Infectious Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What are key principles of antibiotic stewardship in pediatric practice?
A

Stewardship: Use narrowest-spectrum drug, avoid unnecessary antibiotics (e.g., viral infections), dose appropriately, reassess regularly

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2
Q
  1. What are common antibiotic side effects in pediatrics?
A

Side effects: Diarrhea (e.g., amoxicillin), rash (e.g., penicillin), nephrotoxicity (aminoglycosides), teeth staining (tetracyclines)

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3
Q
  1. What is MIS-C and how is it related to COVID-19?
A

MIS-C: Multisystem inflammatory syndrome in children post-COVID-19
- Features: Persistent fever, inflammation, shock, organ dysfunction

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4
Q
  1. What are the complications of untreated Kawasaki disease?
A

Complications: Coronary artery aneurysms, myocarditis, arrhythmias, MI, sudden death

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5
Q
  1. What is the treatment protocol for Kawasaki disease?
A

IVIG 2 g/kg single dose + high-dose aspirin (30–50 mg/kg/day)
- Low-dose aspirin continued 6–8 weeks

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6
Q
  1. What are the diagnostic features and treatment of MIS-C?
A

Diagnosis: Elevated CRP, ESR, D-dimer, ferritin; echo abnormalities
- Treatment: IVIG, steroids, anticoagulation

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7
Q
  1. What are the TORCH infections and their common features?
A

TORCH: Toxoplasmosis, Others (syphilis, VZV, parvovirus), Rubella, CMV, HSV
- Features: IUGR, hepatosplenomegaly, rash, microcephaly

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8
Q
  1. What is the approach to occupational HIV exposure in adolescents?
A

HIV occupational exposure (e.g., needlestick in adolescent trainee): Begin 3-drug antiretroviral PEP within 72 hours, continue for 28 days
- Baseline and follow-up HIV testing at 6 weeks, 3 and 6 months

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9
Q
  1. How is congenital syphilis diagnosed and treated?
A

Diagnosis: Serology (RPR/VDRL), dark field microscopy, PCR
- Treatment: IV penicillin G for 10 days

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10
Q
  1. What are the typical features of congenital syphilis?
A

Features: Snuffles, rash, hepatosplenomegaly, pseudoparalysis, anemia, saddle nose, Hutchinson teeth (late)

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11
Q
  1. What is the approach to an infant born to an HIV-positive mother?
A

Approach: Start zidovudine within 6 hours, test with PCR at 14–21 days, 1–2 months, and 4–6 months
- Breastfeeding depends on maternal viral load

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12
Q
  1. What are the manifestations of congenital CMV infection?
A

Congenital CMV: Sensorineural hearing loss, petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly, intracranial calcifications (periventricular)

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13
Q
  1. What are the features and risks of congenital Zika virus infection?
A

Congenital Zika: Microcephaly, intracranial calcifications, seizures, arthrogryposis, eye defects
- Caused by maternal infection in pregnancy

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14
Q
  1. What is the first-line treatment for acute bacterial sinusitis?
A

Treatment: Amoxicillin-clavulanate for 10–14 days

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15
Q
  1. What are the most common causes of otitis media in children?
A

Most common: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis

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16
Q
  1. What are the clinical features and complications of otitis media?
A

Features: Fever, ear pain, bulging tympanic membrane
- Complications: Hearing loss, mastoiditis, perforation, meningitis

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17
Q
  1. What is the treatment of acute otitis media in children?
A

First-line: Amoxicillin (80–90 mg/kg/day)
- Treat if <2 years or severe symptoms; observe if mild and >2 years

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18
Q
  1. What are the signs and management of scarlet fever?
A

Scarlet fever: Sandpaper rash, strawberry tongue, fever, exudative pharyngitis
- Treat with penicillin for 10 days

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19
Q
  1. What is the treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis in children?
A

Treatment: Oral penicillin V or amoxicillin for 10 days
- Alternatives: Cephalexin, azithromycin (if allergic)

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20
Q
  1. What is the role of penicillin in rheumatic fever prophylaxis?
A

