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Basic Indoc CBT > INDOC > Flashcards

INDOC Flashcards

1
Q

EFB batter must be at least ____% before the flight?

A

80%

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2
Q

Back up battery must be at least ___% before the flight?

A

100%

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3
Q

If i pad is damaged, how long can you borrow the spare i pad from your domicile?

A

2 weeks

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4
Q

What do you if the securing device for EFB is broken?

A

Contact MX, do not write it up

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5
Q

If you do not have back up battery

A

You are limited to the min EFB req time on the flight release

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6
Q

Can crew use the receptacle in the cabin during flight?

A

No

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7
Q

How many EFB do you have to have to get dispatched?

A

1

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8
Q

If the pilot does not have an EFB

A

Obtain all necessary items for navigation and checklist

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9
Q

If both EFBs are inop, the flight may continue

A

joint agreement with the dispatcher; declare emergency if IMC

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10
Q

Plan of action when both EFBs inop

A

ask guidance from dispatch, ATC, FMS, MFD, checklist

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11
Q

FOM does not intentionally contradict with the FAR, if it does

A

Pick the stricter one

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12
Q

When can you deviate from FOM?

A

Approval from VP of Flight Ops

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13
Q

What’s TR

A

change of policy and procedure; green background

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14
Q

Two types of FLT Ops bulletin

A

FOAB and FOIB

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15
Q

You sync your EFB 2 days before the trip and you are on Day 3 of the 4 days trip. Are you current?

A

No

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16
Q

3 types of operation for Skywest

A

91 (non rev), 119 (St. George), 121

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17
Q

Vice President of Flight Ops

A

overall actions of flight ops, aircraft ops, training, crew support

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18
Q

Director of Aircraft Ops

A

developlement, implementation, evaluation of policies and procedures to ensure safe ground and flight operations

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19
Q

Director of FLT Ops and Company Chief Pilot

A

ovesight policy and procedure to ensure the hgihest possible level of safety

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20
Q

Director of Training

A

ground and flight trainings

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21
Q

Chief Pilots

A

ensure new hire progression/ probation
review performance; provide recommenation
ensure pilots are within standards

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22
Q

PIC Responsibility

A

final authority of the aircarft
ensure aircraft operation is safe and efficient
jointly responsible with dispatcher on planning
responsible for w&b, preflight, emergency plan of action
3 takeoff and landing/ take care of SIC

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23
Q

SIC Responsibility

A

assist PIC

supervise fueling, ground power unit, baggage handling, appropriate servicing of aircraft

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24
Q

Dispatcher Responsibility

A 
Prepare flight release
monitor flight progress
remain aware
issue necessary safety info
cancel and amend the flights
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25
Q

SkyWest CMO

A

Certified Management Office

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26
Q

Fit for duty

A

Skywest will provide adeaute opportunity to rest, but employees have to take care of themselves

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27
Q

Can you fly outside professionally?

A

No

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28
Q

If you are not fit for duty

A

You are done for that day

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29
Q

If fatigue, contact

A

Contact crew support

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30
Q

Can you accept a trip when fatigued?

A

No

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31
Q

Prioir each flight segment, crew will acknowledge they are fit for duty via

A

EFB; electronic signature

No EFB; call dispatch

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32
Q

Max Flight Time

A

100 hours in 672 consecutive hours

1000 hours in 365 consecutive calendar day

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33
Q

Max Flight Duty Time

A

60 hours in 168 conescutive hours

190 hours in 672 consecutive hours

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34
Q

Rest period

A

10 hours free of duty and 8 hours of uninterruptted sleep

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35
Q

When there’s an unforseen circumstances

A

May extend the FDP up to 2 hours

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36
Q

If FDP is extended beyond 30 minutes, FAA needs to be notified within

A

10 days

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37
Q

When the FDP is extended for more than 30 min

A

Must have 30 hours of consecutive rest with past 168 hours

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38
Q

All part 91 ops are subjeted to pt 117 except

A

All ops under part 91

Pt 121 and 91 operations are split by 10 hours rest

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39
Q

Does deadhead count as a flight segment regarding of FDP?

