Infections of immunocompromised host Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of immunocompromised host

A

Patient with intrinsic or acquired defects in host immune defenses that predispose to development of infectious complications

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2
Q

4 major risk factors for infection

A
  1. Neutropenia
  2. Immune system defects
  3. Destruction of protective skin barrier
  4. Environmental contamination/alteration of microbial flora
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3
Q

Neutropenia

A

-Reduction in number of circulating neutrophils
-ANC < 1000 cells/mm3 (HIGH RISK)
-Severity, rate of decline, and duration of neutropenia
**Longer duration = more likely to develop infections

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4
Q

2 types of immune system defects

A
  1. Defects in cell-mediated immunity
  2. Defects in humoral immunity
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5
Q

Destruction of protective barriers

A

Skin
Mucous membranes
Surgery

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6
Q

Environmental contamination/alteration of microbial flora

A

-Transfer of organisms from patient to patient via healthcare workers
-Contaminated equipment, water, and/or food
-Alteration of normal flora in hospital setting

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7
Q

RF for infection with respect to ANC

A

-High risk: ANC < 500 cells/mm3
-Highest risk: ANC < 100 cells/mm3
-Increased rapidity of ANC decline
-Increased duration of neutropenia
-Highest risk with severe neutropenia > 7-10 days
**Can happen with cycles of chemo/stem cells

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8
Q

Common bacterial pathogens

A
  1. S. aureus
  2. S. epidermidis
  3. Streptococci
  4. Enterococcus spp
  5. Enterobacterales
  6. P. aeruginosa
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9
Q

Common fungal pathogens

A

-Candida spp
-Aspergillus (mold)
-Zygomycetes (mucor, rhizopus)

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10
Q

Common viral pathogens

A

-Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
-Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
-Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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11
Q

Cell-mediated immunity
- ______ lymphocytes
-Primary defense against _____ pathogens

A

T
Intracellular

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12
Q

What are the 2 major things that result in defects in T-lymphocyte and macrophage function

A
  1. Underlying disease: Hodgkins lymphoma
  2. Immunosuppressive drugs: tacrolimus; steroids
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13
Q

Which pathogens are patients pre-disposed to if they have a defect in cell-mediated immunity?

A

Bacteria
1. Listeria
2. Nocardia
3. Legionella
4. Mycobacteria

Fungi
1. C. neoformans
2. Candida
3. Histoplasma capsulatum

Virus
1. CMV
2. VZV
3. HSV

Protozoa
1. PJP

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14
Q

Humoral immunity
-______ lymphocytes
-Primary defense against _____ pathogens

A

B
Extracellular

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15
Q

2 major things that result in B-lymphocyte defects

A
  1. Underlying disease (Multiple myeloma, CLL, splenectomy)
  2. Immunosuppressive drugs (steroids, immunotx, chemotx)
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16
Q

Which pathogens are pts with humoral immunity defects predisposed to?

A

Bacteria (encapsulated)
1. S. pneumoniae
2. H. influenzae
3. N. meningitidis

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17
Q

What causes skin destruction?

Common pathogens these pts will be exposed to

A

Venipuncture, lines/ports

Bacteria
-S. aureus
-S. epidermidis
-Candida spp.

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18
Q

What causes mucous membrane destruction?

Common pathogens these pts will be exposed to

A

Chemotherapy; radiation

Bacteria
-S. aureus
-S. epidermidis
-Streptococci
-Enterobacterales
-P. aeruginosa
-Bacteroides spp.

Fungi
-Candida spp (common GI pathogen; may lead to dissemination)

Virus
-HSV

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19
Q

Reason for surgery that destroys protective barriers?

Common pathogens these pts will be exposed to

A

Solid organ transplant patients

Bacteria
-S. aureus
-S. epidermidis
-Enterobacterales
-P. aeruginosa
-Bacteroides spp.