Penicillin G benzathine every 3–4 weeks
- Duration depends on presence of carditis and valve disease

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21
Q
  1. What are the common causes and signs of sinusitis in children?
A

Causes: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis
- Signs: Nasal discharge >10 days, facial pain, fever, cough

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22
Q
  1. What are the common fungal infections in immunocompromised children?
A

Common: Candida, Aspergillus, Cryptococcus
- Present with persistent fever, pulmonary or CNS involvement

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23
Q
  1. What is the diagnosis and treatment of giardiasis in children?
A

Diagnosis: Stool microscopy or antigen test
- Treatment: Metronidazole or tinidazole

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24
Q
  1. What are the common intestinal parasites in children and their presentations?
A

Common parasites: Ascaris (obstruction), hookworm (anemia), Enterobius (perianal itch), Giardia (diarrhea)

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25
Q
  1. What are the key features of pediatric giardiasis?
A

Giardiasis: Chronic diarrhea, abdominal cramps, bloating, FTT, often from contaminated water

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26
Q
  1. What are the common causes and signs of viral gastroenteritis in children?
A

Causes: Rotavirus, norovirus, adenovirus, astrovirus
- Signs: Watery diarrhea, vomiting, fever, dehydration

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27
Q
  1. What are the clinical features and diagnosis of enteric (typhoid) fever in children?
A

Typhoid: Prolonged fever, abdominal pain, rose spots, hepatosplenomegaly, constipation or diarrhea

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28
Q
  1. What are the complications of typhoid fever?
A

Complications: Intestinal perforation, hemorrhage, encephalopathy, hepatitis, myocarditis

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29
Q
  1. What is the treatment of typhoid fever in pediatric patients?
A

Treatment: Azithromycin or ceftriaxone (based on resistance pattern)
- Ciprofloxacin used in older children/adults

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30
Q
  1. What are the common causes of acute bloody diarrhea in children?
A

Causes: Shigella, Salmonella, EHEC, Campylobacter, Entamoeba histolytica

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31
Q
  1. How is viral gastroenteritis managed in pediatric patients?
A

Management: Oral rehydration therapy (ORS), continued feeding, zinc supplementation
- Avoid antibiotics/antidiarrheals

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32
Q
  1. What are the complications of infectious mononucleosis?
A

Complications: Splenic rupture, airway obstruction, hepatitis, rash if given ampicillin

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33
Q
  1. What is the management of human and animal bite wounds in children?
A

Bite wounds: Wash thoroughly, tetanus prophylaxis, amoxicillin-clavulanate
- Assess for rabies exposure

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34
Q
  1. What are the risk factors and signs of infective endocarditis in children?
A

Risk: Congenital heart disease, indwelling catheters, prosthetic valves
- Signs: Fever, murmur, splenomegaly, petechiae, emboli

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35
Q
  1. What is the treatment of infective endocarditis in pediatrics?
A

Treatment: High-dose IV antibiotics for 4–6 weeks (e.g., vancomycin + gentamicin), surgery if complications

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36
Q
  1. What is Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI) and how is it treated in children?
A

C. difficile: Diarrhea after antibiotics
- Diagnosis: Stool toxin or PCR
- Treatment: Oral vancomycin or metronidazole (mild cases)

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37
Q
  1. What are the signs and management of neonatal herpes simplex virus infection?
A

Neonatal HSV: Localized (skin/eye/mouth), CNS (encephalitis), disseminated
- Treat with IV acyclovir 14–21 days

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38
Q
  1. How is parvovirus B19 infection diagnosed and what are its complications?
A

Parvovirus B19: Slapped cheek rash, arthropathy
- Complications: Aplastic crisis in hemolytic anemia, fetal hydrops

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39
Q
  1. How is shigellosis diagnosed and treated in children?
A

Shigellosis: High fever, bloody diarrhea, seizures (neurotoxin effect)
- Diagnosis: Stool culture
- Treat with azithromycin or ceftriaxone

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40
Q
  1. What are the signs of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection in immunocompetent vs immunocompromised children?
A

