Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Live vaccines vs inactivated vaccines (list)

A

Live/ attenuated:
Live influenza vaccine
MMR
oral polio (not used in US)
Rotavirus
Varicella virus
Herpes zoster

Inactivated:
DTAP
IPV
HEP B
HEP A
HPV
INFLUENZA
LYME
RABIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Live vaccine rules:

A

Do not administer to immunocompromsied pt

Do not give with febrile illness

Do not administer if pt pregnant

Can give two live vaccines on the same day OR spaces 4 weeks apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Live influenza vaccine

A

Flumist

Contraindicated: egg allergy, asthma, pregnancy, immune compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MMR vaccine contraindicated

A
  • live vaccine

Contraindicated: neomycin allergy, pregnancy, febrile illness, immune compromised
Egg allergy ok.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MMRV vaccine contraindicated

A

Same contraindications as MMR but more likely to cause febrile seizures! Educate parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oral polio vaccine

A

Not used in the United States
Rare risk of vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis in patient of exposed family members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Varicella vaccine contraindications

A

Live vaccine

Contraindicated: neomycin allergy, febrile illness, immune compromised, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Inactivated vaccine rules:

A

May be administered with other vaccines.

Contraindications: anaphylactic allergies to vaccine

  • may give antipyritics to patients who have had febrile seizures in the past
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many doses of HPV vacccine?

A

Two doses if started age 14 or younger
Three doses if started age 15 or older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inactivated influenza vaccine reacts with:

A

Immunosuppressants
Theophylline
Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Start flu vaccine

A

Patients 6 months and older. Patients younger than 9 get two doses the first year.

Flumist is only for pts 2 years and older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 elements of antibiotic stewardship

A

Commitment
Action for policy and practice
Tracking and reporting
Education and expertise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

First line therapy for AOM

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

First line therapy for strep throat

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

First line therapy for infected bites (including human)

A

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cephalosporins primarily used for

A

Skin and soft tissue infections- first generation. Ex cephalexin keflex

Or UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Skin infections prescribe:

A

Cephalosporins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fluoroquinolones black box warning for:

A

Tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fluroquinolone uses:

A

Ciprofloxacin
Not first line anymore because of resistance and ADRs

  • second line for complicated UTI, pyelonephritis, pneumonia
20
Q

Get EKG before prescribing

A

Moxifloxacin

21
Q

Clindamycin black box warning for:

A

Severe colitis

22
Q

Clindamycin used for

A

Dental infections

Infections in pcn allergic pts

First line for MRSA in some areas

  • first line therapy for pregnant women and children , otherwise second line therapy
23
Q

___________ PlayStation may cause myopathy

A

Macrolides (azithromycin, erythromycin)

24
Q

___________ can cause prolonged QT interval

A

Azithromycin

25
Q

Drug of choice for CAP

A

Azithromycin

26
Q

Tetracycline and doxycycline do not prescribe to:

A

Pregnant women
Children less than 8

27
Q

_________ used to treat P acnes

A

Tetracycline and minocycline

28
Q

Vanco used for:

A

Severe gram positive infections (such as MRSA)
Give IV

29
Q

______ causes red man syndrome if infused too fast

30
Q

TB treatment:

A

INH plus ……

31
Q

Black box warning for Hep C antivirals, first test for:

A

HPV infection, can cause reactivation

32
Q

All azoles have __________ as an ADR

A

Hepatotoxicity

33
Q

Metronidazole

A

Treats both parasitical and bacterial infections.

Used for BV

34
Q

Severe HIV/AIDS CD4 cells:

A

Less than 200 indicates severe

35
Q

Post HIV exposure prophylaxis :

A

Effective if exposure occurred less than 72 hours earlier.

Tenofovir + emtricitabibe + raltegravir

36
Q

Pre exposure HIV prophylaxis

A

For patients at high risk of HIV

Two drug combo: Tenofovir + emtricitabine

37
Q

ART failure:

A

Defined as failure to achieve or maintain suppression of viral replication to less than 50 copies

38
Q

Diagnosing TB

A

PPD or Quantiferon-TB serum test

39
Q

Treatment for TB:

A

MUST be multi drug

Initiation phase: first 2 months
Continuation phase: 4 months
* 6 month regimen

40
Q

Treating TB pregnancy

A

INH + RIF + EMB
(4th drug if pt is HIV positive)

41
Q

Pediatric treatment for TB

42
Q

Monitoring during TB treatment

A

Sputum cultures monthly until negative
Chest X-ray at completion to document baseline post TB X-ray

Monitor liver enzymes cbc platelets
Monitor for hepatitis monthly if in INH
Monitor for peripheral neuropathy on INH

43
Q

Prevention of TB

A

Asymptomatic may have positive TB test
INH alone for 6-9 months
Monthly monitoring

44
Q

Length of treatment for UTI

A

3 days

  • longer if child or fever/chills, pregnancy
45
Q

First line treatment for UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin or bactrim