Inf 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Infectious mononucleosis causes prolonged fever, pharyngitis, fatigue, and lymphadenopathy and is diagnosed by the

A

heterophile antibody ( monospot test )

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2
Q

Triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, migratory polyarthralgia

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

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3
Q

Purulent monoarthritis

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

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4
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection treatment

A

3rd-generation cephalosporin IV AND oral azithromycin

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5
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection causes

A

high fever, chills, tenosynovitis, polyarthralgia, and pustular lesions on the trunk and extremitie

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6
Q

Pharyngitis, fever, and lower abdominal pain in a sexually active patient are caused by………………… , …………………… is due to orogenital contact.

A

gonococcal pharyngitis and associated pelvic inflammatory disease. , Gonococcal pharyngitis

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7
Q

We treat herbes zoster by

A

It is treated with antiviral agents (eg, acydovir, famciclovir, valacyclovir).

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8
Q

Treatment of HSV encephalitis

A

Acyclovir

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9
Q

Brain MRI: temporal lobe hemorrhage/edema

A

HSV encephalitis

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10
Q

Diagnostic findings of …………
CSF analysis:
o ⬆️WBCs (lymphocytes), ⬆️RBCs
o ⬆️Protein, normal glucose
o HSV DNA on PCR

A

HSV encephalitis

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11
Q

Clinical findings
. Fever
• Headache
• Seizure
• Altered mental status (eg, confusion, agitation)
• ± Focal neurologic findings (eg, hemiparesis, cranial nerve palsies, ataxia)

A

HSV encephalitis

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12
Q

Septic pulmonary emboli occur in up to 75% of patients with……… endocarditis, most commonly due to……… in IVDU with IE

A

tricuspid , Staphylococcus aureus

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13
Q

………… is not often associated with a rash (<30% in adults) and is described as “Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) without the spots.

A

Ehrlichiosis

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14
Q

……… can present with cerebrospinal fluid findings of elevated white blood cell count with a lymphocytic predominance

A

Viral encephalitis

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15
Q

…………… is the most likely diagnosis in this patient from Mississippi who was initially thought to have sarcoidosis (cough, hilar adenopathy, erythema nodosum, and non-caseating granulomas in an African American individual) but deteriorated following high-dose corticosteroid therapy

A

Histoplasmosis

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16
Q

Histoplasmosis caused by

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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17
Q
A
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18
Q

pulmonary histoplasmosis should be considered when pulmonary symptoms are accompanied by ……………… or by arthralgias and erythema nodosum.

A

mediastinal or hilar lymph nodes (or masses)

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19
Q

Histoplasma urinary antigen testing, are used for diagnosis of

A

Pulmonary Histoplasmosis

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20
Q

………………… is required in patients with HIV who develop progressive disseminated histoplasmosis (PDH). After 1-2 weeks of clinical improvement, patients are often transitioned to oral …………… for >1 year of maintenance therapy.

A

Amphotericin B , itraconazole

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21
Q

Infectious mononucleosis, most commonly due to ………… infection, presents with prolonged fever, malaise, and sore throat.

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

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22
Q

Infectious mononucleosis, most commonly due to EBV infection, presents with

A

prolonged fever, malaise, and sore throat.

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23
Q

Patients may develop autoimmune …………… up to 2-3 weeks after the onset of initial symptoms of infective mononucleosis

A
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24
Q

Clinical manifestations of ………………… include fatigue, sore throat, fever, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Atypical lymphocytes on peripheral smear are characteristic; heterophile antibodies, while specific for Epstein-Barr virus infection, may be negative early in the illnes

A

infectious mononucleosis

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25
Q

is a Gram-negative anaerobe and a common constituent of normal human oral flora

A

Eikenella corrodens

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26
Q

is the most common complication of influenza and is the result of either secondary bacterial infection ( eg, Streptococcus pneumoniae) or direct viral attack (influenza pneumonia).

A

Pneumonia

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27
Q

accounts for about 50% of cases of pyogenic spinal osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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28
Q

exquisite focal tenderness on percussion at the posterior spinous process of the affected vertebra

A

Osteomyelitis

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29
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is

A

vascular tumor due to co-infection with HIV and human herpesvirus-8, and is most common in men who have sex with men.

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30
Q

Commonly involved regions of kaposi sarcoma include

A

legs, face, oral cavity, and genitalia, and KS can also be seen in the gastrointestinal tract and lungs.

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31
Q

lesions of KS typically begin as…………… , and later develop into ……………
The color can change from light brown to…………… , and patients often have multiple lesions.

A

papules , plaques or nodules.

violet

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32
Q
A
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33
Q

causes pneumonia in patients with AIDS who have CD4 cell counts <200/mm3 . Although extrapulmonary disease may present as papules and nodules in the ear canal, it is uncommon.