CMV: Mild or asymptomatic in healthy child
- Immunocompromised: Pneumonitis, colitis, retinitis
- Treat with ganciclovir

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41
Q
  1. What is the presentation and treatment of pediatric brucellosis?
A

Brucellosis: Fever, joint pain, hepatosplenomegaly, fatigue
- Treat with rifampicin + doxycycline or TMP-SMX (age-based)

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42
Q
  1. What is rotavirus and how can it be prevented?
A

Rotavirus: Leading cause of severe diarrhea in infants
- Prevent with live oral rotavirus vaccine (given at 6 & 10 weeks)

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43
Q
  1. What are the causes and signs of neonatal conjunctivitis?
A

Causes: Chemical (1st day), gonococcal (2–5 days), chlamydia (5–14 days), HSV
- Signs: Discharge, conjunctival swelling

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44
Q
  1. How is gonococcal conjunctivitis in neonates treated?
A

Treatment: IV or IM ceftriaxone + saline irrigation
- Prevent with prophylactic eye ointment at birth

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45
Q
  1. What are the classic features of pertussis (whooping cough)?
A

Pertussis: Catarrhal → paroxysmal cough with whoop → convalescence
- Post-tussive vomiting common

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46
Q
  1. What is the role of prophylaxis in immunosuppressed children (e.g., post-transplant)?
A

Prophylaxis: TMP-SMX (Pneumocystis), acyclovir (HSV), fluconazole (fungal), vaccines pre-transplant

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47
Q
  1. What are the signs and management of invasive candidiasis?
A

Candidiasis: Fever, sepsis, hepatosplenic abscess
- Treat with amphotericin B or fluconazole

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48
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs of serious bacterial infection in neonates?
A

Signs: Lethargy, poor feeding, temperature instability, apnea, irritability, hypotonia, bulging fontanelle

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49
Q
  1. What is the presentation of epiglottitis and its urgent management?
A

Epiglottitis: Sudden fever, drooling, tripod position, muffled voice
- Secure airway + IV ceftriaxone

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50
Q
  1. What is the management of suspected HSV encephalitis in children?
A

Management: IV acyclovir (10–20 mg/kg q8h), supportive care, MRI and CSF PCR for HSV

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51
Q
  1. What is Whipple disease in children and how does it present?
A

Whipple disease: Rare chronic infection (Tropheryma whipplei)
- Pediatric features: Chronic diarrhea, arthralgia, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, neurologic signs
- Diagnosis: PAS-positive macrophages in small intestine biopsy
- Treat with long-term antibiotics (ceftriaxone then TMP-SMX)

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52
Q
  1. What is the recommended treatment for pertussis in children?
A

Treatment: Azithromycin or clarithromycin (macrolides)
- Treat close contacts as well

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53
Q
  1. What is the link between EBV and pediatric malignancies?
A

EBV: Linked to Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)

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54
Q
  1. What are the features and transmission of Hepatitis A and E in children?
A

Hep A & E: Fecal-oral spread, usually self-limited hepatitis with jaundice, fever
- Hep E more severe in pregnancy

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55
Q
  1. What are the side effects of isoniazid and rifampicin?
A

INH: Hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy
- RIF: Hepatitis, orange secretions, drug interactions

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56
Q
  1. What is Lemierre’s syndrome and how does it present in adolescents?
A

Lemierre’s: Septic thrombophlebitis of internal jugular vein post-pharyngitis (usually Fusobacterium necrophorum)
- Features: Fever, neck pain, swelling, septic emboli to lungs
- Treat with IV antibiotics ± anticoagulation

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57
Q
  1. What is the presentation and treatment of tetanus in children?
A

Tetanus: Trismus, opisthotonus, spasms
- Treat with TIG + metronidazole + supportive care
- Prevent with DTaP vaccine

58
Q
  1. What are the clinical features of diphtheria and how is it treated?
A

Diphtheria: Gray pseudomembrane in throat, cervical LAD, myocarditis
- Treatment: Antitoxin + penicillin or erythromycin

59
Q
  1. What is hand-foot-and-mouth disease and its clinical features?
A

HFMD: Fever, painful oral ulcers, vesicles on hands/feet/buttocks
- Caused by coxsackievirus A16

