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Phase 3B > Infectious disease > Flashcards

Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

-Chronic granulomatous disease

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2
Q

What causes tuberculosis?

A

-Aerobic mycobacterium tuberculosis complex

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3
Q

What are the 3 different mycobacterium tuberculosis complex bacteria called?

A
  • M. Bovis
  • M. tuberculosis
  • M. africanum
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4
Q

How is tuberculosis caught?

A
  • Spread by infected droplets coughed up by infected patients when the granulomas rupture
  • Can live on environmental surfaces for long periods of time
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5
Q

How might a primary infection of tuberculosis present?

A
  • Asymptomatically

- Mild flu-like illness

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6
Q

What is the pathogenesis of TB?

A

-Droplets inhaled into the alveoli of the lungs
-Macrophages engulf organisms and attempt to control them in the hilar lymph nodes
-Granulomas form
>Some bacteria are eliminated, some lay dormant, some disseminate

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7
Q

Why do only a small proportion of patients progress to active TB?

A

-The body is usually good enough to control the mycobarcterium but when someone is immunosuppressed (AIDS, long term steroids, age), the TB escapes the granulomas and spreads to the apices.

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8
Q

Why does active TB spread to the apices of the lungs?

A

-TB is aerobic and the apices receive more oxygenation

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9
Q

What are risk factors for TB?

A
  • Close contact of TB patient
  • Ethnic minority groups
  • Homeless patients, alcoholics, drug abusers
  • HIV
  • Extremities of age
  • Comorbid patients especially immunosuppressed
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10
Q

What are the systemic clinical features of TB?

A

-Long progressive history of:
>Fever
>Night sweats
>Weight loss

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11
Q

What are the pulmonary presentations of TB?

A
  • Haemoptysis
  • 3/52 productive cough
  • Breathlessness
  • Chest pain
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12
Q

How does Miliary TB present?

A
  • Kidneys (most common extra-pulmonary site): sterile pyuria
  • Meningitis
  • Pott disease in lumbar vertebrae
  • Addisons
  • Hepatitis
  • Lymphadenitis
  • Arthritis
  • Erythema Nodosum
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13
Q

What are the TB differentials?

A
  • Cancer
  • Atypical pneumonias
  • Fibrotic lung disease
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14
Q

What should be the first thing that is done if you suspect TB in a patient?

A
  • Allocate them a side room

- Barrier nurse with advanced masks

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15
Q

What investigations should be done for a patient suspected with TB?

A
  • Chest Xray
  • Ziehl-Neelsen Stain for acid fast bacilli
  • Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen slope
  • Rapid diagnostic nucleic acid amplification test (expensive)
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16
Q

How long does culture results take for TB?

A
  • 4-6 weeks.

- If have a high suspicion and a positive Ziehl-Neelsen stain and CXR treat for TB

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17
Q

What colour does Ziehl-Neelsen stain turn if Tb is present?

A
  • TB mycobacterium are aerobic acid fast bacilli and will turn red on staining.
  • Other acid fast bacilli will also turn red on staining
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18
Q

Apart from sputum samples, what other samples should be cultured if TB is suspected?

A
  • Lymph node biopsies
  • Aspirated pus
  • Early morning urine
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19
Q

When is the montoux test useful?

A

-For contact tracing. Identifies anybody with a previous exposure to the mycobacterium

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20
Q

What is the management for TB?

A
  • Side room and TB
  • Notify PHE
  • RIPE drug treatment
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21
Q

What tests should be done before commencing on TB treatment?

A
  • LFTs

- U&Es

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22
Q

What are the RIPE drugs?

A
  • Rifampicin
  • Isoniazid
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol
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23
Q

How long should the RIPE drugs be taken for and why?

A
  • 2 months: Pyrazinamide and ethambutol
  • 6 months: Rifampicin and isoniazid
  • Drugs only target active TB. Longer treatment time increases chance of latent TB becoming active and destroyed
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24
Q

Which RIPE drugs are bactericidal and which are bacteriostatic?

A 
-Bactericidal
>Rifampicin
>Isoniazid
>Pyrazinamide
-Bacteriostatic
>Ethambutol
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25
Q

What are the side effects of rifampicin?

