Infectious disease 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what diseases does varicella zoster cause?

A

chicken pox = varicella zoster

shingles = herpes zoster

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2
Q

what are the symptoms of chickenpox?

A
  • flu-like prodrome followed by a vesicular rash

- not contagious after lesions scab

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3
Q

what is the management of chicken pox?

A

calamine lotions

aciclovir if in adults, immunocompromised or pregnant

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4
Q

what is shingles and what are the symptoms?

A

shingles in zoster reactivation due to decreased immunity/stress

painful vesicular rash in dermatomal distribution

  • thoracic and ophthalmic most common
  • may be multi-dermatomal - disseminated in the immunocompromised

post-herpetic neuralgia - severe dermatomal pain
Ramsay Hunt - ear zoster, facial palsy, decreased taste, decreased hearing

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5
Q

how do you manage shingles?

A

aciclovir PO/IV
or
famciclovir or valaciclovir

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6
Q

what diseases does EBV cause ?

A
glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis 
Burkitt's Lymphoma
PTLD
oral hairy leukoplakia 
primary brain lymphoma 
nasopharyngeal cancer
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7
Q

what causes infectious mononucleosis?

A

Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) (EBV, also known as human herpesvirus 4, HHV-4) in 90% of cases. Less frequent causes include cytomegalovirus and HHV-6. It is most common in adolescents and young adults.

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8
Q

what are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis?

A

classic triad of

  • pyrexia
  • sore throat
  • lymphadenopathy

*symptoms usually resolve after 2-4 weeks

other features include
- malaise, anorexia, headache
- palatal petechiae
- splenomegaly - occurs in around 50% of patients and may rarely predispose to splenic rupture
- hepatitis, transient rise in ALT
- lymphocytosis: presence of 50% lymphocytes with at
least 10% atypical lymphocytes
- haemolytic anaemia secondary to cold agglutins (IgM)
- a maculopapular, pruritic rash develops in around 99% of patients who take ampicillin/amoxicillin whilst they have infectious mononucleosis

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9
Q

how do you diagnose glandular fever?

A

heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) - NICE guidelines suggest FBC and Monospot in the 2nd week of the illness to confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever.

you can also perform:

  • FBC
  • EBV specific antibodies
  • LFTs
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10
Q

how do you manage infective mononucleosis?

A
  • rest and fluids
  • avoid alcohol
  • simple analgesia for aches and pains
  • avoid sport of 8 weeks as increased risk of splenic rupture
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11
Q

what is Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm. There are two major forms:

  • endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible
  • sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. ileo-caecal) tumours are the most common form. More common in patients with HIV

he Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is strongly implicated in the development of the African form of Burkitt’s lymphoma and to a lesser extent the sporadic form.

macroscopy findings: starry sky appearance - lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumour cells

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12
Q

what patterns of disease does CMV have?

A

congental CMV infection (growth retardation, pinpoint petechial blueberry muffin skin lesions, microcephaly, sensorineural deafness, encephalitiis and hepatosplenomegaly)

CMV mononucleosis - infective mononucleosis like illness - may develop in mmunocopetent individuals

CMV retinitis - common in HIV patients with low CD4 count (<50), presents with visual impairment e.g. blurred vision - fundoscopy shows retinal haemorrhages and necrosis - often called pizza retina- IV ganciclovir is the treatment of choice

CMV encephalopathy - seenm in patients with HIV who had low CD4 count

CMV pneumonitis

CMV colitis

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13
Q

hepititis A

  • transmission?
  • incubation period?
A

hepatitis A is a RNA picornavirus
It only cause acute disease - no chronic disease

it is transmitted by the faecal oral route - more prevelant in enviroments with improper hygiene.

incubation period is 2-4 weeks

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14
Q

what are the clinical features of hepatitis A?

A
flu like prodrome 
fever 
malaise 
nausea and vomiting 
jaundice 
hepatomagaly 
RUQ pain 
clay coloured stools
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15
Q

what investigations would you perform for HEP A?

A

serum transaminases - raised
serum bilirubin - raised
blood urea - will be elevated in fulminant hepatitis
serum creatinine - will be elevated in fulminant hepatitis
IgM antibody - positive in active infection
IgG antibody - recovery/protective - will rise after IgM levels rise and stay elevated throughout the persons lifetime

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16
Q

how do you manage Hep A?

A

unvaccinated people with recent exposure to hep A (<2weeks) give Hep A vaccine or immune globulin

confirmed HEP A - supportive care and avoid alcohol

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17
Q

who should get be vaccinated against HEP a?

A
people travelling or going to reside in areas of high or intermediate prevelence, if aged >1 year
people with chronic liver disease 
patients with haemophilia 
men who have sex with me 
IV drug users 
individuals at occupational risk 
people infected with HIV
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18
Q

how is hep B spread?

A

infected bodily fluids

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19
Q

what kind of virus is hep B?

A

it is a DNA virus

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20
Q

what are the features of Hep B?

A

fever
jaundice
elevated liver transaminases

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21
Q

what are the complications of hep B infection?