60
Q
  1. What are the features of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)?
A

Fifth disease: Caused by parvovirus B19
- Slapped cheek rash followed by lacy body rash; may cause fetal hydrops in pregnancy

61
Q
  1. What are the key features of Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) infection?
A

Hib: Causes epiglottitis, meningitis, pneumonia, septic arthritis
- Preventable with conjugate vaccine

62
Q
  1. What are the signs and management of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection?
A

EBV: Fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, fatigue, hepatosplenomegaly
- Treat supportively; avoid contact sports

63
Q
  1. What is hyperinfection syndrome in strongyloidiasis?
A

Hyperinfection: Disseminated strongyloides in immunosuppressed (e.g., steroids, transplant)
- Causes sepsis, ARDS, high mortality
- Treat with ivermectin

64
Q
  1. What are Koplik spots and when do they appear?
A

Koplik spots: Bluish-white lesions on buccal mucosa, appear 1–2 days before rash

65
Q
  1. What is the approach to prolonged fever or fatigue post-COVID in children?
A

Post-COVID: Fatigue, headache, palpitations, joint pain, sleep issues lasting >4 weeks
- Management: Supportive, screen for MIS-C if red flags

66
Q
  1. What is strongyloidiasis and how does it present in children?
A

Strongyloidiasis: GI symptoms (abdominal pain, diarrhea), urticaria, eosinophilia
- Acquired from contaminated soil (larvae penetrate skin)

67
Q
  1. What is the difference between bacterial and atypical mycobacterial lymphadenitis?
A

Bacterial: Acute, tender, red, responsive to antibiotics
- Atypical: Subacute, non-tender, violaceous, surgical excision often needed

68
Q
  1. What are the signs of possible primary immunodeficiency in children?
A

Red flags: ≥8 ear infections/year, ≥2 pneumonias/year, poor wound healing, FTT, need for IV antibiotics, family history

69
Q
  1. What are the signs of disseminated BCG disease and its significance?
A

Signs: Generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, osteomyelitis post-BCG vaccine
- Suggests severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

70
Q
  1. How does cervical lymphadenitis present and what are its common causes?
A

Presentation: Unilateral tender neck swelling, fever
- Causes: Staph aureus, Strep pyogenes, atypical mycobacteria

71
Q
  1. What are the common pathogens causing viral meningitis in children?
A

Common pathogens: Enteroviruses (coxsackie, echovirus), HSV-2, mumps, arboviruses

72
Q
  1. What are the typical CSF findings in bacterial vs viral meningitis?
A

Bacterial: ↑WBC (neutrophils), ↓glucose, ↑protein, positive Gram stain
- Viral: ↑WBC (lymphocytes), normal glucose, mildly ↑protein

73
Q
  1. What are the complications of bacterial meningitis in children?
A

Complications: Hearing loss, hydrocephalus, cerebral abscess, seizures, developmental delay

74
Q
  1. What is the empirical antibiotic therapy for pediatric meningitis (1 month–5 years)?
A

Empiric therapy: Ceftriaxone + vancomycin
- Add dexamethasone if Hib suspected

75
Q
  1. How is bacterial meningitis diagnosed in children?
A

Diagnosis: Lumbar puncture—CSF analysis (WBC, glucose, protein), Gram stain, culture
- Blood cultures also important

76
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months?
A

Common cause: Group B Streptococcus, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes

77
Q
  1. What are the PEP options for influenza exposure in high-risk pediatric contacts?
A

Influenza PEP: Oseltamivir (3 mg/kg BID for 10 days) for high-risk exposed children <48 hours post-exposure
- Especially if immunocompromised, <5 yrs, or chronic conditions

78
Q
  1. What is post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis B in newborns?
A

Newborn: If mother HBsAg-positive → HBIG + HBV vaccine within 12 hours of birth

79
Q
  1. What is the post-exposure prophylaxis protocol for meningococcal exposure in pediatrics?
A

Meningococcal PEP: Rifampin (10 mg/kg q12h x 2 days), ciprofloxacin (age ≥1 month), or ceftriaxone IM (125 mg <15 yrs, 250 mg ≥15 yrs)
- Indicated for close contacts, household, daycare

