INDOC Flashcards
1
Q
EFB batter must be at least ____% before the flight?
A
80%
2
Q
Back up battery must be at least ___% before the flight?
A
100%
3
Q
If i pad is damaged, how long can you borrow the spare i pad from your domicile?
A
2 weeks
4
Q
What do you if the securing device for EFB is broken?
A
Contact MX, do not write it up
5
Q
If you do not have back up battery
A
You are limited to the min EFB req time on the flight release
6
Q
Can crew use the receptacle in the cabin during flight?
A
No
7
Q
How many EFB do you have to have to get dispatched?
A
1
8
Q
If the pilot does not have an EFB
A
Obtain all necessary items for navigation and checklist
9
Q
If both EFBs are inop, the flight may continue
A
joint agreement with the dispatcher; declare emergency if IMC
10
Q
Plan of action when both EFBs inop
A
ask guidance from dispatch, ATC, FMS, MFD, checklist
11
Q
FOM does not intentionally contradict with the FAR, if it does
A
Pick the stricter one
12
Q
When can you deviate from FOM?
A
Approval from VP of Flight Ops
13
Q
What’s TR
A
change of policy and procedure; green background
14
Q
Two types of FLT Ops bulletin
A
FOAB and FOIB
15
Q
You sync your EFB 2 days before the trip and you are on Day 3 of the 4 days trip. Are you current?
A
No
16
Q
3 types of operation for Skywest
A
91 (non rev), 119 (St. George), 121
17
Q
Vice President of Flight Ops
A
overall actions of flight ops, aircraft ops, training, crew support
18
Q
Director of Aircraft Ops
A
developlement, implementation, evaluation of policies and procedures to ensure safe ground and flight operations
19
Q
Director of FLT Ops and Company Chief Pilot
A
ovesight policy and procedure to ensure the hgihest possible level of safety
20
Q
Director of Training
A
ground and flight trainings
21
Q
Chief Pilots
A
ensure new hire progression/ probation
review performance; provide recommenation
ensure pilots are within standards
22
Q
PIC Responsibility
A
final authority of the aircarft
ensure aircraft operation is safe and efficient
jointly responsible with dispatcher on planning
responsible for w&b, preflight, emergency plan of action
3 takeoff and landing/ take care of SIC
23
Q
SIC Responsibility
A
assist PIC
supervise fueling, ground power unit, baggage handling, appropriate servicing of aircraft
24
Q
Dispatcher Responsibility
A
Prepare flight release monitor flight progress remain aware issue necessary safety info cancel and amend the flights
25
SkyWest CMO
Certified Management Office
26
Fit for duty
Skywest will provide adeaute opportunity to rest, but employees have to take care of themselves
27
Can you fly outside professionally?
No
28
If you are not fit for duty
You are done for that day
29
If fatigue, contact
Contact crew support
30
Can you accept a trip when fatigued?
No
31
Prioir each flight segment, crew will acknowledge they are fit for duty via
EFB; electronic signature
| No EFB; call dispatch
32
Max Flight Time
100 hours in 672 consecutive hours
| 1000 hours in 365 consecutive calendar day
33
Max Flight Duty Time
60 hours in 168 conescutive hours
| 190 hours in 672 consecutive hours
34
Rest period
10 hours free of duty and 8 hours of uninterruptted sleep
35
When there's an unforseen circumstances
May extend the FDP up to 2 hours
36
If FDP is extended beyond 30 minutes, FAA needs to be notified within
10 days
37
When the FDP is extended for more than 30 min
Must have 30 hours of consecutive rest with past 168 hours
38
All part 91 ops are subjeted to pt 117 except
All ops under part 91
| Pt 121 and 91 operations are split by 10 hours rest
39
Does deadhead count as a flight segment regarding of FDP?
It depends. If it is before the flight segment, then it does count toward your FDP.
40
Does diversion count as flight segment?
no
41
When does deadhead counts as FDP?
When you have to deadhead to start a flight segment
42
Is deadhead part of the rest?
no
43
If a crew memeber's FDP is extended, does that mean he or she is getting another flight segment?
no
44
concurrence
do you agree that you need an extension?
45
Split duty - additional protection to mitigate fatigue
rest opportunity 2200-0500
suitable accomdation at least 3 hours
rest must be scheduled
actual rest may not be less than scheduled rest
rest must be after the first flight segment is completed
FDP+ rest must not exceed 14 hours
46
consecutive night operations (during WOCL)
can only extend no more than 3 consecutive nights (0200-0559)
47
how to extend consecutive night ops to 5 nights?
