Indications Flashcards

1
Q

Acetaminophen

A

• Mild to moderate pain
• Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acetylsalicyclic acid

A

• Chest pain and/or signs and symptoms suggestive on the acute coronary syndrome
• Abnormal ECG waveforms suggestive of the acute coronary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Activated charcoal

A

• Oral poisonings
• Oral overdoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Adenosine

A

• Supraventricular tachycardia
• Monomorphic wide-complex tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Albuterol sulfate

A

• Asthma
• Bronchospasm associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema
• Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Amiodarone

A

• Ventricular fibrillation
• Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
• Wide complex tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Atropine sulfate

A

• Hemodynamically significant bradycardia
• Organophosphate poisoning
• Carbamate poisoning
• Nerve agent exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bumetanide

A

• Pulmonary edema
• Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Calcium chloride

A

• Hyperkalemia
• Acute hypocalcemia
• Calcium channel blocker overdose
• Beta-blocker overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Calcium gluconate 2.5% topical gel

A

Contact with hydrofluoric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Calcium gluconate

A

• Hyperkalemia
• Beta-blocker overdose
• Calcium channel blocker overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dexamethasone

A

• Asthma
• Chronic bronchitis
• Emphysema
• Other reactive airway conditions
•Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dextrose 50%

A

• Hypoglycemia
• Unconsciousness of unknown etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diazepam

A

• Seizure activity
• Status epilepticus
• Procedural sedation for rapid sequence intubation and cardioversion
• Chemical restraint for agitated (excited) delirium
• Severe anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diltiazem

A

• Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate
• Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular rate
• Supraventricular tachycardia second-line to administration of adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

• Allergic reaction
•Anaphylaxis
• Phenothiazine reaction with extrapyramidal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dopamine

A

• Cardiogenic shock
• Hemodynamically significant bradycardia
• Hemodynamically significant hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Epinephrine

A

• Cardia arrest with asystole, pulseless electrical activity, ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia
• Asthma
• Bronchospasm associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema
• Allergic reaction
• Anaphylaxis
• Hemodynamically significant bradycardia
• Hemodynamically significant hypotension from a cause other than hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Etomidate

A

Procedural sedation for rapid sequence intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fentanyl

A

Pain management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Furosemide

A

• Pulmonary edema
• Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Glucagon

A

•Hemodynamically significant hypoglycemia
• Beta-blocker overdose

23
Q

Hydroxocobalamin

A

Cyanide poisoning by inhalation, ingestion and exposure

24
Q

Ibuprofen

A

•Mild to moderate pain
• Fever

25
Q

Ipratroprum bromide

A

• Asthma
• Bronchospasm associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema

26
Q

Ketamine

A

• Procedural sedation for rapid sequence intubation
• Chemical restraint for agitated (excited) delirium
• Pain management

27
Q

Lidocaine

A

• Ventricular fibrillation
• Ventricular tachycardia
• Ventricular dysthymias
º Frequent premature wide-complexes and couplets
º Monomorphic wide-complex tachycardia

28
Q

Lorazepam

A

• Seizure activity
• Status epilepticus
• Procedural sedation for intubation and cardioversion
• Chemical restraint for agitated (excited) delirium
• Severe anxiety

29
Q

Magnesium sulfate

A

• Seizures caused by toxicity of pregnant (toxemia)
• Pregnancy induced hypertension (pre-eclampsia and eclampsia)
• Pre-term labor
• Torsades de pointes (polymorphic ventricular tachycardia)
• Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia refractory to amiodarone or lidocaine
• Reactive airway conditions including bronchoconstriction and bronchospasm

30
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

• Asthma
• Chronic bronchitis
• Emphysema
• Other reactive airway conditions
• Anaphylaxis
• Burns involving the airway

31
Q

Midazolam

A

• Seizure activity
• Status epilepticus
• Procedural sedation for intubation and cardioversion
• Chemical restraint for agitated (excited) delirium

32
Q

Morphine sulfate

A

• Pain management
• Chest pain and/or signs and symptoms suggestive of the acute coronary syndrome
• Acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema

33
Q

Naloxone

A

• Narcotics and synthetic analgesic overdoses including:
º morphine (MS-Contin)
º heroin
º oxycodone (OxyContin)
º methadone
º codeine
º meperidine (Demerol)
º fentanyl (Sublimaze)
º hydrocodone (Vicodin)
º hydromorphone
• Unconsciousness of unknown etiology

34
Q

Nitroglycerin

A

• Chest pain and signs/symptoms suggestive of the acute coronary syndrome
• Congestive heart failure with pulmonary edema

35
Q

Nitrous oxide 50%

A

Pain management

36
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Severe hypotension refractory to IV boluses caused by:
º Cardiogenic shock
º Septic shock
º Neurogenic shock

37
Q

Ondansetron

A

Nausea and vomiting

38
Q

Oral glucose

A

Hypoglycemia

39
Q

Oxygen

A

• Hypoxia
• Suspected hypoxia where pulse oximetry indicated less than 94% with an unstable patient

40
Q

Oxytocin

A

Postpartum hemorrhage

41
Q

Phenylephrine nasal spray 0.5%

A

Administered prior to insertion of a nasotracheal tube

42
Q

Pralidoxime chloride (2-Pam)

A

Organophosphate pesticide poisoning

43
Q

Proparacaine ophthalmic solution 0.5%

A

Chemical exposure to the eyes requiring irrigation

44
Q

Racemic epinephrine

A

• Croup
• Bronchospasm associated with asthma, chronic bronchitis, and bronchiolitis

45
Q

Rocuronium

A

Induction of paralysis to facilitate rapid sequence intubation

46
Q

Sodium bicarbonate 7.5% - 8.4%

A

• Pre-existing or known metabolic acidosis
• Acidosis refractory to effective ventilation
• Salicylate overdose
• Tricyclic antidepressant overdose
• Hyperkalemia
• Prolonged cardiac arrest
• Crush syndrome

47
Q

Succinylcholine

A

Induction of paralysis to facilitate rapid sequence intubation

48
Q

Tetracaine

A

Chemical exposure to the eyes requiring irrigation

49
Q

Thiamine

A

• Delirium tremens
• Wernicke encephalopathy
• Korsakoff syndrome
• Unconsciousness of unknown etiology
• Alcoholism
• Malnutrition

50
Q

Vasopressin

A

Cardiac arrest:
º ventricular fibrillation
º pulseless ventricular tachycardia
º asystole
º pulseless ventricular activity

51
Q

Verapamil

A

• Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate
• Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular rate
• Supraventricular tachycardia

52
Q

0.9% sodium chloride solution
normal saline solution (NS)

A

• Parenteral replacement of fluids and sodium chloride loss, including hypovolemia
• IV and IO access for drug administration
• Dilution of drugs for infusion

53
Q

Lactated ringer’s solution

A

• Parenteral replacement of fluids and electrolyte loss, including hypovolemia
• IV and IO access for drug administration
• Trauma in pregnancy
• Burn injury

54
Q

5% dextrose in water
D5W

A

• Parenteral maintenance of water and carbohydrate required by the clinical condition of the patient
• IV and IO access for drug administration
• Dilution of concentrated drugs for infusion