80
Q
  1. What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis A in children?
A

Hepatitis A PEP: Give single dose of HAV vaccine within 2 weeks if child ≥1 year
- For <12 months or immunocompromised: Hepatitis A immunoglobulin (IG)

81
Q
  1. What is the PEP protocol for pertussis exposure in pediatric contacts?
A

Pertussis PEP: Give macrolide (azithromycin x 5 days) to all close contacts regardless of age/vaccine status
- Most effective if within 21 days of cough onset in index case

82
Q
  1. What is the rabies PEP protocol for partially vaccinated or unvaccinated children?
A

Rabies PEP: Immediate wound cleaning + 4-dose vaccine (days 0, 3, 7, 14)
- Plus RIG (rabies immunoglobulin) infiltrated at wound site if not previously vaccinated

83
Q
  1. What are the WHO classifications of pneumonia in children?
A

WHO: No pneumonia (cough/cold), pneumonia (fast breathing), severe pneumonia (chest indrawing), very severe (danger signs)

84
Q
  1. What is the first-line antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia in children over 3 months?
A

First-line: Amoxicillin
- If atypical suspected: Add azithromycin

85
Q
  1. What are danger signs in a child with pneumonia requiring urgent referral?
A

Danger signs: Inability to drink, convulsions, lethargy, stridor in calm child, severe malnutrition

86
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs of pneumonia in children?
A

Signs: Cough, fever, tachypnea, chest retractions, decreased breath sounds, crackles, hypoxia

87
Q
  1. What is the management of fast-breathing pneumonia per WHO guidelines?
A

Fast-breathing pneumonia: Oral amoxicillin for 5 days, follow-up in 2 days
- Ensure feeding and oxygen saturation

88
Q
  1. What are the criteria for toxic shock syndrome (TSS) in pediatrics?
A

TSS: Fever, hypotension, rash, multi-organ involvement (GI, renal, hepatic, CNS), desquamation later

89
Q
  1. What is the management of septic shock in children?
A

Management: Fluid bolus (10–20 mL/kg), broad-spectrum antibiotics, vasopressors (if fluid refractory), oxygen, ICU

90
Q
  1. What are the diagnostic criteria for pediatric sepsis and septic shock?
A

Sepsis: Suspected infection + systemic signs (tachycardia, fever, leukocytosis)
- Shock: Hypotension + perfusion failure despite fluids

91
Q
  1. What are the causes and signs of sepsis in older infants and children?
A

Causes: Bacterial (meningococcus, pneumococcus), viral, fungal, malaria
- Signs: Fever, tachycardia, altered sensorium, poor perfusion

92
Q
  1. What is the treatment of toxic shock syndrome in children?
A

Treatment: Fluids, clindamycin + vancomycin (± IVIG), ICU support

93
Q
  1. What are the common causes of fever without focus in infants under 3 months?
A

Common causes: Group B Streptococcus, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes, enteroviruses, HSV

94
Q
  1. What are the causes and approach to fever of unknown origin (FUO) in children?
A

FUO: >38.3°C for >8 days without diagnosis
- Causes: Infections (TB, EBV), autoimmune, malignancy, Kawasaki
- Workup: CBC, cultures, ESR, imaging

95
Q
  1. How is congenital toxoplasmosis diagnosed and treated?
A

Diagnosis: IgM + PCR from CSF/urine
- Treatment: Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin for 1 year

96
Q
  1. What is the empirical antibiotic therapy for neonatal sepsis?
A

Empirical therapy: Ampicillin + gentamicin or cefotaxime (avoid ceftriaxone in neonates)

97
Q
  1. What are the diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease?
A

Fever ≥5 days + 4 of: bilateral conjunctivitis, oral changes, rash, extremity changes, cervical lymphadenopathy

98
Q
  1. What are the diagnostic criteria for rheumatic fever?
A

Jones criteria: 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor + evidence of strep infection
- Major: Carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, rash, nodules