A
chronic hepatitis - ground glass hepatocytes may be seen on light microscopy 
fulminant liver failure 
hepatocellular carcinoma
glomerulonephritis 
polyarteritis nodosa 
cryoglobulinaemia
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22
Q

what investigations should you perform for hep B?

A

bloods - LFTs, FBC, U&E

HBsAG - Hep B surface antigen - indicates active infection - will be detected around 4 weeks after exposure to virus and usually become undetectable after 4-6 months. If persistence >6 months it implies chronic HBV infection.

Hep B surface antigen antibody - IgG - indicates past infection and in most patients provides life long immunity - also detectable in those with hep B vaccination

Hep B core antigen antibody - IgG and IgM - IgM anti-HBc appears within weeks of acute infection and remains detectable for 4-8 months. During the window period (several weeks or months) after the disappearance of HBsAg and before appearance of antibody to hep B surface antigen, detection of IgM anti HBc may be the only way to make the diagnosis of acute hep b infection. however some patients who have a reactiviation of chronic hep b may have positive IgM antiHBc so it is not an absolutely reliable marker for acute infection. In the chronic infection IgG anti HBc will be detactable.

Hep B e antigen - viral protein found in serum in the early part of acute hep B virus infection - it usally disappears at or soon after the peak in ALT levels. Its presence >3 months after onset of ilness indicates high lkelihood of chronic infection.
If HBsAg plus HBeAg = high infectivity with high level of viral activity

Hep B e antigen antibody - if positive good indicator that the virus has be cleared

if immunised they will be antiHBs positive and all others will be negative (anti- HBc will be negative)

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23
Q

how do you manage Hep B?

A

acute - supportive care. If severe or if there is acute lover failure - antiviral therapy (entecavir) and assess for liver transplant

chronic - antiviral therapy (entecavir or pegylated interferon alpha - not used as often anymore)

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24
Q

who is given the hep B vaccination?

A

children born in the uk are now vaccinated as part of routine vaccination
at risk groups shoul be vaccinated

25
Q

what is the hep B vaccine?

A

contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminum hydroide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology

26
Q

what are the risk factors for adults failing to respond to vaccine?

A
over 40 years 
obesity 
smoking 
alcohol excess
immunosupression
27
Q

what kind of virus is hepatitis C and what is the incubation period?

A

hepatits c is a flavicirus
incubation period is 6-9 weeks

it is mainly spread via blood

***NO VACCCINE FOR HEP C

28
Q

what are the features of hep c?

A

a transient rise in serum aminotransferases - jaundice
fatigue
arthralgia

29
Q

what are the risk factors for hep C

A
unsafe medical practice 
IV or intranasal drug use 
blood transfusion or organ transplant 
heavy alcohol use 
HIV
30
Q

what investigations would you perform for hep C?

A

hep c virus (HCV) antibody enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
hep c virus RNA PCR
serum aminotransferases

31
Q

what are the outcomes of hep C infection?

A

around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after acute infection
the majorty will develop chronic infection (55-85%)
and 20-30% will go on to develop cirrhosis with in 20 years
there is and increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

32
Q

how is chronic hep c defined?

A

the persistence of HEP C RNA in the blood for more that 6 months

33
Q

what are the complications of chonic hepatitis c?

A
rheumatological problems: arthralgia, arthritis 
eye problems - sjogren's syndrome 
cirrhosis 
hepatocellular cancer 
cryoglobulinaemia - typically type II
porphyria cutanea tarda 
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
34
Q

how is hep c managed?

A

recent infection - initiate antiviral therapy

chronic infection

  • treatment should depend on the viral genotype - this should be tested prior to treatment
  • currently a combination of protease inhibitors (e.g. daclatasvir plus sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir plus simeprevir) with or without ribavirin are used
35
Q

what is hepatitis D?

A

it is a single stranded RNA virus
It is an incomplete RNA virus that requires hepatitis B surface antigen to complete its replication and transmission cycle

36
Q

what are the different types of hep D infection?

A

co-infection - when hep B and D infection at the same time
superinfection - patient has hep B and the subsequently develops hep D infection - superinfection is associated with a high risk of fulminant hepatitis, chronic hepatitis an cirrhosis

37
Q

how is hep D diagnosed?

A

HDV IgM and IgG = active infection (IgG is not protective)

HDV RNA PCR

38
Q

what doe IgG and IgM mean in hep A and E?

A
IgM = active infection 
IgG = recovery/protective
39
Q
hepatitis E
what kind of virus?
incubation period?
pregnancy?
acute/chronic?
vaccine?
A

RNA hepevirus
spread by the faecal-oral route
incubation period 3-8 weeks
common in central and SE asia, north and west africa and in mexico
carries significant mortality during pregnancy
does not cause a chronic disease and does not increase risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
currently no vaccination

40
Q

what are the different intra-abdominal infections that can occur?

A
acute diverticulitis 
cholecystitis (with secondary infection)
ascending cholangitis 
appendicitis 
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis 
intra-abdominal abscess
41
Q

what are the common causes of intra-abdominal infections?

