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Pathology > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three outcomes of an organism entering the body?

A

Entry, cleared and NO INFECTION.

Entry, multiply without tissue damage get INFECTION.

Entry, multiply, tissue damage, get INFECTIOUS DISEASE.

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2
Q

What is infectivity?

A

Ability of an infectious agent to multiply.

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3
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

Ability of an infectious agent to cause disease.

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4
Q

Compare pathogenicity to infectivity.

A

Pathogenicity-Can it cause disease?

Infectivity-Can it multiply?

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5
Q

What are the steps of infection?

A
  1. Enter the body. Can do so through lot’s of different ways, but you have to bypass the body’s natural barriers.
  2. Multiply locally.
  3. Spread-along the path of least resistance such as along tissue planes, lymphatics, blood.
  4. Set up focus of infection at distant site.
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6
Q

Acute infectious state

A

Short term infection with symptoms. Days to weeks.

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7
Q

Chronic infectious states.

A

Long-term active infection with symptoms. Weeks to years.

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8
Q

Subclinical infectious states.

A

Infection detectable by tests only.

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9
Q

Latent infectious state

A

No active growth or organisms, but can reactivate (TB, chickenpox, HIV)

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10
Q

Carrier

A

Active growth of organisms with or without symptoms.

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11
Q

What is a culture and what is it used for?

A

Isolation of the pathogen. Bacterial infections.

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12
Q

How does serology work and what type of infections is it used for?

A

Detecting pathogen specific antibodies in the serum. Bacterial, viral and fungal.

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13
Q

What are Nucleic-acid based tests and what are they used for?

A

Molecular diagnostics. PCR, transcription mediated amplification, nucleic acid hybridization, etc. Viral and fungal.

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14
Q

Gross inspection vs. Microscopic inspection

A

Both are observation of organisms/pathologic changes in tissue or other clinical samples.

Gross-resected or autopsy organs.
Microscopic-biopsy or fluids.

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15
Q

What is H&E Staining?

A

Direct observation of agents or products in hematoxylin and eosin staining. Acid vs. bases.

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16
Q

What does Gram stain identify?

A

Most bacteria, some yeast

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17
Q

What does acid-fast stain?

A

Mycobacteria and nocardia.

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18
Q

What does silver stain?

A

Fungi, legionella and pneumocystis.

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19
Q

What does Mucicarmine stain?

A

Cryptococci.

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20
Q

What does giemsa stain?

A

Campylobacteria, helicobacter, leishmaniae, malaria.

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21
Q

What are specific antibody probes.

A

Raise an antibody against the target. Becomes a colored tag. Used against all classes and common in cancers.

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22
Q

What do special stains do?

A

Identify organisms on the basis of particular characteristics of their cell wall or coat.

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23
Q

How does host response induce damage?

A

Immune mechanisms of host result in tissue damage. Our immune response is responsible for most of our symptoms.

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24
Q

What are the mechanisms of damage of enzymes?

A

Tissue destruction, vascular damage, ischemic injury.

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25
Q

What type of inflammation doe lymphomononuclear and granulomatous fall under?

A

Chronic.

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26
Q

What causes the cytopathic/proliferative tissue response?

A

Virus.

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27
Q

What causes necrosis predominant?

A

WARTS. Clostridium perfringes.

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28
Q

What is cytopathic/cytoproliferative inflammatory response characterized by?

A

Cell necrosis and/or cellular proliferation. Inflammatory cells are sparse.

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29
Q

Viral inclusions

A

Aggregation of viral material

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30
Q

Multinucleated cells

A

Fusion of host cells

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31
Q

What is infective endocarditis?

A

A serious infection of the heart valves and endocardium caused by bacteria.

(Prescribe prophylatic antibiotics to patients with valve problems.)

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32
Q

What are vegetations?

A

Globs of material formed by infective endocarditis. Composed of organisms and bits of clot that sit on the heart valve and destroy the underlying cardiac tissues.

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33
Q

What is the characteristic injury type of infective endocarditis.

A

Acute inflammation, evolving into chronic with eventual scarring.

34
Q

Describe community acquired acute pneumonias.

A

Usually bacterial. Exudate (Neutrophililic inflammaiton). Lung consolidation seen radiographically and histologically. Clinically presents with high fevers, elevated WBC, difficulty breathing and copious sputum.

35
Q

Describe Atypical Pneumonias

A

Moderate sputum, moderate or mild elevation of WBC. No exudates. Inflammation is interstitial and mononuclear. Can get additional bacterial infection. “Walking Pneumonia”

36
Q

What is the characteristic injury types of Acute pneumonias?

A

Suppurative inflammation, evolving into chronic.

37
Q

What causes atypical pneumonias?

A

Viral and mycoplasmal.

38
Q

What is the characteristic injury type of atypical pneumonias?

A

Chronic inflammation, occasionally cytopathic.

39
Q

What type of injury is associated with Chronic Fungal Pneumonia?

A

Granulomatous inflammation with or without some suppurative inflammation.

40
Q

What is the most important sign of TB?

A

Granulomatous inflammation.

41
Q

Who is affected by primary TB?

A

A newly exposed patient. First time getting it.

42
Q

What is the classic lesions of primary TB?

A

Ghon complex. Mad up of Parenchymal lesion and hilar lymph node lesions.

43
Q

Who gets secondary TB?

A

Previously sensitized host. It is a reactivation or reinfection.

44
Q

What type of lesions are found in secondary TB?

A

Cavitary lesions. Mostly in apices of lung. Less involvement of hilar lymph nodes.