Fungi
-Candida spp

Virus
-HSV

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20
Q

Common sites of infection for cancer pts

A
  1. Skin
  2. Oral pharynx
  3. GI tract
  4. Lungs
  5. Sinuses
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21
Q

Environmental contamination

A
  1. Pesticides on fruits/veggies
  2. Landfills
  3. Water supply in hospital (may have leak –> mold; outbreak of bacteria in water supply)
  4. No HCP handwashing b/w rooms
  5. Non-sterile scopes
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22
Q

Alteration of microbial flora
-Oropharyngeal flora rapidly change to primarily ___ in hospitalized pts
-50% of hospitalized cancer pts develop infections ____ admission
-_____ spectrum tx have greatest impact on normal flora
-Common pathogens

A

Gram (-) flora; within first 48H at hospital, gram (-) bacteria develop which are more resistant and difficult to eradicate

After

Broad

Enterobacterales, P. aeruginosa, S. aureus, Candida, Aspergillus

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23
Q

____ is leading cause of death in neutropenic cancer pts

A

Infection

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24
Q

Profound neutropenia (ANC < ____ cells/mm3) = greatest risk for infection

A

500

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25
Febrile episodes attributed to microbiologically documented infection in ____ of cases
Less than half (pts rarely have anything grow, so it is tricky to diagnose)
26
Bacterial infections common in neutropenic cancer pts
Staph (MSSA, MRSA, CoNS) Viridans strep (mucositis) Enterobacterales (e. coli, klebsiella spp) = gram (-) P. aeruginosa (high morbidity and mortality) = gram (-) Enterococci spp **mainly from gram (+) organisms, but not ones causing life-threatening conditions
27
Invasive fungal infections in neutropenic cancer pts -Prolonged neutropenia + _______ and/or steroids = highest risk -Candida ______ is most common; up to 60% of cancer pts develop thrush; disseminated infections (damaged mucous membranes --> colonized with candida --> enter ______) **Not easy to grow out in cultures
Broad spectrum Bloodstream
28
Invasive fungal infections in neutropenic cancer pts Aspergillus spp -Heme and HSCT patients = _____ neutropenia -Inhalation of airborne spores --> lung colonization --> invade lung parenchyma & pulmonary vessels --> hemorrhage and pulmonary infarcts --> ____ -Sinusitis; disseminated disease (____ eating way up to brain)
Prolonged Mortality Mold
29
HSV in neutropenic cancer pts -Clinical disease in pts with serologic evidence of ____ -Reactivation typically manifests as ___ or ___ infection -May disseminate in rare cases
Prior infection Oral/genital
30
Protozoan infections in neutropenic cancer pts -Pneumocystis jirovecii (PJP): typically manifests as _____ -Toxoplasma gondii typically manifests _____ -______ has drastically reduced incidence of both of these infections
Severe lung infection Lung, brain, and eye disease Bactrim
31
Clinical presentation of infection in neutropenic cancer pt
FEVER!!!!! (a lot dont have WBC so cannot mount immune response) -Non-infectious causes: blood products, chemo, drug fever, underlying malignancy
32
Labs to check for infection
Blood cultures CBC with differential BMP or CMP
33
Diagnostic for infection
Imaging Aspiration or biopsy
34
Presentation for low risk febrile neutropenia
Neutropenia NMT 7d Clinically stable Inpt or outpt; IV and/or PO *Low/few comorbidites *UTI/uncomplicated cellulitis
35
Presentation for high risk febrile neutropenia
ANC < 100 cells/mm3 AND neutropenia > 7d Clinically unstable Inpatient, IV tx *Hypotensive/neurological changes *Patient admitted
36
Management of febrile neutropenia should include _________ coverage empirically
Antipseudomonal
37
Tx for low risk febrile neutropenia & candidate for oral regimen
Oral FQ + amox/clav
38
Tx for low risk febrile neutropenia & not a candidate for oral regimen
Inpatient IV abx (monotherapy) Pip/taz Antipseudomonal Carbapenem Cefepime Ceftazidime
39
Tx for high risk febrile neutropenic pts
Inpatient IV abx (monotherapy) Pip/taz Antipsuedomonal Carbapenem Cefepim Ceftazidime
40
When is IV vanc added for febrile neutropenic pts?
NOT recommended as standard part of initial empiric regimen -Hemodynamic instability/sepsis -Pneumonia -Blood cultures growing gram (+) bacteria -Line/port infection -SSTI -Severe mucositis -Colonization with resistant gram-positive bacteria or prior MRSA infection
41
