Induction of anesthesia for the cardiac patient Flashcards

1
Q

Basic preparation for induction for a cardiac case

A

one inotrope, one vasopressor, one vasodilator (all preprogrammed), similar syringes for bolus administration plus adrenergic blocker, additional antiarrhythmic medications, anticoagulants/reversal agents

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2
Q

FYI

A

Starts with heaviest medication on the left (and pointing up) and all the way to the right would have nitro (pointing down). He never draws up heparin or protamine until it’s asked for

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3
Q

Chronic cardiac medications should be __________ preoperatively with rare exceptions

A

administered

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4
Q

Premedication topic - Anxiolytics should be on-call or in given in holding area if __________

A

compensated

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5
Q

Premedications and their ranges

A

Midazolam 1-5mg IV, Fentanyl 50-100 mcg IV, Morphine 3-10mg IM, Lorazepam 2-4mg PO

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6
Q

Would you most likely hold a long-acting anti-hypertensive?

A

YES

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7
Q

Would you hold imdur, amio, cardizem or a beta-blocker?

A

NO

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8
Q

Preinduction period Review

A

supplemental oxygen, ECG, SPo2, NIBP, invasive monitors, last minute checks to include SOAP, Blood, Surgeon, Reassess overall cardiopulmonary status

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9
Q

You would put cerebral ox on when?

A

When they first arrive in the room and while they’re on room air to have baseline reading

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10
Q

Does Cerebral ox give you a right and left reading?

A

yes

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11
Q

In the 1970s they used high-dose opiod induction techniques but it lost favor in the 1990s secondary to long postoperative ______ _____

A

intubation times

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12
Q

Fentanyl

A

3-10 mcg/kg, 98% redistributed from the plasma in first hour, LARGE Vd

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13
Q

Sufentanil

A

0.1-1 mcg/kg, 7-10 times more potent than fentanyl, higher pKa and only 20% ionized, half as lipid soluble, LOWER Vd, FASTER recovery time

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14
Q

What does of sufentanil did he say he would give?

A

0.3 mcg/kg

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15
Q

Remifentail

A

0.5 mcg/kg, onset time 1 min and recovery time 9-20 min, widespread extrahepatic hydrolysis by nonspecific tissue and blood esterases, requires careful provision of postoperative pain

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16
Q

Propofol dose

A

1-2 mg/kg

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17
Q

Propofol is capable to drop what four things?

A

SVR, MAP, CI and SV

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18
Q

Propfol has extensive __________ allowing rapid ________

A

redistribution / recovery

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19
Q

Propofol whould be used with caution or reserved for hemodynamically stable cardiac patients with good ______ function

A

ventricular

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20
Q

Etomidate dose

A

0.2 mg/kg

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21
Q

Etomidate prodcues a small decrease in _______ and ______ and an INCREASE in _____ and ______

A

MAP and SVR / HR and CO

22
Q

Etomidate may initiate _________. There can also be an increase in incidence of _________ activity in patientts with know _______ disorders

A

myoclonus / epileptimform / seizure

23
Q

Etomidate can induce __________ suppression, but this phenomenom is unusual

24
Q

Thiopental dose

25
Thiopental has a _____ onset and can be used safely in hemodynamically stable patients
rapid
26
Thiopental has a ______ redistribution
rapid
27
Cardiovascular effects of Thiopental
dereases preload, myocardial depressant, increases HR via the baroreceptor reflex
28
Is ketamine good for trauma patients?
yes, he will use ketamine, versed, succ in some trauma patients
29
Ketamine dose
2-4 mg/kg
30
Ketamine causes a unique cataleptic trance known as ________ _______
dissociative amnesia
31
Ketamine produces unconsciousness in ___ to ___ sec
20 to 60
32
Ketamine increases ____, _____ and plasma _____ levels
HR, MAP, epi
33
When giving ketamine, are plasma epi levels dependent on an intact sympathetic reserve and robust myocardium?
YES
34
Ketamine is advantageous in what 3 situations?
hypovolemia, major hemorrhage, cardiac tamponade
35
Ketamine cautions
increases ICP and coronary demand from sympathetic stimulation
36
Would you want to use ketamine on someone with left main disease or a closed head injury with a blown pupil?
No
37
Inhalational agents cause modest levels of ________ depression
myocardial
38
Predominant effect of inhalation agents is dose dependent VASODILATION which reduces ____ and _____
BP and SVR
39
Inhalation agents also cause a dose dependent _____ tachycardia
reflex
40
Desflurane should be avoided in those that have ______ and / or _______
asthma / smoke
41
Desflurane is _________ in odor, increases _______ and is an _____ irritant
pungent / HR / airway
42
Short acting muscle relaxants
sucinylcholine
43
intermediate acting muscle relaxants
cisatracurium, rocuronium, vecuronium
44
Long-acting muscle relaxants
pancuronium
45
Vagolytic effects of ___________ tend to counter the vagotonia and bradycardia induced by higher doses of ________
pancuronium / opiods
46
Best muscle relaxant for renal failure
cisatracurium
47
Decompensated state drug plan for induction
remifentanil 1mcg/kg, etomidate 0.2 mg/kg and succinylcholine 1.5mg/kg
48
________ release is an important protective mechanism (student presentation)
angiotensin
49
To protect the kidneys have to maintain adequate ______ and ________
volume and pressure
50
Renal failure usually presents on POD# ___
3