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

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34
Q

………… causes diffuse mucocutaneous lesions associated with systemic symptoms beginning 1-3 months after the initial infection.………… can occur years after the initial infection, and is characterized by nodular or ulcerating lesions with necrosis and scarring.

A

Secondary syphilis , Tertiary gummatous syphilis

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35
Q

patient’s recent oral infection (likely thrush) and history of intravenous drug use suggest…………

A

HIV

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36
Q

The lesions usually appear as multiple
violaceous papules

A

KS

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37
Q

Contaminated water

A

Legionella pneumonia

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38
Q

Treatment of Legionella pneumonia

A

Respiratory fluoroquinolone or newer macrolide

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39
Q

an intracellular, gram-negative organism commonly spread by aerosols or droplets from cvntaminated water supplies

A

Legionella pneunmphila

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40
Q

Clinical clues of legionella pneumonia

A

• Fever >39 C (1022 F)
• Bradycardia relative to high fever
• Neurological symptoms (especially confusion)
• Gastrointestinal symptoms (especially diarrhea)
• Unresponsive to beta-lactam & aminoglycoside antibiotics

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41
Q

Laboratory clues of legionella pneumonia

A

• Hyponatremia
• Hepatic dysfunction
• Hematuria & proteinuria
• Sputum Gram stain showing many neutrophils, but few or no microorganisms

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42
Q

Entamoeba histolytica Risk factors

A

• Developing nations (travel/residence)
• Contaminated food/water
• Fecal-oral, sexual transmission (rare)

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43
Q

Liver abscess (RUQ pain, fever) seen in

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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44
Q

Diagnosis of entsmoeba Histolytica

A

Stool ova & parasites, stool antigen testing (colitis)
E hislolytica serology (liver abscess

45
Q

Treatment of entamoeba histolytica

A

Metronidazole followed by paromomycin to eradicate intestinal colonization.

47
Q

.Macular, anesthetic skin lesions with raised borders
• Nodular, painful nearby nerves with loss of sensory/motor function

A

Leprosy الجذام ر

48
Q

الجذام يعالج ب

A

Dapsone + rifamp

49
Q

Manifestations of leprosy include

A

chronic, anesthetic, macular (often hypopigmented) skin lesions with raised, well-demarcated borders. Nearby nerves often become nodular and tender, and segmental demyelination may result in loss of sensation and motor function.

50
Q

Lyme disease due to

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

51
Q

The hallmark feature is erythema migrans (EM), a flat, annular macule at the tick bite site that slowly expands outward as the spirochete moves through the dermis.

A

Lyme disease

52
Q

bull’s-eye appearance.

A

Lyme disease

53
Q

Empiric treatment of Lyme disease with

A

a 14-day course of oral doxycycline is curative in most patients.

54
Q

Treatment of Lyme disease In pregnant women

A

oral amoxicillin

doxycycline is more controversial (eg, possible risk of fetal tooth discoloration and retardation of skeletal development) and is generally only
considered on a case-by-case basis

55
Q

Nocardia is

A

filamentous, aerobic, gram-positive bacteria that is partially acid-fast. It causes pulmonary or disseminated disease (particularly to the brain) in immunocompromised hosts

56
Q

The treatment of choice for Nocardia is

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

57
Q

is a tapeworm transmitted to humans by the ingestion of undercooked, contaminated pork.

A

Taenia solium

58
Q

Neurocysticercosis typically manifests as an

A

adult-onset seizure

59
Q

Treatment of Neurocystocercosis ( tenea solium )

A

antiepileptics (eg, phenytoin)
antiparasitics (eg, albendazole)
corticosteroids (for brain inflammation).

60
Q

Complications of malaria

A

• Children: Seizure, coma, hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis
• Adults: Jaundice, acute renal failure, acute pulmonary edema

61
Q

Thin & thick peripheral blood smears

62
Q

Protection from malaria

A

• Hemoglobinopathies (Hgb S, Hgb C, thalassemia)
• Partial immunity from previous malarial illness

63
Q

Prevention for malaria

A

Antimalarial drugs
Insecticide-treated nets
Household insecticide residual spraying

64
Q

Antimalarial drugs

A

• Atovaquone-proguanil
• Doxycycline
• Mefloquine
• Chloroquine
• Hydroxychloroquine

65
Q

Atovaquone-proguanil

A

Antimalarial drugs

66
Q

The hallmark is cyclical fever, coinciding with

A

Plasmodium-induced RBC lysis.

68
Q

Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated in all patients with …………… (usually 2 weeks after antifungal treatment).

