Infections

Question 1

A 42 year HIV-positive old man presents to the GP. He is concerned as he has noticed multiple palpable purple nodular lesions on his back.

What is the most appropriate first step?

Answer 1

Assess compliance with cART

This is the most appropriate initial step that can be easily taken in the GP setting. The most effective treatment for Kaposi’s Sarcoma is commencing cART, thus assessing compliance with their current regimen can inform future treatments

Question 2

A 47 year old female presents with painless white patches in her mouth, that are easily removable and reveal an erythematous base. She underwent a renal transplant four years ago due to chronic kidney disease secondary to polycystic kidney disease, but is otherwise fit and well.

What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Answer 2

Oral fluconazole

This is the correct answer. This patient has a history of renal transplantation, which suggests that she remains on immunosuppressant therapy. This makes her more susceptible to infections such as thrush, or oral Candidiasis. Treatment is with a course of oral Fluconazole.

Question 3

What are salmonella and shigella treated with?

Answer 3

ciprofloxacin

Question 4

Campylobacter is treatment ?

Answer 4

macrolide, such as erythromycin.

Question 5

Cholera is treated with?

Answer 5

tetracycline