2 hrs rest between 2200-0500
rest must be scheduled
actual rest may not be less than scheduled rest
rest must be after the first flight segment is completed
48
3 types of reserve
ready reserve
short call reserve
long call reserve
49
When you are in ready reserve...
consider as FDP
50
How to determin max duty in short call reserve?
RAP+16
RAP+Table B+ 4
FDP+16
51
Once you get a call for long call reserve
10 hours rest plus 2 hours to get to the airport
52
SkyWest's alcohol blood content limit
0.02%
53
If suspected impairment
Do not go to the airport
Do not enter the plane
Do not takeoff
Do no let the operation happens
54
How early do you have to report to airport and gate?
45 and 35 before departure
55
Req. Flt Items
```
Pilot cert
medical
spare of corrective lenses
company ID
FCC radio license*
Passport*
Working flashflight
headset
EFB
```
56
Exemption for lost certificate
11152 - 72 hours temp certificate
57
When is the new medical due?
2359 Mountain Time on the 25th of the month
58
When SIC has less than 100 hours, he or she can not land when...
```
Flying to FAA special PIC qualification airport
Vis at or below 3/4
RVR at or below 4000
contaminated runway
braking action 5 or less
wind shear
XW 15 kts
PIC says so
```
59
All SIC XW limitation
20 kts
60
Low PIC's restrictions
IAP minimum +100 ft and +1/2 sm
Alternate minimum at least 300-1
no CAT II approaches
*if CA is green, must use his or hers minimum
61
Printed Checklists are
uncontrolled
not reguarly updated
must not remain in the aircraft
62
OpSpec C050
airports req special PIC qualification
63
How to be a qualified pilot for special airports?
PIC or SIC made entry to that airport or LvL D sim in past 12 months
familiarize with the airport with 10-7
*Requirement is waived when wx is 1000' above MEA and vis greater than 3
64
Which SAAT LvL is CA landing only?
Level 4
65
What's WANT briefing?
Wx
Airport Info
Notams
Threat
66
What are the two airports require special SIC training?
Aspen and Eagle
67
Can a PIC delay or cancel a flight?
No, it will be a joint decision between PIC and Dispatch
68
What's marginal weather?
When destination's visbility, alternate's visbility, and alternate's ceiling are at minimum
69
Main body of TAF
FM, post BCMG
70
Conditional body of TAF
TEMP, PROB, during BCMG
71
When a flight is less than 60 mintues
if the flight is less than 60 mintues, compare METAR and TAF, the lowest one will be the controlling factor
72
What do you do if the wx gets below the min before the flight?
DELAY
73
When do you need a takeoff alternate?
If the wx is below the landing min at the departing airport
74
What's the criteria for a takeoff alternate?
one hour from departure airport at normal CRZ with OEI
| CRJ 200: 250 NM CRJ 7/9: 300 NM
75
C055 Alternate Airport IFR Minimums
Single approach: 1 navaid with N-Precision, CAT I, or circling - add 400-1
Double appraoch: 2 nav facilities (can't be the same identifier), straight in, different and suitable runways - add 200-1/2
76
Single vs Double Approach
If double approach will result in a higher minimum, you can use the single approach minimum
77
Can CAT II min be included for derived minimum?
No
78
When the weather is MARGINAL
You need a second alternate
79
When do you not need an alternate?
1-2-3 rule
80
When using RNAV for derived minimum
LNAV and Circling only
| When single FMS, must have a back up plan like a different approach with other type of NAV
81
During the approach, what's the controlling factor? Vis or ceiling?
Vis
82
What do you do if the wx change during the flight?
continue if no adverse effect on safety
add an alternate
stop for fuel
83
Alternate airport is alway req when
Going to Alaska airport that only has 1 RWY
No IAPs
FZ precip + Unknown precip
RCC less than 3
84
When do you need a 2nd alternate?
Exemption 17347
| Marginal wx
85
Explain Exemption 17347
When the forecasted conditional wx (PROB and TEMP) at the destination and/or 1 st alternate is EQUAL TO AT LEAST 1/2 OF THE REQ MIN and the second alternate has no conditional restriction
86
Under exemption 17347, what forecast do we concern the most?
Destination: visibility
1st Alternate: visibility and ceiling
2nd Alternate: visibility and ceiling
87
List the 5 situations that exemption 17347 does not apply
1. outside of the lower 48
2. high min captain
3. circle to land maneuver
4. takeoff alternate
5. drift down alternate
88
Can you use CAT II approach min for exemption 17347?
Yes. At the destination only because CAT II can not be used for alternate
89
Can you use BCMG for the exemption 17347?