A

It depends. If it is before the flight segment, then it does count toward your FDP.

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40
Q

Does diversion count as flight segment?

A

no

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41
Q

When does deadhead counts as FDP?

A

When you have to deadhead to start a flight segment

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42
Q

Is deadhead part of the rest?

A

no

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43
Q

If a crew memeber’s FDP is extended, does that mean he or she is getting another flight segment?

A

no

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44
Q

concurrence

A

do you agree that you need an extension?

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45
Q

Split duty - additional protection to mitigate fatigue

A

rest opportunity 2200-0500
suitable accomdation at least 3 hours
rest must be scheduled
actual rest may not be less than scheduled rest
rest must be after the first flight segment is completed
FDP+ rest must not exceed 14 hours

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46
Q

consecutive night operations (during WOCL)

A

can only extend no more than 3 consecutive nights (0200-0559)

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47
Q

how to extend consecutive night ops to 5 nights?

A

2 hrs rest between 2200-0500
rest must be scheduled
actual rest may not be less than scheduled rest
rest must be after the first flight segment is completed

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48
Q

3 types of reserve

A

ready reserve
short call reserve
long call reserve

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49
Q

When you are in ready reserve…

A

consider as FDP

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50
Q

How to determin max duty in short call reserve?

A

RAP+16
RAP+Table B+ 4
FDP+16

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51
Q

Once you get a call for long call reserve

A

10 hours rest plus 2 hours to get to the airport

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52
Q

SkyWest’s alcohol blood content limit

A

0.02%

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53
Q

If suspected impairment

A

Do not go to the airport
Do not enter the plane
Do not takeoff
Do no let the operation happens

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54
Q

How early do you have to report to airport and gate?

A

45 and 35 before departure

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55
Q

Req. Flt Items

A 
Pilot cert
medical
spare of corrective lenses
company ID
FCC radio license*
Passport*
Working flashflight
headset
EFB
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56
Q

Exemption for lost certificate

A

11152 - 72 hours temp certificate

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57
Q

When is the new medical due?

A

2359 Mountain Time on the 25th of the month

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58
Q

When SIC has less than 100 hours, he or she can not land when…

A 
Flying to FAA special PIC qualification airport
Vis at or below 3/4
RVR at or below 4000
contaminated runway
braking action 5 or less
wind shear
XW 15 kts
PIC says so
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59
Q

All SIC XW limitation

A

20 kts

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60
Q

Low PIC’s restrictions

A

IAP minimum +100 ft and +1/2 sm
Alternate minimum at least 300-1
no CAT II approaches
*if CA is green, must use his or hers minimum

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61
Q

Printed Checklists are

A

uncontrolled
not reguarly updated
must not remain in the aircraft

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62
Q

OpSpec C050

A

airports req special PIC qualification

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63
Q

How to be a qualified pilot for special airports?

A

PIC or SIC made entry to that airport or LvL D sim in past 12 months
familiarize with the airport with 10-7
*Requirement is waived when wx is 1000’ above MEA and vis greater than 3

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64
Q

Which SAAT LvL is CA landing only?

A

Level 4

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65
Q

What’s WANT briefing?

A

Wx
Airport Info
Notams
Threat

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66
Q

What are the two airports require special SIC training?

A

Aspen and Eagle

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67
Q

Can a PIC delay or cancel a flight?

A

No, it will be a joint decision between PIC and Dispatch

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68
Q

What’s marginal weather?

A

When destination’s visbility, alternate’s visbility, and alternate’s ceiling are at minimum

69
Q

Main body of TAF

A

FM, post BCMG

70
Q

Conditional body of TAF

A

TEMP, PROB, during BCMG

71
Q

When a flight is less than 60 mintues

A

if the flight is less than 60 mintues, compare METAR and TAF, the lowest one will be the controlling factor

72
Q

What do you do if the wx gets below the min before the flight?

A

DELAY

73
Q

When do you need a takeoff alternate?

A

If the wx is below the landing min at the departing airport

74
Q

What’s the criteria for a takeoff alternate?

