Infectious Flashcards

1
Q

Features of malabsorption

A

Diarrhea
Steatorrhea
Weight loss

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2
Q

Hib involved in

A

Acute epiglottitis
Acute exacerbation of COPD
Pneumonia

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3
Q

Diff between amoebesis and giardasis

A

A: long incubation period with bloody diarrhea
G: long incubation period with non bloody diarrhea and malabsorption features

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4
Q

Treatment of amoebesis and giardasis

A

Metronidazole or tinidazole for 7 days

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5
Q

Investigation for amoebesis

A

Stool microscopy (hot stool)

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6
Q

Investigation for amebic liver abcess

A

ultrasound (gold standard)
serology is positive in > 95%

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7
Q

Anchovy sauce

A

amebic liver abcess

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8
Q

Organism common for dog bite

A

Pasteurella multocida.

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9
Q

painless black aschar

A

Anthrax

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10
Q

Organism involved in acute epiglottitis

A

Hib

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11
Q

Bacillus anthracis is gram ____

A

gram positive rod

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12
Q

Woolsorters disease

A

Anthrax

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13
Q

tripartite protein toxin

A

bacillus anthracis

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14
Q

Cell wall synthesis inhibition

A

penicillin and cephalosporin

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15
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitor

A

Quinolones
Metronidazole
Sulphonamide
trimethoprim

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16
Q

RNa synthesis inhibitor

A

rifampicin

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17
Q

cardiac adverse effect of macrolide

A

prolongation of QT interval

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18
Q

Antiviral CI in asthmatics

A

Zanamivir (cause it caues bronchospasm)

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19
Q

first line in influenza (antiviral)

A

Oseltamivir
Alternate: Genamivir

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20
Q

Treatment for acute prostitis

A

Quinoles (ciprofloxacilin) first line
Trimethoprim

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21
Q

Treatment for impetigo

A

Topical fuscidic acid

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22
Q

Treatment for cellulitis and eryspelias

A

Flucloxacillin

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23
Q

Cellulitis near eye

A

co amoxiclav

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24
Q

when co amoxiclav cant be given

A

doxy + metro in case of human bite

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25
Q

Salmonella and shigellosis

A

Ciprofloxacilin

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26
Q

1st line for lower UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin
if eGFR < 45ml : pipmysellenium
2nd line: fosfomycin
and when eGFR <15ml/min : only fosfomycin

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27
Q

Treatment for chlamydia

A

Doxycyclin
And if pregnant: Azithromycin

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28
Q

Syphilis treatment

A

long acting benzthine penicillin

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29
Q

Bacterial vaginosis treatment

A

oral or topical metronidazole

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30
Q

SIDE EFFECT OF CHLORAMPHENICOL

A

APLSTIC ANEMIA

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31
Q

Side effect of clindamycin

A

c.defficile diarrhea

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32
Q

Side effect of tetracyclin

A

discolouration of teeth and photosensitivity

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33
Q

Antiviral containdicated in asthmatics

A

Genamivir

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34
Q

xray showing fungal ball cavity with crescent sign

A

Aspergilloma

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35
Q

treatment for aspergilloma

A

Oral steroids
2nd line: oral antifungal

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36
Q

Gardenella vaginalis is gram ____

A

gram positive coccobacilli

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37
Q

Microscopy showing clue cells

A

bacterial vaginosis

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38
Q

positive whiff test

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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39
Q

CI for BCG vaccine

A

previous BCG vaccination
a past history of tuberculosis
HIV
pregnancy
positive tuberculin test (Heaf or Mantoux)
Any immunosuppressive condition

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40
Q

patient usually fully conscious with no sensory disturbance
flaccid paralysis
diplopia
ataxia
bulbar palsy

A

Botulism

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41
Q

Unpasturized milk

A

brucellosis

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42
Q

Treatment for c.jejuni

A

clarithomycin

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43
Q

C.jejuni is gram ____

A

gram negative bacillus

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44
Q
A
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45
Q

Organism involved in chancroid

A

h.ducreye

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46
Q

Treatment for chancroid

A

Doxycyclin

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47
Q

Complication of chicken pox

A

Necrotizing fascitis

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48
Q

Chickenpox spreads via which route

A

respiratory

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49
Q

Initially macular then papular then vesicular (MPV)

A

CHICKEN POC RASH

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50
Q

Koplik spots is pathognomic of

A

Measles

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51
Q

most common complication of mumps

A

male : orchitis

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52
Q

hand foot mouth disease

A

coxsackie A16 virus

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53
Q

investigation of choice for chlamydia

A

NAAT

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54
Q

Red inclusion bodies on pap smear

A

Chlamydia

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55
Q

Virus responsible for croup

A

parainfluenza virus

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56
Q

barking cough with stridor

A

croup

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57
Q

cholera is gram ____

A

negative

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58
Q

Red cysts on acid fast stain

A

cryptosporidum

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59
Q

Treatment for cryptosporidium

A

Nitazoxanide (first line)
Rifaximin (second line)

