Induction of anesthesia for the cardiac patient Flashcards

1
Q

Basic preparation for induction for a cardiac case

A

one inotrope, one vasopressor, one vasodilator (all preprogrammed), similar syringes for bolus administration plus adrenergic blocker, additional antiarrhythmic medications, anticoagulants/reversal agents

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2
Q

FYI

A

Starts with heaviest medication on the left (and pointing up) and all the way to the right would have nitro (pointing down). He never draws up heparin or protamine until it’s asked for

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3
Q

Chronic cardiac medications should be __________ preoperatively with rare exceptions

A

administered

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4
Q

Premedication topic - Anxiolytics should be on-call or in given in holding area if __________

A

compensated

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5
Q

Premedications and their ranges

A

Midazolam 1-5mg IV, Fentanyl 50-100 mcg IV, Morphine 3-10mg IM, Lorazepam 2-4mg PO

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6
Q

Would you most likely hold a long-acting anti-hypertensive?

A

YES

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7
Q

Would you hold imdur, amio, cardizem or a beta-blocker?

A

NO

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8
Q

Preinduction period Review

A

supplemental oxygen, ECG, SPo2, NIBP, invasive monitors, last minute checks to include SOAP, Blood, Surgeon, Reassess overall cardiopulmonary status

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9
Q

You would put cerebral ox on when?

A

When they first arrive in the room and while they’re on room air to have baseline reading

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10
Q

Does Cerebral ox give you a right and left reading?

A

yes

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11
Q

In the 1970s they used high-dose opiod induction techniques but it lost favor in the 1990s secondary to long postoperative ______ _____

A

intubation times

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12
Q

Fentanyl

A

3-10 mcg/kg, 98% redistributed from the plasma in first hour, LARGE Vd

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13
Q

Sufentanil

A

0.1-1 mcg/kg, 7-10 times more potent than fentanyl, higher pKa and only 20% ionized, half as lipid soluble, LOWER Vd, FASTER recovery time

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14
Q

What does of sufentanil did he say he would give?

A

0.3 mcg/kg

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15
Q

Remifentail

A

0.5 mcg/kg, onset time 1 min and recovery time 9-20 min, widespread extrahepatic hydrolysis by nonspecific tissue and blood esterases, requires careful provision of postoperative pain

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16
Q

Propofol dose

A

1-2 mg/kg

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17
Q

Propofol is capable to drop what four things?

A

SVR, MAP, CI and SV

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18
Q

Propfol has extensive __________ allowing rapid ________

A

redistribution / recovery

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19
Q

Propofol whould be used with caution or reserved for hemodynamically stable cardiac patients with good ______ function

A

ventricular

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20
Q

Etomidate dose

A

0.2 mg/kg

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21
Q

Etomidate prodcues a small decrease in _______ and ______ and an INCREASE in _____ and ______

A

MAP and SVR / HR and CO

22
Q

Etomidate may initiate _________. There can also be an increase in incidence of _________ activity in patientts with know _______ disorders

A

myoclonus / epileptimform / seizure

23
Q

Etomidate can induce __________ suppression, but this phenomenom is unusual

A

adrenal

24
Q

Thiopental dose

A

2-4 mg/kg

25
Q

Thiopental has a _____ onset and can be used safely in hemodynamically stable patients

A

rapid

26
Q

Thiopental has a ______ redistribution

A

rapid

27
Q

Cardiovascular effects of Thiopental

A

dereases preload, myocardial depressant, increases HR via the baroreceptor reflex

28
Q

Is ketamine good for trauma patients?

A

yes, he will use ketamine, versed, succ in some trauma patients

29
Q

Ketamine dose

A

2-4 mg/kg

30
Q

Ketamine causes a unique cataleptic trance known as ________ _______

A

dissociative amnesia

31
Q

Ketamine produces unconsciousness in ___ to ___ sec

A

20 to 60

32
Q

Ketamine increases ____, _____ and plasma _____ levels

A

HR, MAP, epi

33
Q

When giving ketamine, are plasma epi levels dependent on an intact sympathetic reserve and robust myocardium?

A

YES

34
Q

Ketamine is advantageous in what 3 situations?

A

hypovolemia, major hemorrhage, cardiac tamponade

35
Q

Ketamine cautions

A

increases ICP and coronary demand from sympathetic stimulation

36
Q

Would you want to use ketamine on someone with left main disease or a closed head injury with a blown pupil?

A

No

37
Q

Inhalational agents cause modest levels of ________ depression

A

myocardial

38
Q

Predominant effect of inhalation agents is dose dependent VASODILATION which reduces ____ and _____

A

BP and SVR

39
Q

Inhalation agents also cause a dose dependent _____ tachycardia

A

reflex

40
Q

Desflurane should be avoided in those that have ______ and / or _______

A

asthma / smoke

41
Q

Desflurane is _________ in odor, increases _______ and is an _____ irritant

A

pungent / HR / airway

42
Q

Short acting muscle relaxants

A

sucinylcholine

43
Q

intermediate acting muscle relaxants

A

cisatracurium, rocuronium, vecuronium

44
Q

Long-acting muscle relaxants

A

pancuronium

45
Q

Vagolytic effects of ___________ tend to counter the vagotonia and bradycardia induced by higher doses of ________

A

pancuronium / opiods

46
Q

Best muscle relaxant for renal failure

A

cisatracurium

47
Q

Decompensated state drug plan for induction

A

remifentanil 1mcg/kg, etomidate 0.2 mg/kg and succinylcholine 1.5mg/kg

48
Q

________ release is an important protective mechanism (student presentation)

A

angiotensin

49
Q

To protect the kidneys have to maintain adequate ______ and ________

A

volume and pressure

50
Q

Renal failure usually presents on POD# ___

A

3