No
90
When the dispatcher is working on the weather analysis, for a flight release, he or she has to...
check wx the intended route
wx development
METAR and forecast
winds aloft
91
What's the only non NWS weather product can be used for the flight release?
WSI
92
Missing weather information
```
Winds - No Go
Temperature - needs calculation from RTMA
Ceiling - Go
Altimeter - No Go
Visibility - No Go
```
93
Fuel requirement
To desintation + Most Distant Alternate + 45 min of CRZ
94
Prior to depart, what's fuel level do you have to check?
Must be at or higher than MINTO
95
What do you do when you want more or less fuel?
Talk to disptach.
| For de fuel, only need to talk to them when you defuel more than 200 lbs or 50% of the contingency fuel
96
What's contingency fuel?
Fuel for delay or abnormal situation. Can use it after you talk to dispatch. +15 min of fuel
97
List the 3 things when you have to talk to disptach regarding fuel burn (emergency is not one of them here)
Delayed more than 15 min
CRZ level is 4000 ft from planned
Exceed 100 miles in original route
98
Does PIC need to carry a copy of flight release to the destination?
Yes
99
Who is reponsible to cancel IFR?
PIC
100
Can a flgiht takeoff without load manifest?
No
101
Flight release must have ________ signature
PIC
102
What are the required items on the flight release?
```
DIMMWIT
Depature Airport, Destination airport, alternate, etc
aircraft Identification
Min fuel supply (MINTO)
MEL and CDL list
Wx Reports
statement of operation (IFR)
Trip number
```
103
When do you need a new flight release?
```
when dispatcher and pic says so
change of aircraft
before departure after delay of two hours
unable to depart with previous release
return the airport after takeoff
unscheduled landing
```
104
What's ICE briefing?
Initial Crew Briefing
| Introduction, communication, entry protocol
105
When do you have to amend a flight release?
```
FO/ FA change
MINTO/release fuel change
Route change
Wx update
MEL/CDL
```
106
Who is allowed to enter flight deck?
PIC has the final authority
| For INTL ops, FAA (110A Form), DOD, Check airman on duty
107
Who can carry a weapon on board?
Law enforcement officer
Federal Air Marshal (On/Off duty)
Federal flight deck officer
Other federal agents
108
Can a PAX bring weapon?
Only if its in the checked baggage and airline is notified prior
109
Carriage of prisoners
High risk: 2 armed LEOs, handcuffed, usually just 1
Low Risk: 1 armed officer, handcuffed, 1 officer takes care no more than 2 at once, number of prisoners varied
*Prisoners should stay away from the exit
110
Carriage of disabled pax
Approved as long as the pax does not req specialized care during the flight
111
When is the FA req on the plane?
The FA must remain inside the cabin anytime the PAX onbard, boarding, or deplaning, and during the intermediate stop
112
What do you do when there's a malfunction on cabin comm?
use the cabin sign first, then try PA system
113
Keys when you make a PA
open, honest, timely
be clear, concise, informative
coordinate with the FA to avoid duplication
114
Crew member not vacate from an aircraft control seat when below
10000
115
When do you have to wear a headset?
From block in to block out, below FL180
116
What is Park at Any Time system?
A method to marshal the aircraft to the gate when the weather is bad. Ground staffs will drive a truck with monitor in back to guide the aircraft into the ramp. Deplane may not occur until the ramp is open again
117
If the runway is contaminated, the ground crew must wear
headset
118
Who has the final authority on the ground?
PIC
119
What's the req ground crew member when the aircraft is taxiing in or power on departure?
1 marshaller
120
What the req ground crew member when the aircraft is pushing back?
1 marshaller and 1 wingwalker
121
Can we refuel or defuel when the PAX is around?
Yes
122
Do you need obtain IFR clearance prior to depart from an uncontrolled airport?
Mostly yes. May not need it, see Opspec C077
123
When is critical phase of flight
all ground ops, takeoff, landing, below 10000 except cruise
124
When is critical phase of flight for takeoff
Climb until 10000 or level at CRZ if CRZ level is lower than 10000
125
When is critical phase of flight for landing?
Descent below FL180 or the beginning of descend if CRZ level is below FL180
126
When does a pilot need to wear an oxygen mask if another pilot is doing the walk of shame?
FL250 or higher
127
No flight is disatched above _______ ft without the minmum crew oxygen bottle pressure in the respective SOPM
10000
128
Restrictions on pax oxygen
no medical oxygen
| no oxygen canister
129
Altimeters must be within _____ of field elevation and within ______ to each other
75ft; 100ft or 75ft for RVSM
130
What's the refernce chart to look at when you need to correct for the cold temperature?