A

-Red body secretions
-Induction of liver enzymes affecting:
>Oestrogens, steroids, phenytoin, anticoagulants
-Hepatitis

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26
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazid?

A
  • Hepatitis

- Neuropathy

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27
Q

What drug reduces the risk of isoniazid induced neuropathy?

A

-Pyridoxine

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28
Q

What are the side effects of pyrazinamide?

A
  • Hepatitis
  • Arthralgia
  • Gout
  • Rash
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29
Q

What are the side effects of ethambutol?

A

-Optic neuritis

>Usually resolves if drug is stopped immediately.

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30
Q

What patient group is multi drug resistance likely to occur?

A

-HIV patients

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31
Q

When is treatment failure likely to happen?

A
  • Incorrect prescribing

- Lack of compliance

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32
Q

How is latent TB managed in a patient without HIV?

A

-6/12 isoniazid OR 3/12 rifampicin + isoniazid

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33
Q

How is latent TB managed in a patient with HIV?

A

-6/12 isoniazid

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34
Q

What treatment should be given to patients with known contact to a TB patient?

A

-6/12 rifampicin

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35
Q

What is HIV

A

Human Immunodeficiency virus

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36
Q

How does HIV infection lead to AIDs?

A

-Causes the immune system to fail and not fend off infections

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37
Q

What is the most common HIV strain in the world?

A

-HIV 1

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38
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A 
-Sexual intercourse
>MSM (most common)
>Heterosexual intercourse (M->F usually)
-IVDU
-Pregnancy
>placenta, delivery, breast milk
-Blood transfusions
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39
Q

What are the 9 steps of HIV replication?

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Entry
  3. Uncoating
  4. Reverse transcription
  5. Genome integration
  6. Transcription of RNA
  7. Splicing of mRNA and translation
  8. Assembly of new viruses
  9. Budding
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40
Q

What is HIV formed of?

A
  • An outer envelope

- An inner core containing RNA and RNA reverse transcriptase

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41
Q

What is the HIV surface glycoprotein that binds to CD4 receptors?

A

-GP120

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42
Q

What immune cells contain CD4 receptors?

A
  • T cells
  • Lymphocytes
  • Dendritic cells
  • Monocytes
  • Macrophages
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43
Q

What bacteria is someone that has

a HIV infection presdisposed to?

A
  • Penumoniae

- H. Influenzae

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44
Q

What is the category A section of HIV natural history?

A

-Primary infection or seroconversion

>Non-specific symptoms: malaise, fever, maculopapular rash, myalgia, headache, meningitis

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45
Q

What is the clinical latency phase?

A
  • Mainly asymptomatic

- Lasts from 6weeks to 10 years

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46
Q

What happens in the category B phase?

A
  • Rise in viral load, fall in CD4 count.

- Development of clinical features due to immunosuppression

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47
Q

What are some examples of category B diseases?

A
  • Bacillary angiomatosis
  • Candidiasis
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia
  • Herpes zoster (>1 dermatome)
  • ITP
  • Listeriosis
  • PID
  • Peripheral neuropathy
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48
Q

What are examples of category C diseases?

A
  • Candidiasis of bronchi, trachea, lungs, oesophagus
  • Invasive cervical carcinoma
  • CMV
  • Encephalopathy
  • HSV
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • TB
  • PJP
  • Recurrent pneumonia
  • Recurrent salmonella septicaemia
  • Toxoplasmosis of the brain
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49
Q

What are some of the clinical features of AIDS?

A
  • Aseptic meningitis
  • Retinal cotton wool spots
  • Aphthous ulcerations
  • Neutropenia
  • HIV enteropathy
  • Renal impairment
  • Reduced adrenal function
  • Myocarditis, cardiomyopathy
  • Infections
  • Coinfections ie Hep B
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50
Q

How is HIV diagnosed?

A

-Antibody assays
(detectable 6-12 weeks post infection)
-Viral genotype analysis

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51
Q

How is HIV monitored?

A
  • CD4 count 3 monthly
  • <200=greatest risk of HIV related pathology
  • rapidly falling CD4 of <350 needs antiretroviral therapy
  • HIV RNA 3-6 montly
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52
Q

What is a normal CD4 count?

A

-500

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53
Q

How is HIV managed?