99
Q
  1. What is the approach to fever without source in infants 1–3 months?
A

Infants 1–3 months: Stratify by risk (Rochester/Boston criteria), consider labs, urine/csf studies; admit if toxic or <1 month

100
Q
  1. What is the approach to fever without source in neonates (0–28 days)?
A

Neonates: Full sepsis workup (CBC, CRP, blood/urine/csf cultures), hospital admission, IV antibiotics

101
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of sepsis in neonates?
A

Most common: Group B Streptococcus, followed by E. coli, Listeria

102
Q
  1. What is the management of pediatric patients exposed to rabies?
A

Rabies PEP: Immediate wound cleaning, rabies vaccine (days 0, 3, 7, 14), rabies immunoglobulin (category III exposure)

103
Q
  1. What is the treatment of uncomplicated and severe malaria in children?
A

Treatment: Uncomplicated: Artemisinin combination therapy (ACT)
- Severe: IV artesunate or quinine, supportive care

104
Q
  1. How is Zika virus diagnosed and managed in neonates?
A

Diagnosis: Zika PCR or IgM from serum/CSF, maternal travel history
- No specific treatment; supportive care and neurodevelopmental follow-up

105
Q
  1. What are the clinical features and management of leishmaniasis in children?
A

Leishmaniasis: Visceral form (kala-azar) with fever, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly
- Treat with amphotericin B or miltefosine

106
Q
  1. What is cat scratch disease and how is it managed?
A

Cat scratch: Bartonella henselae
- Local lymphadenopathy, mild fever
- Usually self-limited; treat severe cases with azithromycin

107
Q
  1. What is the approach to suspected malaria in a febrile child returning from an endemic area?
A

Approach: Check thick/thin smear or rapid diagnostic test
- Symptoms: Fever, chills, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia
- Always rule out malaria in febrile child from endemic area

108
Q
  1. What are the common signs and complications of severe pediatric malaria?
A

Severe malaria: Altered consciousness, seizures, severe anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, respiratory distress

109
Q
  1. What are the clinical features of tuberculosis in children?
A

TB: Chronic cough, weight loss, fever, night sweats, lymphadenopathy, hilar nodes on CXR

110
Q
  1. How is latent tuberculosis infection diagnosed in pediatrics?
A

Diagnosis: Tuberculin skin test (TST) or interferon gamma release assay (IGRA), no symptoms, normal CXR

111
Q
  1. What is the treatment of latent TB in children?
A

Latent TB: Isoniazid daily for 6–9 months
- Alternatively, rifampin for 4 months

112
Q
  1. What is the standard treatment for active TB in children?
A

Active TB: Isoniazid + rifampicin + pyrazinamide ± ethambutol for 2 months, then INH + RIF for 4 months

113
Q
  1. What is the difference between droplet, airborne, and contact precautions in pediatric infection control?
A

Droplet: >5 µm, mask needed (e.g., flu)
- Airborne: <5 µm, N95 + negative room (e.g., TB, measles)
- Contact: Gloves/gown (e.g., MRSA, RSV)

114
Q
  1. What infection control precautions are necessary for hospitalized children with infectious diseases?
A

Precautions: Hand hygiene, cohorting, PPE use, isolation for airborne (e.g., TB, measles), droplet (e.g., flu), contact (e.g., RSV)

115
Q
  1. What vaccines are live attenuated and given in routine pediatric schedule?
A

Live attenuated: MMR, varicella, oral polio (OPV), rotavirus, intranasal influenza, yellow fever (non-routine)

116
Q
  1. What are the causes of recurrent UTI in children?
A

Causes: Vesicoureteral reflux, constipation, neurogenic bladder, poor hygiene, dysfunctional voiding

117
Q
  1. What is the role of renal ultrasound and VCUG after pediatric UTI?
A

Renal US: Detects anomalies (hydronephrosis)
- VCUG: Identifies vesicoureteral reflux
- DMSA: Detects scarring

118
Q
  1. What are the signs and management of pyelonephritis in children?
A

Pyelonephritis: Fever, flank pain, vomiting, leukocytosis
- Treat with IV antibiotics (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime) then oral