10-7
131
What altitude do you correct during an IAP with the cold correction table?
Intermediate: FAF/FAP altitude
Final: step down fixes and minimums
ILS GS: only DA
Missed: all altitude
132
Do you have to correct for ATC vector altitude during the extreme cold temp?
no
133
When would you use Surface Movement Guidance and Control System?
Below 1200 RVR
134
What do you have to do if runway status light system is on?
Do not move
135
What do you do when runway status light system is distinguished?
Wait for ATC instruction
136
During takeoff, avoid banking below _______ AGL
400
137
When can you descend below landing min?
continously in a position and a normal landing can be made
touchdown in the touchdown zone
FLIGHT visibility is not less than prescribed vis
runway environment insight
138
What do you have to do when conducting an IAP at an uncontrolled airport?
advisories on CTAF
| final est 5 miles out
139
LAHSO Summary
```
Min wx 1000-3 or 1500-5
no windshear last 20 min
tailwind less than 3 kts
stabilized at 1000 HAT (straight in) or 500 HAT (circle)
touchdown within 1/3 or first 3000 ft
cannot accept when below 1000 AGL
avaliable ditsnace must be at least the distacne shown on the TLR
no wet runway
LAHSO lights on at night
```
140
What's the min runway length for landing?
5400 ft
141
What's min runway length for landing when an airport is less than 4000 feet high?
5000 for CRJ 200
| 5200 for CRJ 700 900
142
What;s the minimum cleared rwy width for CRJs?
200 is 75 ft 700 and 900 are 80 ft
143
If there's no REMAINDER on the FICON NOTAM
Assume RWY is clear
144
If the runway is loose contaminated (1/8 in)
We can land no matter what
145
Difference between MAYDAY and PAN-PAN
mayday - immediate danger
| pan-pan - urgency, uncertainty
146
Min fuel vs emergneyc fuel
Min fuel - cannot accept further delay
| Emer. fuel - landing with less than 30 min of fuel remaining
147
30 min of fuel for CRJs
CRJ 200 - 1050 lbs
CRJ 700 - 1500 lbs
CRJ 900 - 1550 lbs
148
Difference between RNAV 1 and RNAV 2
RNAV 1 is when the error is no more than 1 nm at 95% of the time, RNAV 2 is 2 nm
149
Can you fly with expired data base?
Yes as long as it matches with Jepp charts
150
What's the difference between Type A and Type B DP?
Type A/ HDG to fix - ATC assigns you a HDG
| Type B/Off the rwy - FMS programs procedure/ not HDG
151
Turbulence Advisory
| NNAVY-BLAZN 2200 MD2 340
From NNAVY to BLAZN, at 2200, turbluence moderate 2, at flight level 340
152
Does ATC give you wake separation during a visual approach?
No
153
ICAO categorized CRJ and ERJ as
Medium
154
If the aircraft is not RVSM certified, what the highest altitude you can fly at?
FL280
155
OpSpec A001
Type of operations: flag, domestic, supplemental
156
OpSpec A012
list of the airport outside SkyWest can go outside of USA/ 960 nm away from the border
157
OpSpec B031
Class I NAV - ground based nav facilities
| Class II NAV - GPS
158
OpSpec B046
In order to operate in RVSM, you will need
2 independent altitude measurement system
Altitude reporting XPDR
Altitude Alert System
Automatic Altitude Control System
159
OpSpec C080 IFR in Class G
Authorized IAP
Approved source of wx
CTAF okay
160
OpSpec C052 - type of approach and reduce CAT 1 min
RVR is controlling
Visibility below 1/2 do not use
mid RVR report may substitute TDZ RVR
w/out TDZ lights or RCL lights, may still use 1800 RVR with AP
161
OpSpec C054
If forecasted vis is less than 3/4 or 4000, destination rwy length should be 115% of req runway
162
OpSpec C056
When published takeoff minimum is greater than the applicable standard takeoff min, you cant use lower one under C078
163
When vis 1/4sm
CL or HIRL or RCLM or adequate visual ref
| N/A RVR
164
RVR 1600
CL or HIRL or RCLM
| 1 RVR req. TDZ RVR is controlling. MID may substitute
165
12/12/10 Day
CL or HIRL or RCLM
| 2 RVR req except far end
166
12/12/10 Night
CL or HIRL
| 2 RVR req except far end
167
10/10/10
CL or HIRL and RCLM
| 2 RVR req except far end
168
6/6/6
HIRL and CL
| 2 RVR req except far end