A

HIV who develop PDH

70
Q

Necrotic invasion of palate, orbit, brain

A

Rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis*

73
Q

Rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis* treatment

A

Surgical debridement
Liposomal amphotericin B
Elimination of risk factors eg, ⬆️glucose, acidosis)

74
Q

Risk factors of Rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis*

A

Diabetes mellitus (ketoacidosis)
• Hematologic malignancy
• Solid organ or stem cell transplant

75
Q

Mucormycosis is a

A

highly destructive fungal infection

76
Q

Rhino-orbital-cerebral mucormycosis is usually caused by

A

Rhizopus species

77
Q

(sulfur granules) on or near the jaw ?

A

Actinomyces

78
Q

Complications of Meningococcal meningitis

A

Shock
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Adrenal hemorrhage

79
Q

Meningococcal meningitis treatment

A

Ceftriaxone

80
Q

………… is a 4- generation cephalosporin that covers most of the major organisms of bacterial meningitis (eg, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, group B streptococci, Haemophilus influenzae) as well as Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

82
Q

provides coverage against cephalosporin resistant pneumococci,

A

Vancomycin

83
Q

covers Listeria monocytogenes.

A

ampicillin

84
Q

Streptococcus pnewnoniae, Neisseria meningitidis at age 2-50 treated by

A

Vancomycin + 3rd-generation cephalosporin

85
Q

S pnewnoniae, N meningitidis, Listeria >50 years old treated by

A

Vancomycin + ampicillin + 3rd-generation
cephalosporin

86
Q

lmmunocompromised pt. Infected by
S pnewnoniae, N meningitidis, Listeria, gram negative rods treated with

A

Vancomycin + ampicillin + cefepime

87
Q

Neurosurgery/penetrating skull trauma infected by staphylococci , Gram-negative rods, MRSA, coagulase-negative treated with

A

Vancomycin + cefepime

88
Q

Alternatives to cefepime

A

ceftazidime or meropenem

89
Q

Alternative to ampicillin

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for Listeria

90
Q

Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis treatment

A

Amphotericin B with flucytosine initially

Fluconazole maintenance

91
Q

Transparent capsule seen with India ink stain

A

Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

92
Q

Headache, fever & malaise
• Develops over 2 weeks (subacute)
• Can be more acute & severe in HIV

A

Presentation of Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

93
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum occurs primarily in immunocompromised patients with………… bacteremia/sepsis.

A

P aeruginosa

94
Q

multiple nonenhancing brain lesions with no mass effect (edema).

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

95
Q

asymmetric white matter lesions; no enhancement/edema

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

96
Q

Lymphocyte-predominant leukocytosis

A

Pertussis Pertussis

97
Q

Fifth disease

A

Parvovirus B19 infection

98
Q

Diagnosis of Parvovirus B19 infection

A

• Acute infection
o B19 lgM antibodies in immunocompetent patients
o NAAT for B19 DNA in immunocompromised patients
• Previous infection: B19 lgG antibodies (documents immunity)
• Reactivation of previous infection: NAA T for B19 DNA

99
Q

Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease): Fever, nausea & “slapped cheek” rash (more common in children)

A

Parvovirus B19 infection

100
Q

To prevent Pneumocystis pneumonia , most patients receiving prolonged glucocorticoid therapy are prescribed

A

primary prophylaxis with TMP-SMX

101
Q

Diffuse bilateral reticulonodular infiltrates on pulmonary imaging

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

102
Q

Manifestations of Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

• Indolent (AIDS) or acute respiratory failure
(immunosuppressive treatment)
• Dyspnea, hypoxia, dry cough, fever
• j Lactate dehydrogenase level
• Diffuse bilateral reticulonodular infiltrates on pulmonary
. . imaging

103
Q

This patient’s history of multiple sexual partners and evidence of oropharyngeal thrush (white mucosa! plaques) raise strong suspicion for
underlying…………… The presence of subacute pulmonary symptoms (dyspnea, dry cough, fever}, tachypnea, hypoxemia, and bilateral
interstitial infiltrates indicates likely ……………

A

HIV infection. ,, Pneurnocystis pneumonia (PCP},

104
Q

patients with PCP often have significant………
and a……… alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient

A

hypoxia , large

105
Q

Indications for corticosteroids in pat with pneumocystis pneumonia

A

, a Pa02 < 70 mm Hg
, an alveolar-arterial (A-a) gradient > 35 mm Hg, or
, pulse oximetry <92o/o on room air.

106
Q

tick-borne illness caused by Rickeltsia lickettsii

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

107
Q

Can develop complications of encephalitis, pulmonary edema, bleeding, shock

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

108
Q

Clinical features of Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

Nonspecific fever, headache, myalgia, arthralgia
Macular & petechial rash on wrists/ankles

110
Q

JC virus reactivation

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy