondary infection, especially during the exfoliation stage (because of open lesions). To prevent friction and sloughing of the skin, leave affected areas uncovered or loosely covered. Place cotton between severely affected fingers and toes to prevent webbing.

Administer warm baths & soaks during the recovery period. Gently debride exfoliated areas.

Isolation

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31
Q

What order does a nurse remove PPE

A

Always remove gloves first.

Face shield or goggles- touch only straps or strings.

Gown- untie waist, then neck, then pull gown forward toward wrists,turning it inside out.

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32
Q

What kind of mask is used for airborne precautions?

A

N-95 respirator

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33
Q

Should gloves or cuffs be on the outside

A

Glove should cover the cuffs of the gown sleeves

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34
Q

Chlamydia is a common cause of which two problems?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Infertility

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35
Q

Common symptoms of viral hepatitis

A

ARTHRALGIA

Other symptoms: lethargy, flulike sx, anorexia, N/V, abdominal pain, gi problems, fever.

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36
Q

Normal urine output

A

30ml/ hour

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37
Q

What chlamydia cause in newborns?

A

Conjunctivitis
Respiratory infection

Infected by cervicovaginal secretions during delivery.

38
Q

Describe vaginal discharge associated with trichamonas

A

Homogeneous, greenish gray,

Watery, frothy or purulent

39
Q

Describe vaginal discharge associated with gardnerella vaginosis

A

Thin and grayish white.

Fishy odor.

40
Q

Toxin that causes toxic shock syndrome

A

Staphylococcus aureus bacteria.

Tampon in vagina for more than 8 hours creates environment for bacteria and enters bloodstream through breaks in vaginal mucosa.

41
Q

Symptoms of syphilis in the different stages.

A

1-Primary syphilis: sore(s) at original site of infection (genitals, around anus or in rectum, or in or around mouth. Sores are usually firm, round, painless.
2-Secondary:include rash on palms and soles of feet, swollen lymph nodes, fever.
3-Latent stage, there are no signs or symptoms.
4-Tertiary stage: severe medical problems. Can affect the heart, brain, and other organs.

42
Q

Criteria for AIDS vs HIV

A

AIDS diagnosis:
Must have HIV,
Have CD4 T-cell count below 200.
Have one or more opportunistic infections or cancers.

43
Q

What percent of lymphocytes are T cells vs. B Cells?

A

80% T cells

20% B cells

44
Q

Name 3 kinds of T cells and their actions.

A

Killer T cells: bind to surface of invading cell, disrupt membrane and destroy it by altering its internal environment.

Helper T cells: stimulate B cells to mature.

Suppressor T cells: reduce humoral response.

45
Q

Where do B cells originate?

Where do T cells originate?

A

B cells: Produced and mature in Bone marrow.

T cells: produced by bone marrow but they travel through bloodstream to get to Thymus gland and mature there.

46
Q

Difference between immunity of T and B cells

A

T cells: antigen specific. Cell mediated immunity.

B cells humoral immunity. Immunoglobulin mediated immunity.

47
Q

What are the 2 types of B cells?

A

Plasma cells

Memory cells

48
Q

Some other differences between T and B cells?

A

T cells have longer life span than B.

T cells mature in lymph node, B cell mature outside lymph node.

T cells act against tumor or transplant, B cells do not.

T cells move to site of infection, B cells do not.

T cells recognize antigens on outside of infected cells. B cells recognize surface antigen of the actual bacteria or virus.

49
Q

What is the name of an early symptom of Lyme disease?

A

Bulls eye rash

Erythema chromicum migrans.

50
Q

Name some severe final symptoms of syphillus

A
Psychosis, 
dementia, 
heart failure, 
destruction of bone, 
destruction of skin and soft tissue.
51
Q

A painless canker lasting 3 to 6 weeks is a primary symptom of which STI?

A

Syphillus

52
Q

Symptoms of legionnaires disease?

A
Malaise, 
headache, 
dry cough, 
fever of 103, 
respiratory failure, 
multi organ failure
53
Q

How long does it take for HIV antibodies to develop?

A

3 weeks to 6 months or longer

54
Q

What is incidence rate?

A

How fast people catch diseases

55
Q

Diet for hepatitis

A

Low fat
High calories, carbs and protein
No etoh

56
Q

CBC for AIDS

A

Leukopenia

Serious lymphopenia (lymphocytopenia)

Anemia

Thrombocytopenia

57
Q

Symptoms of Tinea corporis (ringworm)

A

Round, red scaly lesions.
Intense itching
Slight red raised areas consisting of tiny vesicles.

Fungal infection of the body.

58
Q

Naturally acquired active immunity

A

Antibodies after exposure to disease.

Requires contact with disease.

59
Q

Naturally acquired passive immunity

A

No active immune processes involved
Antibodies are passively received through placental transfer by immunoglobulin G (smallest immunoglobulin) and breast feeding (colostrum)

60
Q

ERYTHEMA INFECTIOSUM (FIFTH DISEASE)
Cause
Symptoms
Complications

A

Rash can recur for weeks with exposure to heat or sun.
Contact with respiratory secretions
Contagious before onset of illness
Incubation is 4–14 days and can be as long as 20 days.
Caused by parvovirus B19
Complications include arthralgia and arthritis.

Mild systemic symptoms
Occasional fever
Red facial rash, giving a “slapped cheek” appearance
Circumoral pallor
Symmetric lacy rash on the trunk and limbs
Rarely seen in dark-skinned individuals

Complications include aseptic meningitis, rapid onset of asymmetric acute flaccid paralysis and residual paralytic disease involving the motor neurons, and paralysis of respiratory muscles.

61
Q

Koplik’s spots?

A

Diagnostic of rubeola. (Measles)

“ulcerated mucosal lesions marked by necrosis, neutrophilic exudate, and neovascularization.”

Rubeola has a descending maculopapular rash

62
Q

What kind of precautions are used for chicken pox?

A

Varicella zoster is transmitted through mucous membranes contact, airborne and direct lesion contact.

Negative airflow room with strict droplet and airborne precautions.

63
Q

What is one illness that has a symptom of photophobia?

A

Measles (rubeola)

64
Q

What is one lab value that should be monitored with chicken pox?

A

Varicella has a complication of hepatitis.
SGOT is released when liver is damaged.
Monitor liver function.

65
Q

Roseola rash description

A

Rose pink rash appears when fever returns to normal. Starts on trunk and lasts a few days.
Rash does NOT itch or form scabs.

(Transmission is through oral secretions)

66
Q

What is a complication of mumps?

A

Aseptic meningitis
Symptoms of aseptic meningitis are: headache, still neck and photophobia.
15% of mumps will develop this complication.

67
Q

Tetragenic effects of rubella on fetus in first trimester

A
Eye defects
CNS effects
Heart defects
Auditory defects
Severe mental retardation
68
Q

Care for impetigo

A

Wash crusts daily with soap and water.

Wet compresses to soften crusts

69
Q

How is ringworm spread?

A

Usually by cuddling an animal.

But can be also spread person to person.

70
Q

Gonorrhea symptoms in male

A

Fever,
Urethral discharge
Arthritis

(Lesions and rash would be indicative of syphilis)

71
Q

How does gonorrhea affect female fertility?

A

Spreads from vagina to uterus and then to tubes and ovaries. Strictures and obstruction can happen.
Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Estrogen production is not affected.

72
Q

Which infection may not be killed by alcohol based hand sanitizer.

A

C. Diff

73
Q

Clinical symptoms of West Nile virus

A

Can be mild flu-like to fatal encephalitis.

74
Q

What kind of immunity is provided by tetanus booster?

A

Artificial active immunity

75
Q

Artificial passive immunity

A

antibodies when they are ill with diphtheria or cytomegalovirus. Or, antibody treatment may be used as a preventive measure after exposure to a pathogen to try to stop illness from developing (such as with respiratory syncytial virus [RSV], measles, tetanus, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, rabies, or chickenpox). Antibody treatment may not be used for routine cases of these diseases, but it may be beneficial to high-risk individuals, such as people with immune system deficiencies.

76
Q

Symptoms of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (secondary to AIDS.)

A

caused by a fungus that produces these symptoms. It is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS.
Weight loss, night sweats, persistent diarrhea are symptoms of AIDS;

77
Q

A dangerous side effect of Pentamidine (used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia)

A

Pentamidine can cause fatal hypoglycemia

78
Q

Why is taking antiviral meds on a regular interval so important?

A

Taking antiretroviral medications such as protease inhibitor, indinavir, on a rigid time schedule is essential for effective treatment of HIV infection and to avoid development of drug resistant-strains of the virus

79
Q

Teaching about TB

A

allay concerns about contagious aspect TB. Instruct to follow medication regimen exactly as prescribed and always to have a supply of the medication on hand.
Advise of the med side effects ways of minimizing them to ensure compliance.
After 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy, it is unlikely that the client will infect anyone.
Activities should be resumed gradually and need for adequate nutrition and a well-balanced diet that is rich in iron, protein, and vitamin C to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection. Inform the client and family that respiratory isolation is not necessary because family members already have been exposed. Instruct the client about thorough hand washing and to cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and to put used tissues into plastic bags. Inform the client that a sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated.

When the results of three sputum cultures are negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and can usually return to former employment.

80
Q

Interventions for Isoniazid (INH)

A

antitubercular medication. Common side effect of isoniazid is peripheral neuritis, manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesias in the extremities. This can be minimized with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) intake.
Isoniazid (INH) is hepatotoxic, and therefore the client is taught to report signs and symptoms of hepatitis immediately, which include yellow skin and sclera. For the same reason, alcohol should be avoided during therapy. The client should avoid intake of Swiss cheese, fish such as tuna, and foods containing tyramine because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or light-headedness. The client can avoid developing peripheral neuritis by increasing the intake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) during the course of isoniazid therapy.

81
Q

Common side effect of Ethambutol, drug for TB.

A

Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client also is taught to take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs.

(Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. )
(Orange red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin). )

82
Q

Rifabutin (Mycobutin) may be prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis.

What is action and side effects?

A

It inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis.
Side effects include rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, neutropenia (low neutrophil count), red-orange–colored body secretions, uveitis (blurred vision and eye pain), myositis, arthralgia, hepatitis, chest pain with dyspnea, and flu-like syndrome. Vitamin B6 deficiency and numbness and tingling in the extremities is associated with the use of isoniazid (INH). Ethambutol (Myambutol) also causes peripheral neuritis.

Focus on the name of the medication to assist in answering the question and use the process of elimination. Vitamin B6 deficiency and numbness and tingling in the extremities is associated with the use of isoniazid will assist in answering.

83
Q

How is Mumps is transmitted? And when is it contagious?

A

via direct contact with or droplet spread from an infected person.
Droplet precautions are indicated during the period of communicability, which is immediately before and after swelling begins.

84
Q

When is the communicable period for chickenpox?

A

is 1 to 2 days before the onset of the rash to 6 days after the first crop of vesicles, when crusts have formed.

85
Q

Rubeola (measles) contact precautions

A

Rubeola is transmitted via airborne particles or direct contact with infectious droplets. Airborne droplet precautions are required, and those in contact with the child should wear masks. The child is placed in a private room with negative air pressure. Doors remain closed. Gowns and gloves are not necessary, but standard precautions are used. Articles that are contaminated should be bagged and labeled.
Special enteric precautions and protective isolation are NOT indicated in rubeola. Remember that rubeola is transmitted via the airborne route.
communicable period for rubeola ranges from 4 days before to 5 days after the rash appears, mainly during the prodromal stage

86
Q

Scarlet fever symptoms

A

Pastia’s sign describes a rash seen in scarlet fever that will blanch with pressure except in areas of deep creases and the folds of joints. The tongue initially is coated with a white furry covering, with red projecting papillae (white strawberry tongue). By the fourth to fifth day, the white strawberry tongue sloughs off, leaving a red swollen tongue (strawberry tongue). The pharynx is edematous and beefy red.

87
Q

Facts about infants born with HIV

A

Most children infected with HIV develop symptoms within the first 9 months of life. The remainder of these infected children become symptomatic sometime before the age of 3 years. Children, with their immature immune systems, have a much shorter incubation period than adults.
positive antibody test in a child younger than 18 months of age indicates only that the mother is infected, because maternal immunoglobulin G antibodies persist in infants for 6 to 9 months and, in some cases, as long as 18 months. A positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) does not indicate true HIV infection.

detection of HIV in infants is confirmed by a p24 antigen assay, virus culture of HIV, or polymerase chain reaction. A Western blot test confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. The CD4+ cell count indicates how well the immune system is working.
Specific laboratory tests to review include ELISA, Western blot, CD4+ cell count, and p24 antigen assay.

88
Q

What is meningitis and how is it diagnosed?

A

Meningitis is an infectious process of the central nervous system caused by bacteria and viruses; it may be acquired as a primary disease or as a result of complications of neurosurgery, trauma, infection of the sinus or ears, or systemic infections.

Meningitis is diagnosed by testing cerebrospinal fluid obtained by lumbar puncture. In the case of bacterial meningitis, findings usually include an elevated pressure, turbid or cloudy cerebrospinal fluid, and elevated leukocyte, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels.

89
Q

Antibody
Vs.
Antigen

A

Antibody: highly specific protein transported in bloodstream to fight invading microorganisms.

Antigen: substance that provokes an immune response

90
Q

What are Koplik’s spots?

A

Red spots with Tiny bluish- white center.
Seen on buffalo mucosa opposite molars 2 days before measles rash appears.

Associated with measles/ rubeola