A
  • Drugs
  • Social and psychological care
  • Contacting tracing and sexual education
  • Prevention of infections
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54
Q

What are the different types of HIV drugs?

A
  • Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • Non-Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • Protease inhibitors
  • Fusion inhibitors
  • Integrase inhibitors
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55
Q

What is the ideal treatment combination for HIV?

A

-2NRTI and 1 NNRTI/protease inhibitors

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56
Q

What is the HIV treatment goal?

A

-Suppress viral load to <50 copies/ml

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57
Q

How do nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors work?

A

-Inhibits synthesis of DNA by reverse transcriptase and acts as DNA chain terminators

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58
Q

How do non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A

-Bind directly to and inhibit reverse transcriptase

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59
Q

How do protease inhibitors work?

A

-Acts as competitively on HIV enzyme which prevents production of functional viral proteins and enzymes

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60
Q

What are some examples of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A
  • Abacavir

- Didanosine

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61
Q

What are some examples of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A
  • Efavirenz

- Etravirine

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62
Q

What are some examples of protease inhibitors?

A
  • Atazanavir

- Darunavir

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63
Q

When should post exposure prophylaxis be taken?

A
  • Combination of oral antiretrovirals immediately for up to 4 weeks
  • Testing at 12 weeks
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64
Q

Where are sterile sites within the body?

A
  • Ureter
  • CSF
  • Peritoneal fluid
  • Pericardial fluid
  • Pleural fluid
  • Synovial fluid
  • Bone marrow
  • Blood
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65
Q

What are gram +ve bacteria?

A
  • Streptococci

- Staphylococci

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66
Q

How are gram +ve bacteria differentiated?

A
  • Staph = catalast +ve

- Strep = catalase -ve

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67
Q

What conditions can Staph. aureus cause?

A
  • IE
  • Wound infections
  • Abscesses
  • Osteomyelitis
  • TSS
  • Pneumonia
  • Scalded skin syndrome
  • Food poisoning (3 hour incubation period
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68
Q

What condition does staph. saprophyticus cause?

A

-UTI

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69
Q

What causes skin abscesses, cellulitis and tonsilitis?

A

-Strep pyogenes

>usually sensitive to penicillin (clarithromycin if allergic)

70
Q

What does strep penumoniae cause?

Who’s more predisposed to the infections?

A 
-CAP
Predisposition:
-Bronchiectasis
-Asplenia
-primary ciliarly diskinesia
71
Q

What does strep viridans cause?

A

-Deep organ abscesses ie liver and brain

72
Q

What class of bacteria is diptheria?

A

-Gram +ve
>eradicated with childhood vaccine
>notifiable disease

73
Q

What is a gram -ve cocci?

A

-Neisseria meningitidis

74
Q

What is an example of gram +ve bacilli?

A

-Listeria mononcytogenes
(causes meningitis in extremities of age and in the immunosuppressed)
-Treat with amoxicillin

75
Q

What are examples of alpha haemolytic strep?

A
  • Strep pneumoninae

- Strep viridans

76
Q

What are examples of beta haemolytic strep?

77
Q

What are examples of lactose fermenting gram -ve bacilli?

A
  • E.coli

- Klebsiella

78
Q

What are examples of non-lactose fermenting gram -ve bacilli?

A
  • Salmonella

- Shigella

79
Q

What test is required for mycobacteria?

A

-Ziehl-Neilson stain

80
Q

How do you differentiate between shigella and salmonella in the lab?

A
  • Shigella turns XLD agar red

- Salmonella turns XLD agar black

81
Q

What infections can E.coli cause?

A
  • Food poisoning
  • UTI
  • Skin wound infections
  • Travellers diarrhoea
  • Dysentry
82
Q

What symptoms does a shigella infection present with?

A
  • Dysentry, 30 stools a day

- If shigella toxin enters blood> can target kidney and cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome = kidney failure

83
Q

How does a cholera infection present?

A
  • From shellfish, untreated water
  • Incubation period > hours to 5 days
  • Rice water stool, no blood
84
Q

What is pseudomonas aeruginosa and how does it present?

A
  • Gram -ve bacilli

- Causes infections in cystic fibrosis and bronchiectasis patients

85
Q

What’s the most common cause of pneumonia in COPD pts?