A

one hour from departure airport at normal CRZ with OEI

CRJ 200: 250 NM CRJ 7/9: 300 NM

75
Q

C055 Alternate Airport IFR Minimums

A

Single approach: 1 navaid with N-Precision, CAT I, or circling - add 400-1
Double appraoch: 2 nav facilities (can’t be the same identifier), straight in, different and suitable runways - add 200-1/2

76
Q

Single vs Double Approach

A

If double approach will result in a higher minimum, you can use the single approach minimum

77
Q

Can CAT II min be included for derived minimum?

A

No

78
Q

When the weather is MARGINAL

A

You need a second alternate

79
Q

When do you not need an alternate?

A

1-2-3 rule

80
Q

When using RNAV for derived minimum

A

LNAV and Circling only

When single FMS, must have a back up plan like a different approach with other type of NAV

81
Q

During the approach, what’s the controlling factor? Vis or ceiling?

A

Vis

82
Q

What do you do if the wx change during the flight?

A

continue if no adverse effect on safety
add an alternate
stop for fuel

83
Q

Alternate airport is alway req when

A

Going to Alaska airport that only has 1 RWY
No IAPs
FZ precip + Unknown precip
RCC less than 3

84
Q

When do you need a 2nd alternate?

A

Exemption 17347

Marginal wx

85
Q

Explain Exemption 17347

A

When the forecasted conditional wx (PROB and TEMP) at the destination and/or 1 st alternate is EQUAL TO AT LEAST 1/2 OF THE REQ MIN and the second alternate has no conditional restriction

86
Q

Under exemption 17347, what forecast do we concern the most?

A

Destination: visibility
1st Alternate: visibility and ceiling
2nd Alternate: visibility and ceiling

87
Q

List the 5 situations that exemption 17347 does not apply

A
  1. outside of the lower 48
  2. high min captain
  3. circle to land maneuver
  4. takeoff alternate
  5. drift down alternate
88
Q

Can you use CAT II approach min for exemption 17347?

A

Yes. At the destination only because CAT II can not be used for alternate

89
Q

Can you use BCMG for the exemption 17347?

A

No

90
Q

When the dispatcher is working on the weather analysis, for a flight release, he or she has to…

A

check wx the intended route
wx development
METAR and forecast
winds aloft

91
Q

What’s the only non NWS weather product can be used for the flight release?

A

WSI

92
Q

Missing weather information

A 
Winds - No Go
Temperature - needs calculation from RTMA
Ceiling - Go
Altimeter - No Go
Visibility - No Go
93
Q

Fuel requirement

A

To desintation + Most Distant Alternate + 45 min of CRZ

94
Q

Prior to depart, what’s fuel level do you have to check?

A

Must be at or higher than MINTO

95
Q

What do you do when you want more or less fuel?

A

Talk to disptach.

For de fuel, only need to talk to them when you defuel more than 200 lbs or 50% of the contingency fuel

96
Q

What’s contingency fuel?

A

Fuel for delay or abnormal situation. Can use it after you talk to dispatch. +15 min of fuel

97
Q

List the 3 things when you have to talk to disptach regarding fuel burn (emergency is not one of them here)

A

Delayed more than 15 min
CRZ level is 4000 ft from planned
Exceed 100 miles in original route

98
Q

Does PIC need to carry a copy of flight release to the destination?

A

Yes

99
Q

Who is reponsible to cancel IFR?

A

PIC

100
Q

Can a flgiht takeoff without load manifest?

A

No

101
Q

Flight release must have ________ signature

A

PIC

102
Q

What are the required items on the flight release?

A 
DIMMWIT
Depature Airport, Destination airport, alternate, etc
aircraft Identification
Min fuel supply (MINTO)
MEL and CDL list
Wx Reports
statement of operation (IFR)
Trip number
103
Q

When do you need a new flight release?

A 
when dispatcher and pic says so
change of aircraft
before departure after delay of two hours
unable to depart with previous release
return the airport after takeoff
unscheduled landing
104
Q

What’s ICE briefing?

A

Initial Crew Briefing

Introduction, communication, entry protocol

105
Q

When do you have to amend a flight release?