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60
Q

Diarrhea in immunocompromised patients

A

Cryptosporidiasis

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61
Q

Treatment for cutaneous larva migrans

A

topical albendazole or ivermectin

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62
Q

CMV with organ involvement

A

IV ganciclovir

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63
Q

CMV with no serious infection or no organ involvement

A

oral valganciclovir

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64
Q

pizza retina on fundoscopy

A

CMV retinitis

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65
Q

ANy biopsy of CMV shows

A

inclusion bodies

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66
Q

Discharge criteria for dengue patient

A

stable hematocrit count

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67
Q

maculopapular rash sparing palms and soles
fever
retro orbital pain
Myalgias, bone pain, arthralgia
facial flushing

A

Dengue

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68
Q

Labs for dengue

A

Thrombocytopenia +/- Leukopenia
raised aminotransferases

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69
Q

warning signs for dengue

A

abdominal pain
hepatomegaly
persistent vomiting
clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion)

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70
Q

Cardiac complication of diphtheria

A

Heart block

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71
Q

Neurological compliaction of diphtheria

A

cranial nerve palsy

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72
Q

treatment for diphtheria

A

I/M penicillin
Diphtheria antitoxin

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73
Q

single stranded DNA virus

A

Parvovirus

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74
Q

Parvo virus results in what anemia

A

Aplastic anemia
pancytopenia in addition to sickle cell anemia

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75
Q

cancer caused by HPC

A

Cervical cancer
Anal cancer

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76
Q

Treatment for non salmonella typhi gastroenteritis

A

ciprofloxacin

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77
Q

most common organism for acute osteomyelitis

A

s.aureus

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78
Q

chronic osteomyelitis

A

organism of TB

79
Q

rose spots:

A

present on the trunk in 40% of patients, and are more common in paratyphoid

81
Q

most common cause of adult viral meningitis

A

enterovirus

82
Q

Enterovirus is single stranded positive RNA virus (True or False)

83
Q

Scarlet fever

A

streptococcus pyogenes

84
Q

Ecoli asssociated with HUS

85
Q

Exotoxins produced by

A

gram positive bacteria

86
Q

Endotoxins produced by

A

gram negative bacteria

87
Q

Gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringes

88
Q

Scalded skin syndrome

89
Q

Whooping cough

A

Bortadella pertussis

90
Q

Bloody diarrhea + renal impairment

A

Campylobacter

91
Q

Most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults

92
Q

Acute infection of hep C diagnosed by

93
Q

Treatment for cytomegalovirus retinitis

A

IV genicicilovir
Alternate: IV foscarnet or cidofovir

94
Q

is the most common infective cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients

A

Cryptosporidium

95
Q

HIV+diarrhea+CD4 count is less than 50. organism involved is

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare

96
Q

Vaccines contraindicated in HIV patients

A

live vaccines
Cholera CVD103-HgR
Influenza-intranasal
Poliomyelitis-oral (OPV)
Tuberculosis (BCG)

97
Q

Dermatological condition commonly seen in HIV patients

A

Kaposi sarcoma
Treatment : radiotherapy and resection

101
Q

Toxoplasmosis treatment in immunocompromised

A

Combination of pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

102
Q

Which plasmodium associated with nephrotic sydrome

A

P.malariae

103
Q

initial empirical therapy, for bacterial meningitis

A

IV ceftriaxone

104
Q

Meningitis caused by listeria

A

IV amoxicillin and gentamicin

105
Q

Meningococcal meningitis treatment

A

IV benzylpenicillin

106
Q

MRI findings of toxoplasmosis gondii

A

discrete ring-enhancing lesions

107
Q

soap bubble appearance on MRI in immunocompromised

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

108
Q

First line for tonsillitis

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

110
Q

Swimmers itch

A

Schistosomiasis

111
Q

Katyama fever

A

Acute symptoms typically only develop in people who travel to endemic areas, as they don’t have any immunity to the worms.

Acute manifestations may include:
swimmers’ itch
acute schistosomiasis syndrome
fever
urticaria/angioedema
arthralgia/myalgia
cough
diarrhoea
eosinophilia

112
Q

Gastroenreritis after a foreign travel

A

Campylobacter

113
Q

Pathognomic for strongyloides

A

Larva currens

114
Q

First line for strongyloides

A

Ivermectin
Second line : Albendazole

115
Q

Cardiomyopathy is the most frequent and most severe manifestation of chronic

A

Chagas’ disease

118
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for liogenella

A

Urinary antigen

119
Q

Lab finding of leoginella along with flu like symptoms and b/l chest infiltrates

A

Hyponatremia

120
Q

Treatment for lioginella

A

Erythromycin/clarithromycin

121
Q

Diagnostic for mycoplasma pneumonia

122
Q

Moraxella can xause

A

COPD
Middle ear infection
Sinusitis

123
Q

HIV patients with normal auscultation and pathology on CXR and clinically. Organism responsible