119
Q
  1. What is the treatment of uncomplicated UTI in pediatric patients?
A

Uncomplicated UTI: Oral cephalexin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, or TMP-SMX for 7–10 days

120
Q
  1. What investigations are done after a febrile UTI in a young child?
A

Investigations: Renal US (all <2 years), VCUG if abnormal US or recurrent infections, DMSA for renal scarring

121
Q
  1. What are the contraindications to live vaccines in children?
A

Contraindications: Severe immunosuppression, pregnancy (for some), allergy to vaccine components

122
Q
  1. What are the components of the pentavalent vaccine used in infancy?
A

Pentavalent: DTP + Hib + Hepatitis B
- Given at 6, 10, 14 weeks

123
Q
  1. What is diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTaP) vaccine schedule in children?
A

DTaP: Given at 6, 10, 14 weeks; booster at 15–18 months and 4–6 years
- Part of EPI schedule

124
Q
  1. What are the challenges of vaccination in refugee or displaced pediatric populations?
A

Challenges: Incomplete vaccination, lack of records, cold chain issues, missed boosters
- Use catch-up schedule per WHO/EPI guidelines

125
Q
  1. What is the vaccine schedule for immunocompromised children?
A

Schedule: Inactivated vaccines given on time
- Live vaccines delayed or contraindicated depending on immune status

126
Q
  1. What live vaccines are contraindicated in immunocompromised children?
A

Contraindicated: MMR, varicella, oral polio, intranasal influenza (if severely immunocompromised)

127
Q
  1. What is the clinical presentation of measles?
A

Measles: Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, Koplik spots, followed by maculopapular rash spreading cephalocaudally

128
Q
  1. What are the common viral exanthems in children and their distinguishing features?
A

Exanthems: Measles (Koplik spots, 3 Cs), Rubella (mild, postauricular nodes), Roseola (high fever, then rash), Erythema infectiosum (slapped cheek)

129
Q
  1. What is the treatment of varicella in immunocompetent vs immunocompromised children?
A

Immunocompetent: Supportive ± acyclovir if early or >12 years
- Immunocompromised: IV acyclovir

130
Q
  1. How is rubella differentiated from measles?
A

Rubella: Milder rash, posterior auricular lymphadenopathy, shorter duration, no Koplik spots

131
Q
  1. What are the clinical features and diagnosis of roseola infantum?
A

Roseola: Sudden high fever for 3–5 days, followed by a pink maculopapular rash as fever resolves
- Caused by HHV-6

132
Q
  1. What is the role of rubella vaccination in pregnancy planning?
A

Women of childbearing age should be vaccinated before pregnancy (live vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy)

133
Q
  1. What is the presentation of varicella (chickenpox) in children?
A

Varicella: Fever, malaise, vesicular rash in various stages (macule → papule → vesicle → crust)
- Starts on trunk, spreads outward

134
Q
  1. What is the post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for varicella in susceptible children?
A

Varicella PEP: Give varicella vaccine within 3–5 days if ≥12 months and immunocompetent
- If immunocompromised or <1 year: Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) within 10 days

135
Q
  1. What is the clinical presentation of congenital rubella syndrome?
A

Rubella: Congenital cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss, PDA, blueberry muffin rash, IUGR

136
Q
  1. What is the PEP recommendation for measles exposure in children?
A

Measles PEP: MMR vaccine within 72 hours for eligible contacts
- Immunoglobulin within 6 days for immunocompromised, pregnant women, or infants <6 months

137
Q
  1. What are the signs and complications of mumps in children?
A

Mumps: Parotitis, fever, malaise
- Complications: Orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis, deafness

138
Q
  1. What are the adverse effects of MMR vaccine?
A

MMR: Fever, rash, febrile seizures (rare), transient thrombocytopenia, lymphadenopathy

139
Q
  1. What are the complications of measles infection?
A

Complications: Otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

140
Q
  1. What are complications of varicella infection?
A

Complications: Bacterial superinfection, pneumonia, cerebellitis, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia, congenital varicella