A

-Haemophilus influenza

86
Q

What agar is required to grow Haemophilus influenzae in the lab?

A

-Chocolate agar

87
Q

What condition has HiB vaccine decreased incidence of?

A

-Acute epiglottitis in children

88
Q

What is legionella pneumophila?

A
  • Gram -ve bacilli
  • Causes legionaires disease (atypical pneumonia)
  • Grows in shower heads and water tanks/taps - check travel history
89
Q

What condition does bordatella pertussis cause?

A

-Whooping cough

>paroxysmal wheeze and cough

90
Q

What classification is neisseria meningitidis?

A

-Gram -ve diplococcus

>common cause of meningitis

91
Q

What class is neisseria gonorrhoea?

A

-Gram -ve coccus

92
Q

What is helicobacter pylori?

A
  • Gram -ve spiral
  • Causes duodenal ulcers
  • Detected by urea breath test or stool test
93
Q

How is H.pylori treated?

A

-Metronidazole + clarithromycin + PPI
or
-Amoxicillin + clarithromycin + PPI

94
Q

What class of bacteria is chlamydia? What does it cause?

A
  • Gram -ve

- STDs, PID, resp tract infections

95
Q

What are exmaples of spirochetes?

A
  • Syphilis > 3 stages

- Lyme disease

96
Q

What are the 3 stages of a syphilis infection?

A
  • Primary stage: localised infection ie ulcer on penis
  • Second stage: systemic features, skin, lymph, joints, plantar palmar rash
  • Tertiary rash: neurosyphilis, CVS syphilis
97
Q

What is leprosy caused by? How does it present? How is it spread?

A
  • Mycobacteria leprae
  • Causes peripheral anaesthesia due to nerve damage (may also see skin lesions)
  • Spread by touch
98
Q

What are the 5 antibiotics that cause C. Difficile?

A
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Clindamycin
  • Cephalosporins (cefuroxime. ceftriaxone)
  • Co-amoxiclav
  • Carbapenams
99
Q

What is hameolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

-Seen in young children.
-Triad of:
>Acute renal failure
>Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
-Thrombocytopenia

100
Q

What are the causes of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A
  • Post dystentery
  • Tumours
  • Pregnancy
  • Ciclosporin
  • The pill
  • SLE
  • HIV
101
Q

How is haemolytic uraemic syndrome investigated?

A
  • FBC: anaemia, thrombocytopenia, fragmented blood film
  • U&E: raised CR, raise urea
  • Stool culture: +ve E. coli
102
Q

How is haemolytic uraemic syndrome managed?

A

-Supportive Rx: fluids, blood transfusion, dialysis if required

103
Q

What are features of Legionnaire’s?

A
  • Flu like symptoms (inc. fever)
  • Dry cough
  • Bradycardia
  • Confusion
  • Lymphopaenia
  • Hyponatramia
  • Deranged LFTs
  • Pleural effusion
104
Q

How is legionnaires diagnosed?

A
  • Urinary antigen for for Legionella
  • CXR
  • Sputum culture
105
Q

How is Legionnaire’s treated?

A
  • Erythromycin

- Notifiy PHE

106
Q

What are features of gonnorrhoea?

A
  • Males: urethral discharge, dysuria

- Females: cervicitis: vaginal discharge, bleeding, dyspareunia

107
Q

What are some local complications that can result from gonorrhoea infections?

A
  • Urethral strictures
  • Epididymitis
  • Salpingitis
108
Q

What are some systemic features of gonnorhoea?

A
  • Gonococcal arthritis

- Tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis

109
Q

How is gonorrhoea treated?

A

-Ceftriaxone 50mg IM

+ azithromycin 1g PO

110
Q

What are the features of chlamydia?

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • Women: Discharge, bleeding, dysuria
  • Men: urethral discharge, dysuria
111
Q

What are the complications of a chlaydia infection?

A
  • Epididymitis
  • PID
  • Endometriosis
  • Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancies
  • Infertility
  • Reactive arthritis
112
Q

How is chlamydia investigated?

A

-Nucleic acid amplification tests of 1st void urine sample or vulvovaginal swab

113
Q

How is chlamydia treated?