A 
FO/ FA change
MINTO/release fuel change
Route change
Wx update
MEL/CDL
106
Q

Who is allowed to enter flight deck?

A

PIC has the final authority

For INTL ops, FAA (110A Form), DOD, Check airman on duty

107
Q

Who can carry a weapon on board?

A

Law enforcement officer
Federal Air Marshal (On/Off duty)
Federal flight deck officer
Other federal agents

108
Q

Can a PAX bring weapon?

A

Only if its in the checked baggage and airline is notified prior

109
Q

Carriage of prisoners

A

High risk: 2 armed LEOs, handcuffed, usually just 1
Low Risk: 1 armed officer, handcuffed, 1 officer takes care no more than 2 at once, number of prisoners varied
*Prisoners should stay away from the exit

110
Q

Carriage of disabled pax

A

Approved as long as the pax does not req specialized care during the flight

111
Q

When is the FA req on the plane?

A

The FA must remain inside the cabin anytime the PAX onbard, boarding, or deplaning, and during the intermediate stop

112
Q

What do you do when there’s a malfunction on cabin comm?

A

use the cabin sign first, then try PA system

113
Q

Keys when you make a PA

A

open, honest, timely
be clear, concise, informative
coordinate with the FA to avoid duplication

114
Q

Crew member not vacate from an aircraft control seat when below

A

10000

115
Q

When do you have to wear a headset?

A

From block in to block out, below FL180

116
Q

What is Park at Any Time system?

A

A method to marshal the aircraft to the gate when the weather is bad. Ground staffs will drive a truck with monitor in back to guide the aircraft into the ramp. Deplane may not occur until the ramp is open again

117
Q

If the runway is contaminated, the ground crew must wear

A

headset

118
Q

Who has the final authority on the ground?

A

PIC

119
Q

What’s the req ground crew member when the aircraft is taxiing in or power on departure?

A

1 marshaller

120
Q

What the req ground crew member when the aircraft is pushing back?

A

1 marshaller and 1 wingwalker

121
Q

Can we refuel or defuel when the PAX is around?

A

Yes

122
Q

Do you need obtain IFR clearance prior to depart from an uncontrolled airport?

A

Mostly yes. May not need it, see Opspec C077

123
Q

When is critical phase of flight

A

all ground ops, takeoff, landing, below 10000 except cruise

124
Q

When is critical phase of flight for takeoff

A

Climb until 10000 or level at CRZ if CRZ level is lower than 10000

125
Q

When is critical phase of flight for landing?

A

Descent below FL180 or the beginning of descend if CRZ level is below FL180

126
Q

When does a pilot need to wear an oxygen mask if another pilot is doing the walk of shame?

A

FL250 or higher

127
Q

No flight is disatched above _______ ft without the minmum crew oxygen bottle pressure in the respective SOPM

A

10000

128
Q

Restrictions on pax oxygen

A

no medical oxygen

no oxygen canister

129
Q

Altimeters must be within _____ of field elevation and within ______ to each other

A

75ft; 100ft or 75ft for RVSM

130
Q

What’s the refernce chart to look at when you need to correct for the cold temperature?

A

10-7

131
Q

What altitude do you correct during an IAP with the cold correction table?

A

Intermediate: FAF/FAP altitude
Final: step down fixes and minimums
ILS GS: only DA
Missed: all altitude

132
Q

Do you have to correct for ATC vector altitude during the extreme cold temp?

A

no

133
Q

When would you use Surface Movement Guidance and Control System?

A

Below 1200 RVR

134
Q

What do you have to do if runway status light system is on?

A

Do not move

135
Q

What do you do when runway status light system is distinguished?

A

Wait for ATC instruction

136
Q

During takeoff, avoid banking below _______ AGL

A

400

137
Q

When can you descend below landing min?

A

continously in a position and a normal landing can be made
touchdown in the touchdown zone
FLIGHT visibility is not less than prescribed vis
runway environment insight

138
Q

What do you have to do when conducting an IAP at an uncontrolled airport?