A
anaerobes - bacteroids and clostridium 
E.coli 
Klebsiella 
Enterococcus 
streptococcus
42
Q

what antibiotics can be used for intra-abdominal infections?

A

co-amoxiclav - provides good gram positive, negative and anaerobic cover, does not cover pseudomonas or atypical bacteria

Quinolones (ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin) - reasonable gram postive and negative and also cover atypical bacteria however the do not cover anaerobes so are usually paired with metronidazole when treating abdo infections

Metronidazole - excellent for anaerobic bacteria but does not provide any cover against aerobic bacteria

Gentamicin - very good gram negative cover with some gram positive cover particularly against staph.

Vancomycin - very good gram positive cover including MRSA - it is often combined with gentamicin to cover gram negative and metronidazole to cover anaerobes

cephalosporins - broad spectrum against gram positive and gram negative but not effective against anaerobes - they are often avoided due to the risk of developing c.diff infection

Tazocin and meropenem - piperacillin/Tazobactam (tazocin) and meropenem are heavy hitting antibiotics that cover gram positive, gram negative and anaerobic bacteria - usually reserved for patients who are very unwell and are not responding to other antibiotics

43
Q

who does spontaneous bacterial peritonitis usually occur in?

A

patients with liver failure

44
Q

what different types of plasmodium cause malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae

45
Q

what causes the most severe form of malaria??

A

plasmodium falciparum - it is also the most common type of malaria it accounts for 75% of cases

46
Q

what can be protective against malaria?

A

sickle cell trait
G6PD deficiency
HLA- B53
absence of duffy antigens

47
Q

which plasmodium can lie dormant in the liver for several years?

A

p. vivax and p. ovale

48
Q

what is the life cycle of malaria?

A

when a mosquito bites human the sporozoites are injected into the human by the mosquito they the travel to the liver where they can lie dormant as hypnozoites for several years if they are p.vivax or p. ovale.

They mature in the liver into merozoites which enter and infect red blood cells. In red blood cells, the merozoites reproduce over different time periods depending on the species. After they reproduce the red blood cells rupture releasing more merozoites into the blood causing haemolytic anaemia.

This is why people with malaria have high fever spikes, every time the blood cells rupture they get spike - may be 48 hours or 72 hours depending on the species.

49
Q

what are the features of severe malaria?

A
schizonts on a blood film 
parasitaemia >2%
hypoglycaema 
acidosis 
temp >39
severe anaemia
50
Q

what are the complications of malaria?

A
cerebral malaria - seizures and coma 
acute renal failure - blackwater fever, secondary to intravascular haemolysis
acute respiratory distress syndrome 
hypoglycaemia 
DIC
51
Q

how does malaria present?

A
non-specific symptoms - fever, sweats and rigours 
malaise 
myalgia 
headache 
vomiting 

signs

  • pallor due to anaemia
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • jaundice as bilirubin is released during the rupture of RBCs
52
Q

how is malaria diagnosed?

A

Giemsa-stained thick and thin blood stains - thick films are more sensitive for detect parasites where as thin films permit species identification and parasitameia - 3 samples should be sent over 3 consecutive days to exclude malaria due to the cycle of malaria being released into the blood from the blood cells

rapid diagnostic tests 
FBC
clotting profile 
U&amp;Es
LFTs 
blood glucose
53
Q

what is the most common cause of non-falciparum malaria?

A

plasmodium vivax

54
Q

which form of malaria is associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A

plasmodium malariae

55
Q

which malaria may relapse following treatment?

A

ovale and vivax have a hypnozoite stage where they can stay dormant in the liver for months/years so therefore may relapse following treatment

56
Q

how do you manage plasmodoium falciparum - uncomplicated disease?

A

if sensitive to chloroquine and non pregnant
- chloroquine or hydroxychloroquine

if chloroquine-resistant
- ACTs - artemisinin-based combination therapies (artemether with lumefantrine (riamet))

57
Q

how do you manage severe plasmodium falciparum ?

A

parenteral antimalarial regimen
- artesunate
other options include artemether or quinine

supportive care and admission to intensive care

if parasite count is greater than 10% the exchange transfusion should be considered

58
Q

how do you manage plasmodium ovale, vivax, malariae or knowlesi ?

A

either an ACT or chloroquine

if pregnant in first trimester and chloroquine resistant then treat with quinine

59
Q

what antimalarial medications can be given to prevent infections?

A

proguanil and atovaquone (malarone) - taken daily 2 days before, during and 1 week after being in endemic area, most expensive - around £1 per tablet, best side effect profile

Mefloquine - taken once weekly 2 weeks before, during and 4 weeks being in enemic area - can cause bad dreams and rarely psychotic disorders and seizures

Doxycycline - taken daily 2 days before, during and 4 weeks after being in endemic area - borad spectrum antibiotic so causes side effects like diarrhoea and thrush, also makes patients more sensitive to the sun causing a rash and sunburn.