45
Q

What is Miliary TB?

A

Bacilli disseminate throughout the lymphatic and arterial system. Hundreds of tiny granulomas. Can spread systematiccaly especially in the liver, bone marrow and spleen.

46
Q

What is verruca vulgaris?

A

Warts.

47
Q

What is the causative agent of verruca vulgaris?

A

HPV Human papilloma virus.

48
Q

What type of reaction does verruca vulgaris cause?

A

Cytopathic and cytoproliferative

49
Q

What is the causative agent of molluscum contagiosum? What type of reaction does it cause?

A

Molluscum Contagiousum virus (Poxvirus)

Cytopathic.

50
Q

What is impetigo?

A

A superficial bacterial infection. Blisters burst and form honey-colored crusts around the nose and mouth.

51
Q

What causes impetigo?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes or staph aureus.

52
Q

What type of reaction is impetigo?

A

Acute.

53
Q

What are superficial fungal infections?

A

Caused by dermatophytes. Confined to the stratum corneum or the very top layer of skin.

54
Q

What type of reactions are superficial fungal infections?

A

Acute, some chronic.

55
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges.

56
Q

What type of reaction is acute bacterial meningitis?

A

Acute inflammation. Neutrophils! Pus!

57
Q

What does aspetic mean when referring to aseptic meningitis?

A

A VIRAL infection. Aseptic refers to the fact that a causative agent that can’t be cultured. Usually enteroviruses and arboviruses.

58
Q

What type of reaction is viral meningitis?

A

Chronic inflammation. Lymphocytes and macrophages.

59
Q

What are the 3 Ms of Herpes?

A

Multinucleation
Nuclear Molding
Margination of Nuclear chromatin

60
Q

What causes Herpes and what is the injury type?

A

Herpes simplex virus 1 & 2.

Cytopathic

61
Q

What is oral candidiasis?

A

Thrush. Superficial, curdy, gray-white inflammatory membrane that is composed of fungal elements in a fibrinopurulent exudate. (Neutrophils and amorphous debris)

62
Q

What would a biopsy of Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease show?

A

Vesicle formation, mononuclear inflammation, individual necrotic cells.

63
Q

What type of a reaction is Hand Foot and Mouth disease?

A

Cytopathic/chronic caused by coxsackie A16 or Enterovirus 71

64
Q

What are the oral manifestations of scarlet fever?

A

Raspberry tongue (Fiery red with prominant papillae) and strawberry tongue (White coated with hyperemic papillae).

65
Q

What are the oral manifestations of measles?

A

Koplik spots. Ulcerations of buccal mucosa appear as white spots in the oral cavity.

66
Q

What are the oral manifestations of infectious mononucleosis or Epstein Barr Virus?

A

Acute pharyngitis and tonsillitis that may cause coating with white-grey membrane. Enlargement of lymphnodes in neck. Palatal petechiae.

67
Q

What are the oral manifestations of diptheria?

A

Acute inflammation. Dirty white fibrinosuppurative, tough inflammatory membrane over tonsils and posterior pharynx. It is a pseudomembrane. NEVER PICK IT OFF. Can obstruct or release virus into airways.

68
Q

What is a primary immunodeficiency?

A

Congenital defect in immune system.

69
Q

What is acquired immunodeficiency?

A

HIV, transplant patients on immunosuppressive therapy, cancer patients, pregnant, elderly, etc.

70
Q

What is HIC pathogenicity based on?

A

Suppression of cellular immunity as a result of the loss of CD4+ T helper lymphocytes.

71
Q

How can HIV primary infection be detected?

A

May be subclinical. But can manifest as acute retroviral syndrome including conjunctivitis, pharyngitis, rash, etc.

72
Q

What is HIV latency?

A

The primary infection is followed by a long period of clinical latency. On average 10 years. Carrier is clinically normal, but infectious. Virus is in CD4+ T lymphocyes, macrophages and langerhans cells in the skin.

73
Q

What is the HIV Lymphadenopathic stage?

A

Drop in CD4+ T Lymphocytes. Rise in virus count in peripheral blood. Opportunistic infections begin to set in.

74
Q

What is the CD4+ Count thta indicates severe immunosuppression and AIDS?

A

Below 200/mm3

75
Q

What are the 3 most important AIDS defining conditions?

A
  1. P. carinni pneumonia
  2. Esophageal candidiasis
  3. Kaposi’s sarcoma.
76
Q

What is a Hairy Leukoplakia?

A

Due to an EBV infection, but associated with AIDS.

Hyperkeratosis with fingerlike or hair-like extensions of keratin.

Many of the superficial keratinocytes show cytoplasmic clearing with perinuclear beading.

Candida is often found on the surface of the specimen.

77
Q

What is a Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

HIV related malignancy. Associated with Human Herpesvirus-8.

Proliferation of slit-like vessels and spindle cells.

78
Q

What are 3 things that cause pneumonia in an immunocomprimised host?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci
Aspergillus sp. (soil fungus)
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAI)

79
Q

In AIDS patients, what type of inflammatory response do the mycobacterial infections elicit?

A

Diffuse with macrophages that are packed with the organisms. Acid-fast organisms.

(Granulomas are not the norm)

80
Q

What is toxoplasma gondii?

A

Ingestion of cysts or oocytes. It is transplacental. Manifests in the CNS. Abcesses.

81
Q

What is cryptococcus?

A

Fungal infection of meninges and CSF. Found in immunocompromised patients.

Pathology (6 decks)

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