A

advisories on CTAF

final est 5 miles out

139
Q

LAHSO Summary

A 
Min wx 1000-3 or 1500-5
no windshear last 20 min
tailwind less than 3 kts
stabilized at 1000 HAT (straight in) or  500 HAT (circle)
touchdown within 1/3 or first 3000 ft
cannot accept when below 1000 AGL
avaliable ditsnace must be at least the distacne shown on the TLR
no wet runway
LAHSO lights on at night
140
Q

What’s the min runway length for landing?

A

5400 ft

141
Q

What’s min runway length for landing when an airport is less than 4000 feet high?

A

5000 for CRJ 200

5200 for CRJ 700 900

142
Q

What;s the minimum cleared rwy width for CRJs?

A

200 is 75 ft 700 and 900 are 80 ft

143
Q

If there’s no REMAINDER on the FICON NOTAM

A

Assume RWY is clear

144
Q

If the runway is loose contaminated (1/8 in)

A

We can land no matter what

145
Q

Difference between MAYDAY and PAN-PAN

A

mayday - immediate danger

pan-pan - urgency, uncertainty

146
Q

Min fuel vs emergneyc fuel

A

Min fuel - cannot accept further delay

Emer. fuel - landing with less than 30 min of fuel remaining

147
Q

30 min of fuel for CRJs

A

CRJ 200 - 1050 lbs
CRJ 700 - 1500 lbs
CRJ 900 - 1550 lbs

148
Q

Difference between RNAV 1 and RNAV 2

A

RNAV 1 is when the error is no more than 1 nm at 95% of the time, RNAV 2 is 2 nm

149
Q

Can you fly with expired data base?

A

Yes as long as it matches with Jepp charts

150
Q

What’s the difference between Type A and Type B DP?

A

Type A/ HDG to fix - ATC assigns you a HDG

Type B/Off the rwy - FMS programs procedure/ not HDG

151
Q

Turbulence Advisory

NNAVY-BLAZN 2200 MD2 340

A

From NNAVY to BLAZN, at 2200, turbluence moderate 2, at flight level 340

152
Q

Does ATC give you wake separation during a visual approach?

A

No

153
Q

ICAO categorized CRJ and ERJ as

A

Medium

154
Q

If the aircraft is not RVSM certified, what the highest altitude you can fly at?

A

FL280

155
Q

OpSpec A001

A

Type of operations: flag, domestic, supplemental

156
Q

OpSpec A012

A

list of the airport outside SkyWest can go outside of USA/ 960 nm away from the border

157
Q

OpSpec B031

A

Class I NAV - ground based nav facilities

Class II NAV - GPS

158
Q

OpSpec B046

A

In order to operate in RVSM, you will need
2 independent altitude measurement system
Altitude reporting XPDR
Altitude Alert System
Automatic Altitude Control System

159
Q

OpSpec C080 IFR in Class G

A

Authorized IAP
Approved source of wx
CTAF okay

160
Q

OpSpec C052 - type of approach and reduce CAT 1 min

A

RVR is controlling
Visibility below 1/2 do not use
mid RVR report may substitute TDZ RVR
w/out TDZ lights or RCL lights, may still use 1800 RVR with AP

161
Q

OpSpec C054

A

If forecasted vis is less than 3/4 or 4000, destination rwy length should be 115% of req runway

162
Q

OpSpec C056

A

When published takeoff minimum is greater than the applicable standard takeoff min, you cant use lower one under C078

163
Q

When vis 1/4sm

A

CL or HIRL or RCLM or adequate visual ref

N/A RVR

164
Q

RVR 1600

A

CL or HIRL or RCLM

1 RVR req. TDZ RVR is controlling. MID may substitute

165
Q

12/12/10 Day

A

CL or HIRL or RCLM

2 RVR req except far end

166
Q

12/12/10 Night

A

CL or HIRL

2 RVR req except far end

167
Q

10/10/10

A

CL or HIRL and RCLM

2 RVR req except far end

168
Q

6/6/6

A

HIRL and CL

2 RVR req except far end

Basic Indoc CBT (4 decks)

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