Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

[Pediatric Board Review] > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Top 3 causes of common cold?

A

Rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Top 3 causes of nasopharyngitis?

A

Adenovirus, enterovirus, influenza

Also C. diphtheria, H. flu, N.meningititis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Top 3 causes of tonsillopharyngitis

A

GAS, Group C and G strept, H flu
Adenoviruses, Enteroviruses

20% bacterial, 80% viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute sore throat, N/V/abd pain, HA

Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

A

GAS pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for GAS tonsillopharyngitis?

A

PCN V x 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Complications of GAS tonsillopharyngitis?

A

RF (10 days), AGN, peritonsillar abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

Adenoviruses

See with swimming pool exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Herpangina

A

Enteroviruses (coxsackie A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CBC finding in pertussis? WHat is the best test?

A

Absolute lymphocytosis

Dx: culture/PCR and single serum PT serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for pertussis

A

A macrolide ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Top 3 causes of AOM

A

S. pneumoniae (5% resistant to Amox), non-typeable H.flu (20% resistant to Amox), M.catarralis (almost all resistant to Amox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most frequent known cause of perinatally acquired viral infection?

A

CMV - 0.5-2.7% of births

Fetal infection in 50% of primary maternal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
HSM
Hyperbilirubinemia
Petechiae, purpura and thrombocytopenia
Microcephaly
Ocular defects
Cerebral calcifications
Hemolytic anemia
Interstitial PNA
Deafness
A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What congenital anomalies are associated with CMV?

A

CV, hypospadias, GI, musculoskeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CMV Dx

A
  1. Inclusion cells in urine
  2. Virus isolation - culture urine, throat and CSF
  3. PCR blood, CSF
  4. Test for IgM specific CMV antibody (frequent false positives)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is the highest risk of congenital rubella during pregnancy?

A

85% first 8 weeks
52% 9-12 weeks
16% 13-20 weeks
0% >20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Manifestations of congenital rubella?

A 
10-30% in utero death
50-85% IUGR
35% cataracts
35% retinopathy
80-90% deafness
30-40% CHD
5-20% MR, meningoencephalitis, bone radiolucencies, HSM, interstitial pneumonitis, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dx of congenital rubella?

A
  1. Cx for rubella virus via nasopharynx, urine and CSF
  2. IgM specific rubella antibody
  3. Persistent IgG rubella antibody
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Major risk factors for perinatal transmission of hepatitis B?

A
  • Presence of HBeAg (80-95%)
  • Asian (40-70%)
  • Acute hepatitis in 3rd trimester (60-70%)
  • High titer of HBsAg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • Vesicular rash at birth
  • LBW
  • chorioretinitis
  • brain damage
  • SGA
  • microcephaly
  • intracranial calcifications
  • microphtalmia
  • cataracts
A

Congenital HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two risk periods of VZ Infection?

A

Early pregnancy and at term (<5days before delivery or within 48 hours after delivery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

RIsk of HIV virus transmission from an infected mother in utero?

A

30-35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Red blood cell aplasia and possibly fetal hydrops and abortion

A

Parvovirus B19 infection

5-8% risk of abortion
No associated congenital malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cats, raw meat, travel, living in rural areas

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
``` MR Seizures Spasticity and palsy Severe impaired vision Hydrocephalus or microcephalus Deafness ```
Toxoplasmosis (only 10% normal)
26
Treatment for congenital toxoplasmosis?
Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine x ~ 1year
27
``` Hepatomegaly Skeletal abnormalities BWt < 2500 grams Bullous skin lesions Hyperbilirubinemia Pneumonia Splenomegaly Severe anemia, hydrops, edema Snuffles ```
Congenital syphilis
28
Treatment of congenital syphilis
PCN G x 10 days
29
Pastia's lines
Scarlet Fever
30
Circumoral pallor
Scarlet Fever
31
Post-auricular adenopathy
Rubella
32
Slapped cheeks, lace-like rash
``` Erythema Infectiosum (5th disease) Parvovirus B19 ```
33
Diarrhea + Daycare
``` Rotavirus Giardia Cryptosporidium Shigella Campylobacter Ecoli, enterohemorrhagic ```
34
Diarrhea + chicken
Nontyphiod salmonella Campylobacter Clostridium perfringens
35
Diarrhea + hamburger
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli (+/-HUS)
36
DIarrhea + pork
Yersinia
37
Diarrhea + rice
B.cereus
38
Diarrhea + shellfish or salad
Norovirus
39
Diarrhea + raw fruits/veggies
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli | Nontyphoid Salmonella
40
Diarrhea + unpasteurized milk
Campylobacter | Nontyphoid Salmonella
41
Diarrhea + Picnic/banquet
S.aureus B.cereus Clostridium perfringens
42
Fall-Winter diarrhea
Rotavirus | Norovirus
43
Summer diarrhea
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli Cryptosporidium Giardia
44
Hemoglobinopathy or asplenia + diarrhea
Nontyphoid Salmonella
45
Iron overload + diarrhea
Yersinia
46
HIV + diarrhea
Cryptosporidium | Nontyphoid Salmonella
47
Hiking + diarrhea
Giardia
48
Swimming + diarrhea
E.coli (enterohemorrhagic) | Cryptosporidium
49
Petting zoo + diarrhea
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli | Cryptosporidium
50
Animals + diarrhea
``` Cryptosporidium Campylobacter Yersinia Nontyphoid Salmonella Enterohemorrhagic E.coli ```
51
ABX + diarrhea
C. difficile
52
Voluminous diarrhea
Cholera
53
Chronic diarrhea + flatulence
Giardia
54
Prolonged diarrhea
Cryptosporidium
55
Fever/pulse dissociation
Typhoid fever
56
Diarrhea --> typhoid fever
Salmonella typhi
57
Diarrhea --> bacteremia, osteomyelitis or meningitis
Non-typhoid Salmonella | Yersinia
58
Diarrhea --> arthritis
Yersinia
59
Diarrhea --> HUS
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
60
Diarrhea --> Liver Abscess
Entamoeba histolytica
61
Diarrhea --> Seizures
Shigella
62
Diarrhea --> Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Campylobacter
63
Diarrhea --> Prominent cramping
Campylobacter Clostridium perfringens Clostridium difficile
64
Diarrhea --> Pseudoappendicitis
Yersinia
65
Diarrhea --> IBD presentation
Entamoeba histolytica
66
Diarrhea --> Pseudomembranous colitis
C. difficile
67
Rx Enterotoxigenic E.coli
Azithromycin Ceftriaxone Rifiximin Ciprofloxacin
68
Rx Vibrio cholerae
Azithromycin Erythromycin Doxycycline
69
Rx Giardia
``` Metronidazole Furazolidone Albendazole Ntazoxanide Tinidazole ``` Relapse rate >10%
70
Rx: Cryptosporidium
Nitazoxanide
71
Rx: Shigella
Azithromycin Ceftriaxone Ciprofloxacin
72
Rx: Salmonella typhi
Ceftriaxone Azithromycin Quinolones
73
Rx: Non-typhoid Salmonella
Treatment NOT indicated in uncomplicated cases
74
Rx: Campylobacter
Azithromycin | Erythromycin
75
Rx: Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
ABX theoretically harmful and may increase risk for HUS
76
Rx: Entamoeba histolytica
Metronidazole or tinidazole | Iodoquinol clears cysts from intestines

[Pediatric Board Review] (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions