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1
Q

FAR’s that SkyWest operates under

A

Part 91, 119, and 121

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2
Q

Who can grant Authority to deviate from FAR

A

Vice President / and appointee

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3
Q

Who do you call if you’re not fit for duty?

A

Crew Support

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4
Q

Who do you call if someone else is not fit for duty?

A

Manager on Duty (MOD)

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5
Q

Total Flight Time Limitations

A

100hrs/672 Consecutive Hours

1000hrs/365 days

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6
Q

How long can SkyWest extend your FDP?

A
  1. by 2 hours before the flight (if more than 30 min, report is required)
  2. as necessary if delay occurs after takeoff
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7
Q

Who must be contacted if you exceed FDP limits?

A

Certificate Management Office (CMO)

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8
Q

Which FAR regulates rest requirements?

A

Part 117

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9
Q

FDP Limits?

A
  1. 60hrs/ 168hrs

2. 190hrs/ 672 hrs

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10
Q

When is dedheading considered FDP?

A

When dedheading is followed by a flight segment without an intervening rest period

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11
Q

Are flight segments due to diversion considered when determining FDP limits?

A

No

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12
Q

6 requirements for Split duty

A
  1. Rest opportunity between 2200-0500lcl
  2. Must spend 3 hrs in suitable accomadtion
  3. Rest opputunity must be scheduled prior to FDP
  4. Rest opportunity must not be less than what’s scheduled
  5. First segment must be complete before rest starts
  6. combined time of rest and FDP cannot exceed 14hrs
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13
Q

How many FDP’s can a crewmember take that exceeds window of circadian low?

A

3 (5 if proper rest is provided during each consecutive night)

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14
Q

When is the Window of Circadian Low (WOCL)?

A

0200-05:59

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15
Q

What 6 rest requirements must be met in order to accept more than 3 FDP’s that infringe on the WOCL?

A
  1. rest opputunity must be at least 2hrs.
  2. rest must be between 2200-0500
  3. rest opportunity must be scheduled before FDP
  4. rest opportunity cant be less than what’s scheduled
  5. rest must occur after first segment is completed
  6. rest is considered part of FDP
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16
Q

Short Call Reserve Available period limits

A

Most restrictive of :

  1. Table B
  2. 14 hrs

Note: RAP + FDP cannot exceed Table B + 4 hours or
16 hours

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17
Q

Must SkyWest notify before rest period if need for Long Call Reserve?

A

Yes

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18
Q

How much prior notice do you need if going on Long Call and its goingt to infringe on the WOCL?

A

12hrs prior to report time.

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19
Q

Can SkyWest shift you from long call to short call?

A

Yes, if a 10 rest period has been received

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20
Q

Before beginning an FDP how much rest must you have?

A

30 consecutive hours in the last 168 hours

10 hrs with 8 hr sleep before the FDP

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21
Q

What is SkyWest Blood Alcohol limit?

A

0.019

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22
Q

What 10 things must you have on your person when reporting for duty?

A
  1. Pilot Cert
  2. Medical
  3. Corrective lenses
  4. Company Badge
  5. FCC license (for international)
  6. Passport (for international)
  7. Flashlight
  8. Headset
  9. EFB Bag
  10. Current Charts, FOM, and SOPM
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23
Q

When does duty time start at SkyWest?

A

45 min prior to departure

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24
Q

When must ERJ Pilots report for duty?

A

35 min prior to departure

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25
Q

When must you get your medical renewed?

A

Before the 25th day of the month at 2359

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26
Q

Who can approve an extension for your medical?

A

Chief Pilot

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27
Q

Under exemption 1152 how long can skywest issue a temporary medical if lost or stolen?

A

72 hrs (cannot be used internationally)

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28
Q

How long does a temporary medical last from the FAA?

A

60 days

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29
Q

SIC with less than 100hrs has which landing limitations?

A
  1. <3/4 Sm visibility
  2. RVR 4000 ft
  3. Contamination
  4. Braking action < Good
  5. 15 kt Crosswind
  6. Windshear
  7. Any condition PIC determines
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30
Q

SIC xwind limitation

A

20 kts

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31
Q

Either the PIC or the SIC must have how many hours in type?

A

75 hrs

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32
Q

PIC has less than 100hrs limitations

A
  1. Minimums + 100 ft / + 1/2 SM
  2. No CAT II
  3. Alternates must have 300 ft - 1 SM or higher
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33
Q

How much flight time must you have after a proficiency check?

A

100hrs/ 120 days after check

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34
Q

Can EFB be used in lieu of paper checklist?

A

No, but a printout can

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35
Q

When must an alternate be filed?

A

123 rule

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36
Q

When must a Second Alternate be filed?

A
  1. If both the Destination AND Alternate are forecast to be marginal
  2. If either the Destination OR Alternate have conditional degradation (exemption 3585)

Note: Main body language must be above minimums to dispatch, and the conditional language cannot be less than half of what’s required. BCMG is not considered conditional language but does become main body after its designated time. High Mins captains cannot use.

Destination- Vis only
Alternates- Vis and ceiling required

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37
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be filed? Can exemption 3585 be applied?

A

Anytime the departure weather is below the approach minimums for that airport. Exemption 3585 does not apply for take off alternates

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38
Q

How far can a takeoff alternate be for the ERJ 175?

A

300 NM (1 hr single engine cruise distance)

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39
Q

Alternate Minimums needed for dispatch?

A

1 Nav aid add 400-1 to minumums
2 Nav Aids add 200-1/2 to highest minimum

Note: GPS can only count as one nav aid even if there’s multiple runway approaches, these are for planning only, using the 1 nav aid method may be less restrictive even if there’s more than one nav aid. CAT II NA for this

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40
Q

Which elements can be missing from a weather report?

A
  1. Sky Condition
  2. Temperature (for US only)
  3. Altimeter (for departure)
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41
Q

Minimum planned contingency fuel for Skywest

A

15 min

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42
Q

Must a fuel increase be reported to Dispatch?

A

Yes

43
Q

Must fuel decrease be reported to Dispatch?

A

No, unless its more than 200lbs or 50% of the contingency fuel.

44
Q

Which deviations should be reported to Dispatch as soon as practical?

A
  1. ETA more than 15 minutes from planned
  2. Altitude varies more than 4000 feet
  3. more than 100 miles from planned route
  4. > 1hr deviation from schedule
45
Q

Can passengers be on board during fueling?

A

Yes, if exits are unobstructed and the operations are not conducted on left side of aircraft

46
Q

What must be on a dispatch?

A
  1. Id number
  2. Flight Number
  3. Departure/ Stops (including alternates)
  4. Type (IFR/VFR)
  5. MINTO
  6. Weather reports
  7. MEL/CDL (when applicable)
    “DIMWIT”
47
Q

Who/ when must a person file a report to if declaring an emergency.

A

Manger on Duty (MOD)
Verbally as soon as possible
a written report (IOR) within 24 hours

Note: The Vice President will submit a written report to FAA within 10 days

48
Q

Who can be admitted to the flight deck?

A
  1. FAA Safety inspector 110A
  2. DOD air carrier evaluator 110B
  3. Check airmen
  4. Secret Service
  5. NTSB 1660-2
  6. SkyWest Higher ups
  7. SkyWest Dedheads
  8. IOSA flight check personnel (Form 8430-6)
    International Air transportation association (IATA) performs International Operations Safety Audit (IOSA
49
Q

Which form must an FAA Safety inspector provide?

A

Form 110A

50
Q

Who can carry a weapon?

A
  1. Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)
  2. Federal Air Marshal (FAM)
  3. Federal Flight Deck Officer (FFDO)
51
Q

How many High risk prisoners can there be?

A

1 (must be accompanied by 2 armed LEO’s)

52
Q

How many low risk prisoners?

A

As many as can be accomadated.
Must have 1 escort
LEO can escort up to 2 low risk prisoners
if more than 4 hours then 2 LEO’s required

53
Q

How much EFB battery needed before FDP begins?

A

80%

54
Q

How much EFB battery needed in flight

A

60 minutes of battery per 4200lbs (1 hr) of fuel on board

55
Q

Within how many preceding days must the company manuals be updated before an FDP?

A

4 calendar days

56
Q

Who has the authority to dispatch a flight with only 1 EFB?

A

Manager on Duty (MOD)

57
Q

When can speakers be used instead of headset?

A

above 18,000 ft

58
Q

Can Park at any time Systems (PAATS) be used if APU or Hot brake indications?

A

No

59
Q

PAATS complete parking system is called what?

A

Aircraft Parking and Information System (APIS)

60
Q

Minimum Ground crew required for Arrival/ Power off?

A

1 agent (Marshaller)

61
Q

Minimum Ground crew required for Pushback?

A

2 (pushback operator and one wing walker)

62
Q

Altimeter Checks on the ground

A

must be 75 feet from airport elevation
must be 100 ft from each other
must be 75 ft from each other in RVSM

63
Q

Lowest altitude banking should be peformed

A

400ft above highest obstacle in immediate area`

64
Q

How far out must final be established at uncontrolled airports?

A

5 miles (unless other traffic)

65
Q

LAHSO limitations

A
  1. 1000-3 with PAPI or VASI
  2. 1500-5 without PAPI or VASI
  3. No windshear in last 20 min
  4. < 3 kt tailwind
  5. stabilized at 1000ft or 500ft HAT
  6. touchdown must be in first 1/3 or 3000 ft
  7. at night, LASHO lighting
  8. No MEL that affects stopping ability
  9. Cannot accept LAHSO below 1000ft
66
Q

Minimum runway length for landing all skywest aircraft

A

5400 ft (maybe reduced if less than 4000 ft elevation SAAT level 3 airports)

67
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

landing with less than 30 min of fuel (1500 lbs)

68
Q

Minimum Fuel

A

landing with less than 45 min of fuel (2250 lbs)

69
Q

International Supplemental operations Fuel Requirements

A

Enough fuel to fly to destionation,
Thereafter hold 30 minutes at holding speed 1500 ft AFE

If no alternate then fly to destination plus 2 hours

70
Q

What must the PIC carry on supplemental flights?

A
  1. Load manifest
  2. Flight Release
  3. Airworthiness Release
  4. Pilot Route Certification (release)
  5. Flight plan
71
Q

Who/when must a PIC report to if a deviation to an unplanned airport is made (No FAR deviation)?

A

The Vice President of flight Operations must receive an IOR no later than the completion of the trip pairing.

The Vice President will sent a written report to the CMO within 10 days.

72
Q

Who has the authority to dispatch an airplane from an Unlisted airport?

A
  1. The Vice president of Flight Ops,
  2. Director of Aircraft Ops
  3. Company Chief pilot
  4. Managing Director
  5. Operation control center
  6. or designees
73
Q

Extended Ground Delay Program Time Limits

A

180 minutes domestic
240 minutes international
120 minutes restricted

74
Q

Who/ when must be contacted if laser event?

A

Operation control center (OCC) and the Flight Operations MOD

immediately

75
Q

What is considered a near mid air collision?

A

proximity of less than 500 ft

76
Q

Threat Levels

A

Level 1- Disruptive
Level 2- Physical
Level 3 - Life threatening or severe bodily injury
Level 4- Attempted or successful breech of cockpit

77
Q

NTSBO Briefing stands for What?

A 
N- Nature of emergency
T- Time available for preparation before landing
S- Signal to be used for evacuation
B- Bracing if needed
O- Other pertinent information
78
Q

Approved Weather Sources

A
  1. NWS offices, FAA Flight Service
  2. NATO military observing and forecasting sources
  3. Member of World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
  4. Foreign States that subscribe to ICAO standards
  5. Meteorological Station authorized by ICAO State.
  6. EWINS (Enhance Weather information system)
  7. WSI
79
Q

Equipment Needed for RVSM

A
  1. Two independent altitude measurement systems
  2. Altitude Reporting transponder
  3. One altitude alert system
  4. One automatic altitude control system
80
Q

Which lights can be substituted with FD or HUD to 1800 RVR when prescribed?

A

TDZ or RCL

81
Q

When must 115% of the landing distance needed be available according to C054?