Empiric antimicrobial regimen for febrile neutropenia
Beta lactam 1. Cefepime 2 g Q8H 2. Pip/taz 4.5 g Q6H Reserved for prior ESBL infection: Imipenem 500 mg Q6H Meropenem 1 g Q8H Ceftazidime (fell out of favor)
42
Tx of febrile neutropenia in pts with PCN allergy
-Avoid beta lactams, including carbapenems, if hx of immediate type 1 hypersensitivity rxn (hives; anaphylaxis) -Ciprofloxacin + aztreonam + vanc
43
Considerations for febrile neutropenia tx in pts with PCN allergy **HINT: think about the 3 drugs
-Not to be used in pts already on FQ prophylaxis (bc high risk of resistance) -Requires pt compliance
44
Managing febrile neutropenic patients
-Re-evaluate after 48-72 H of empiric tx -Modifications may be needed, esp in prolonged neutropenia -Pathogen directed tx -Median time to defervescence: 5-7d
45
Pathogen-directed tx for MRSA
Vanc
46
Pathogen-directed tx for VRE
Daptomycin or linezolid
47
Pathogen-directed tx for ESBL
Carbapenem
48
Pathogen-directed tx for KPC
Meropenem/vaborbactam Imipenem/cilastatin/relebactam Ceftazidime/avibactam
49
Pathogen-directed tx for NDM/IMP/VIM
Cefiderocol
50
Oral antimicrobial regimens for low-risk pts with febrile neutropenia
Ciprofloxacin + amox/clav Levofloxacin Ciprofloxacin + clindamycin
51
When to add antifungal tx in febrile neutropenia
-Pts with persistent fever/develop new fever with undocumented infection after 4-7 days of broad-spectrum antibiotics *<50% of positive fungal blood cultures (difficult to identify)
52
Tx options for antifungal tx
1. Amphotericin B deoxycholate or liposomal amphotericin B 2. Azoles (fluconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole, isavuconazole) 3. Echinocandins (micafungin, caspofungin, anidulafungin)
53
Tx duration of antifungal agents in febrile neutropenia
Continue tx for 2 weeks in absence of s/sx of invasive fungal infections -Often continued for duration of neutropenia
54
When to initiate antiviral tx
Vesicular/ulcerative skin or mucosal lesions (evaluate for HSV/ZVZ) Presumed/confirmed viral infection (initiate antivirals to aid in healing lesions and preventing dissemination)
55
Antiviral tx options for HSV/VZV
Acyclovir Valacyclovir
56
Antiviral tx options for CMV
Ganciclovir Valganciclovir
57
Most common catheter-related bloodstream infections
S. aureus S. epidermidis
58
Indications for catheter removal in febrile neutropenia ("pulling the line")
-Subcutaneous tunnel infection -Failure to clear blood cultures after 72H of appropriate antimicrobial tx -Persistent fever -Septic emboli -Pathogens (usually from biofilm formation)
59
Common pathogens in febrile neutropenia catheter-related blood stream infection requiring catheter removal
-Fungi -Mycobacteria -P. aeruginosa -Bacillus spp -C. jeikeium
60
Management of febrile neutropenia 1. MOST IMPORTANT determinant in pt outcomes is __________. 2. Which patients are recommended to use CSF?
1. Resolution of neutropenia 2. CSF (filgrastim & sargramostim) --> recommended in pts with ANC<500, uncontrolled primary disease, PNA, IFI, hypotension, sepsis, multiorgan dysfunction **Patients with prolonged neutropenia and documented infection who are NOT responding to antimicrobial tx may benefit
61
Most important thing to remember about resolution of neutropenia
Meds only do so much -- it must be the patient's body to fully eradicate the infection
62
Which patients get prophylaxis for febrile neutropenia?
-Moderate and high risk pts with expected ANC < 100 for > 7d -Heme malignancies (AML, MM, lymphoma, CLL) -Allogenic & autologous HSCT -Graft vs host disease with high dose steroids -Use of alemtuzumab
63
What med is used as prophylaxis for febrile neutropenia
FQ (ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin)
64
What should be done if there is a breakthrough infection with FQ prophylaxis?
Do NOT use FQ in empiric tx regimen
65
Antifungal prophylaxis -Used for pts with ____ & ____ -Tx options include _______ IF AML, MDS, GVHD on high dose steroids: ____ & ____
-Allogenic HSCT; intensive induction for acute leukemia -Azoles (DOC) -Echinocandins (if can't use azoles) IF AML, MDS, GVHD on high dose steroids: posaconazole or isavuconazole
66
Antiviral prophylaxis -HSV seropositive pts undergoing allogenic HSCT or leukemia induction tx: _______ -Annual _____ influenza vaccine recommended for ____ patients -Varicella vaccine
Acyclovir INACTIVATED; ALL
67
What med is given to pts getting allogenic HSCT and GVHD on high dose steroids? Why?
TMP-SMX Substantially reduces the risk of PJP