124
Q

Triad of PCP

A

Dry cough
Fever
Progressive dyspnea

125
Q

Kaposi sarcoma caused by

126
Q

MAC treated by

A

REM
rifampicin+ethambutol+clarithromycin

127
Q

when does cerebral TB occurs in regards of CD4 count

A

when CD4 count is less than 50

128
Q

HIV associated neurological complication

A

Toxoplasmosis (more common)
CNS Lymphoma

129
Q

CNS lymphoma a/s with what virus

130
Q

most common fungal infection of CNS

A

Cryptococcus

131
Q

India Ink positive in LP

A

Cryptococcus

132
Q

high opening pressure
elevated protein
reduced glucose
normally a lymphocyte predominance but in HIV white cell count many be normal
India ink test positive

A

cryptococcal findings on LP

133
Q

widespread demyelinating lesion in HIV

134
Q

PML caused by reactivation of which virus

A

JC virus affecting oligodendrocytes

135
Q

most common complication with PCP

A

pneumothorax due to rupture of pulmonary cyst

136
Q

HIV+chest symptoms+ unremarkable auscultatory findings + bibbasal opacification + presence of pneumatocele

137
Q

prophylaxis of PCP

A

co trimaxazole

138
Q

pcp with hypoxia treatment

A

add steroid with cotromaxazole

139
Q

most common opportunistic infection in AIDS

140
Q

first-line test for HIV screening

141
Q

HPV 6 and 11

A

genital warts

142
Q

HPV 16 and 18

A

anal and cervical cancer

143
Q

causes of cervical cancer

A

HPV, smoking, combined oral contraceptive pill use and high parity.

144
Q

gram positive cocci with coagulase positive and present in clusters

A

S. saprophyticus

145
Q

Drug related to IRIS

A

didanosine

146
Q

Glandular fever

A

Infectious mononucleosis

147
Q

cause of infectious mononeuleosis

A

EBV most common
Cytomegalovirus
HHV 6

148
Q

classic triad of sore throat, pyrexia, LN involvement

A

Infectious mononucleosis

149
Q

palatal petechiae

A

infectious mononucleosis

150
Q

atypical lymphocytes is pathognomic of

A

infectious mononucleosis

151
Q

CT Scan findings of japanese encephalitis

A

hypodensity of basal ganglia and thalamus

152
Q

treatment for leoginella

A

levofloxacin
Azithromycin

153
Q

investigation of choice for lioginella

A

urinary antigen

154
Q

treatment for mycoplasma

A

doxycycline
azithromycin

155
Q

bites of sandflies.

A

leshminiasis

156
Q

grey skin , black sickness

A

visceral leshminia

157
Q

treatment for visceral leshminiasis

A

sodium stibogluconate, an organic pentavalent antimony compound
amphotericin B can be added with it

158
Q

infectious thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein.

A

lemerries syndrome

159
Q

most common risk factor for lemeirres syndrome

A

peritonsillar abcess

160
Q

complication of lemierre syndrome

A

Septic pulmonary emboli

161
Q

skin hypopigmentation + sensory loss

162
Q

confirmatory investigation for leprosy

A

skin biopsy

163
Q

triple therapy for leprosy

A

rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine
(CDR)

164
Q

Rat urine

A

Leptospirosis

165
Q

severe leptospirosis

A

weils disease

166
Q

leptospirosis treatment

A

benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

167
Q

adverse effect of linezolid

A

thrombocytopenia

169
Q

Complications of typhoid

A

Meningitis
Cholecystitis
GI bleed
Osteomyelitis

170
Q

bilateral conjunctival suffusion is a distinguishing feature of .

A

leptospirosis

171
Q

Kopliks spots

172
Q

rash which appears on the abdomen which then spreads to the back and limbs. Sore throat is usually a prominent symptom and cough generally is not a feature. A ‘strawberry tongue’ may be visible

A

Scarlet fever

173
Q

Rash seen in measles

A

Maculopapular

174
Q

Most common complication of measles

A

Otitis media

175
Q

Most common cause of death in measles

176
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of malaria

A

Blood film

177
Q

red cell agglutination on blood film analysis

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

178
Q

Complication of chagas disease

A

Heart failure

179
Q

Antibiotics used in treatment of MRSA

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid

180
Q

thrombocythaemia is characteristic of

181
Q

Pruritic rash on the buttocks or soles ?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

182
Q

Drugs for treating MRSA infection

A

Vancomycin
Tigecyclin

183
Q

low glucose, high protein, high polymorph on LP

A

Meningitis caused by strep pneumonia

184
Q

Altitude sickness drug

A

Acetazolamide

186
Q

Drugs involved in causing MRSA

A

Ciprofloxacin

187
Q

Treatment of meningitis in 3 months to 6o years old

A

Ceftriaxone

188
Q

Fluctuating temperatures
transient arthralgia and myalgia,
hyperhidrosis with a ‘wet hay’ smell

189
Q

exposure to flea bites in a plague endemic area and fixed temperature

A

Yersinia pestis

190
Q

Best test for diagnosis of brucellosis

191
Q

Treatment for brucella

A

doxycycline and streptomycin

192
Q

exposure to flea bites in a plague endemic area

A

wucherera gondi