A
  • Azithromycin 1g PO

- Contact tracing

114
Q

How is syphilis treated?

A

-Benzylpenicillin

doxycycline if allergic

115
Q

What is BV?

A

-Overgrowth of anaerobic organisms ie gardnerella vaginalis

116
Q

What are the features of BV?

A

-Fishy offensive smell

117
Q

What are the Amels criteria for diagnosing BV?

A
  • Thin, white discharge
  • Clue cells in microscopy
  • Vaginal pH >4.5
  • Positive whiff test
118
Q

How is BV managed?

A

-Oral metronidazole 5-7 days

119
Q

What are implications of BV in pregnancy?

A

-Increased risk of:
>preterm labour
>low birth weight
>late miscarriage

120
Q

Which UTI abx should be used in pregnancy? and in breast feeding?

A
  • Pregnancy: nitrofurantoin

- Breastfeeding: trimethoprim

121
Q

What are the presenting features of trichomonas vaginalis?

A
  • Vaginal discharge: offensive, yellow/green/ frothy
  • Vulvovaginitis
  • Strawberry cervix
122
Q

How is trichomonas vaginalis managed?

A

-Oral metronidazole

123
Q

What infectious disease can be caught by travel?

A
  • Infective gastroenteritis
  • Malaria
  • Hepatitis
  • Legionella
  • Typhoid
  • Rabies
  • Ebola
124
Q

What infections do sewage workers get?

A
  • Leptospirosis (from rat urine)
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Hepatitis
125
Q

What diseases do farm workers get?

A
  • Orf
  • Coxsackie
  • Coxiella
126
Q

What diseass are seen in commercial sex workers?

A
  • STI
  • HIV
  • Hep B
127
Q

What diseases are health care workers at increased risk of?

A
  • Hep B
  • RTI
  • Infectious diarrhoea ie norovirus
128
Q

What disease can be seen in trekkers?

A

-Lyme disease

129
Q

What infections can be caught in restaurants?

A
  • Salmonella

- Campylobacter

130
Q

Which infectious disease can be caught from shellfish?

A
  • Hep A

- Yersinia

131
Q

What diseases can be caught from dirty water?

A
  • Hep A & E
  • Cholera
  • Dysentery causing bacteria
132
Q

Which infections are patients prone to if they’ve had a splenectomy?

A

-Pneumococcal sepsis

133
Q

Which infections are post-transplant pts prone to?

A
  • CMV
  • Apergillus
  • Fungal infections
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci
134
Q

Which infections are HIV pts at risk of?

A
  • PCP
  • Toxoplasma
  • Cryptococcus
  • Candidiasis
135
Q

What is an alternative of BenPen for someone who is penicillin allergic with suspected meninigitis?

A

-Chloramphenicol

136
Q

What are the possible causes of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Strep pneumoniae
  • Listeria monocytogenes (elderly, babies, immunosuppressed)
137
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

-Enterovirus

138
Q

What transmits malaria?

A

-Femal anopheles mosquito transmits plasmodium protozoa

139
Q

What is the most common plasmodium speciest to cause malaria?

A

-Plasmodium flaciparum

140
Q

Where is malaria most common?

A
  • Sub-saharan Africa
  • Central Asia
  • Eastern Europe
  • South East Asia
141
Q

Risk factors for malaria?

A
  • Travel to endemic area
  • Low socioeconomic status
  • Young children and infants
  • Pregnancy
  • Elderly
  • Outdoors between dusk and dawn
142
Q

What are protective factors against malaria?

A
  • Sickle cell trait

- G6PD deficiency

143
Q

Features of severe malaria?

A
  • Temp >39
  • Headache
  • Myalgia
  • Parasitaemia
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Acidosis
  • Severe anaemia
  • Presence of complications
144
Q

Signs of malaria?

A
  • Fever
  • Splenomegaly
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Jaundice
145
Q

Complications of malaria?

A
  • Cerebral malaria: seizures, confusion, coma, death
  • Acute renal failure: black water fever due to intravascular haemolysis
  • ARDS
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • DIC
146
Q

Differentials of malaria?

A
  • Typhoid
  • Hepatitis
  • Dengue fever
  • Influenza
  • HIV
  • Meningitis
  • Viral haemorrhagic fever
147
Q

investigations for suspected malaria?