A

forecast 3/4 sm or RVR 4000 or less

82
Q

What are the Standard Takeoff minimums for 2 engine planes?

A

1SM or RVR 5000

83
Q

Takeoff requirements for RVR > 1600

A 
TDZ RVR needed (Mid can substitute)
RVV 1/4 SM can be substituted
at least on of the following:
1. HIRL
2. CL
3. Centerline Markings (RCLM)

TDZ (or mid) is only controlling

84
Q

Take off requirements for RVR <1600

A

2 RVR’s (not Far-end)
all RVR’s are controlling when available

1200 1200 1200:
Day- HIRL or CL or RCLM
Night- HIRL or CL

1000 1000 1000:
CL or RCLM + HIRL

600 600 600:
CL + HIRL

85
Q

Cat II Landing Requirements

A

> 1600 RVR
TDZ required
MID and RO is controlling if available

<1600 RVR
TDZ and RO RVR required (Mid or FE can sub for RO)
All are controlling (when available)
FE only advisory unless its replacing RO

TDZ MID RO FE
1200 600 300 300

All of the following:
1. HIRL
2. CL
3. ALSF-1 or 2
Flashers may be inop

Xwind cant be more than 15kts

86
Q

Foreign Airports where CAT II approaches are approved

A

Manitoba/Winnipeg Intl : CYWG
Montreal/ Pierre Eliott Trudeau Intl: CYUL
Toronto/ Lester B. Pearson Intl: CYYZ
Vancouver B. C. Intl: CYVR

87
Q

Circling to Land Minimums

A

1000-3

or published minimums if higher

88
Q

When can a visual approach be accepted?

A
  1. Class B,C,D, airspace
  2. Class E, if within 35 miles of destination
  3. The flight is under ATC control
  4. Basic cloud clearances must be adhered to
  5. Without a Charted Visual Flight Procedure (CVFP), must have visual contact with airport or traffic to be followed
  6. With a CVFP, must have Wx minimums on CVFP and must have a landmark, or airport in sight
89
Q

When can we cancel IFR?

A
  1. Must have reported visibility specified in part 91.155
  2. Must have 1000ft ceiling
  3. basic cloud clearance
  4. must be able to maintain minimum altitude 91.129-131
  5. Class B,C,D airspace
  6. For Class E, within 10 NM of Destination or landing surface visual contact
  7. Remain in controlled airspace
90
Q

Departing VFR limitations?

A
  1. Wx Visiblity per 91.155
  2. Ceiling must be 1000ft
  3. basic cloud clearance
  4. visual on ground or landmark
  5. minimum altitude per 91.129-131
  6. Remain in VMC while VFR
  7. Obtain clearance asap but no later than 50 NM away
91
Q

VMCG

A

Minimum control speed on ground with one engine
on takeoff power
only aerodynamic control
cant deviate more than 30 ft

92
Q

VMCA

A 
Minimum Control Speed
in air
one engine inop
takeoff power
5 degrees of bank
cannot be more than 150 pounds of rudder force
93
Q

V1

A

Critical engine Failure Speed or decision speed

must be greater than VMCG

94
Q

VR

A

Rotation Speed

Must be more than 105% VMCA

95
Q

VLof

A

Speed at which aircraft becomes airborne

96
Q

V2

A

Takeoff speed which must be acquired 35 ft heigt at end of runway distance

Vr must be adjusted to meet V2 requirement

97
Q

VFTO

A

Final Segment Speed

Provides?

98
Q

Balanced Field Length

A

?

99
Q

Accelerate Go vs Accelerate Stop

A

?

100
Q

Climb Segments

A 
Groundroll- ends at Vlof
1st segment- Vlof to V2
2nd segment- 35' to 400'
3rd segment- 400'  accelerate
4th segment - 400' to 1500'
101
Q

Method 1 vs Method 2 descent planning

A

?

102
Q

3 degree glide path math formulas

A

distance= altitude to lose x3 / 1000

required rate of descent=1/2 GS * 10

103
Q

MEAN Stands for?

A

Memory Items
Emergency Checklist (QRC)
Abnormal Checklist (QRH)
Normal Checklist

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