A
  • Thick and thin blood fims with Giemsa stain
  • Rapid diagnostic tests
  • FBC: thrombocytopenia, anaemia
  • LFTs: abnormal
  • U&E: hyponatraemia, ^Cr
148
Q

How can malaria be prevented?

A
  • Deet
  • Mosquite nets
  • Long clothes
  • Avoid dusk/dawn
  • Short term antimalarials: malarone, doxycycline
  • Long term antimalarials: Mefloquine, proguanil
149
Q

1st line Treatment for severe malaria?

A

-IV artesunate

150
Q

How does lyme disease present?

A
  • Erythema chronicum migrans 9migrating redness from tick bite)
  • Systemic features: fever, arthralgia
  • CVS: heart block, myocarditis
  • Neuro: CN palsies, meningitis
151
Q

How is lyme disease treated?

A
  • Oral doxycycline

- Ceftriaxone in disseminated disease

152
Q

Most commo cause of infective gastroenteritis?

A

-Campylobacter

153
Q

How is gastroenteritis investigated?

A
  • Stool sample
  • Vital signs
  • Assess for dehydration
  • FBC, U&E
154
Q

Treatment for gastroenteritis?

A
  • Normally self limiting. Suportive therapy.

- Analgesia for stomach cramps

155
Q

If someone works with food and acquires food
poisoning, what action needs taking and when can
they return to work?

A
  • Notify PHE
  • 3x -ve stool samples before returnign to work
  • 48 hours minimus before returning to work/school
156
Q

What is cellulitis?

A
  • Inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

- Typically caused by strep pyogenes or staph. aureus

157
Q

Features of cellulitis?

A
  • Commonly occurs on the shins
  • Erythema
  • Pain
  • Swelling
158
Q

How is cellulitis investigated?

A
  • Rule out DVT
  • Mark borders
  • Swab if exudative
  • Blood cultures
159
Q

Treatment for cellulitis?

A
  • Flucloxacillin

- Sever: IV BenPen and Flucloxacillin

160
Q

What dangerous condition should be a differential of cellulitis?

A

-Necrotising fasciitis

161
Q

What red flag feature points towards nec. fasciitis?

A
  • Severe pain out of proportion with the affected area

- Extremely unwell pt

162
Q

What is nec. fasciitis?

A

-Inflammation of the fascia of muscles or other organse and results in rapid destruction of overlying tissues

163
Q

Features of nec. fasciitis?

A
  • Acute onset
  • Painful erythematous lesion
  • Extremely tender over infected tissue
  • Bubble wrap (subcut emphysema)
  • Systemically unwell
164
Q

Management of nce. fasciitis?

A
  • ABCDE
  • surgeons for surgical debridement
  • Broad spec IV abx (clindamycin)
165
Q

What are the main einfective causes of jaundice in the UK?

A
  • Hep B
  • Hep C
  • Ascending cholangitis
166
Q

What are features or erythema multiforme?

A
  • Hypersensitivity reaction commonly triggered by infection
  • Target lesions seen on bank of hnads and feet and then spread to torso
  • Upper limbs > lower limbs
167
Q

Causes of erythema multiforme?

A
  • Viruses
  • Idiopathic
  • Bacterial ie mycoplasma, strep
  • Drugs: penicillin, carbamazepine, allopurinol
  • Connective tissue disease: SLE
  • Sarcoidosis
  • malignancy
168
Q

What are the features of mycoplasma pneumonia ?

A
  • Prolonged and gradual onset
  • Flu like prodrome and dry cough
  • Bilarteral consolidation on x ray
169
Q

What are some complications of mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A
  • Haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia
  • Erythemia multiforme
  • Meningoencephalitis, GBS
  • Painful vesicles on tympanic membrane
  • Pericarditis
  • hepatitis
  • acute glomerulonephritis
170
Q

How is mycoplasma pneumonia treated?

A

-erythromycin/clarithromycin

171
Q

Which vaccines are live attenuated?

A

-BCG
-MMR
-Oral polio
-Yellow fever
-Oral typhoid
(AVOID if on immunosuppressants)

172
Q

Which infective organism is most common cause of chronic wound infections?

A

-Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Phase 3B (14 decks)

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